UPSC Prelims 2007·GS1·polity-and-governance·governance

Consider the following statements: 1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Dalvoy logo
Reviewed by Dalvoy
UPSC Civil Services preparation
Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST
  1. A1 onlyCorrect
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The procedure for the removal of a High Court Judge is identical to that of a Supreme Court Judge. Both are removed by the President's order, following an address passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 220 of the Constitution states that a permanent Judge of a High Court, after retirement, is prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority in India, *except* the Supreme Court and other High Courts. Therefore, they are not completely barred from pleading or acting in any court in India. Since only statement 1 is correct, option A is the answer.
polity-and-governance: Consider the following statements: 1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal

Related questions

More UPSC Prelims practice from the same subject and topic.