In a democratic State, where a high degree of Political maturity of the people obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign lawmaking body and the organized will of the people seldom occurs. What does the above passage imply?

The passage states that in a democratic state with politically mature people, conflict between the lawmaking body and the people "seldom occurs." This implies a high degree of acceptance and alignment between the government's actions and the citizens' will.

Let's analyze the options:

A) In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty This is incorrect. Democracies are founded on consent, representation, and rule of law, not primarily on force.

B) In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty This is also incorrect. A mature democracy would rely even less on overt force as its legitimacy is widely accepted.

C) In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty This is an extreme statement and incorrect. Even in a mature democracy, the state retains the monopoly on legitimate force (e.g., police, military) to enforce laws, maintain order, and protect its citizens. It is not irrelevant, but ideally used as a last resort.

D) In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty. This is the correct implication. If conflict "seldom occurs" due to political maturity, it means the need for the state to impose its will through overt force is significantly reduced. People generally accept laws and resolve differences through democratic processes. Therefore, force becomes a "marginal phenomenon"—it exists but is rarely needed and not central to the daily exercise of sovereignty. It's used only in exceptional circumstances, rather than being a primary tool.

The final answer is D.