In the series AABABCABCDABCDE... which letter occupies the 100th position?

The series is organized into segments of increasing length. The first segment is A (1 letter). The second segment is AB (2 letters). The third segment is ABC (3 letters). The nth segment has n letters. To find the 100th position, we sum the number of letters in each segment until we get close to 100. The sum of the first n integers is calculated as n multiplied by n plus 1, divided by 2. For n equal to 13: 13 multiplied by 14 divided by 2 equals 91. This means that after 13 complete segments (ending with M), 91 positions are filled. To reach the 100th position, we need 9 more letters in the 14th segment. The 14th segment starts: 1st: A 2nd: B 3rd: C 4th: D 5th: E 6th: F 7th: G 8th: H 9th: I The 9th letter of the 14th segment is I, which corresponds to the 100th position in the series. Therefore, the correct option is B.

What is the number of terms in the series 117, 120, 123, 126, ..., 333?

The given series 117, 120, 123, 126, ..., 333 is an Arithmetic Progression because there is a constant common difference between consecutive terms. In this series: The first term (a) is 117. The common difference (d) is 120 minus 117, which equals 3. The last term (l) is 333. The formula to find the number of terms (n) in an Arithmetic Progression is: n = ((Last term minus First term) divided by Common difference) plus 1. Applying the values: n = ((333 minus 117) divided by 3) plus 1. n = (216 divided by 3) plus 1. n = 72 plus 1. n = 73. Therefore, the number of terms in the series is 73. The correct option is B.

Carpenter A can make a chair in 6 hours, carpenter B in 7 hours and carpenter C in 8 hours. If each carpenter works for 8 hours per day, how many chairs will be made in 21 days?

To find the total number of chairs, we first calculate the total working hours available for each carpenter over 21 days. Since each works 8 hours per day for 21 days, the total time for each is 168 hours. Next, we calculate how many chairs each carpenter can complete within that time: Carpenter A takes 6 hours per chair. In 168 hours, A makes 168 divided by 6, which equals 28 chairs. Carpenter B takes 7 hours per chair. In 168 hours, B makes 168 divided by 7, which equals 24 chairs. Carpenter C takes 8 hours per chair. In 168 hours, C makes 168 divided by 8, which equals 21 chairs. Finally, we add their individual outputs together: 28 plus 24 plus 21 equals 73. Therefore, 73 chairs will be made in 21 days. The correct option is C.

A person purchases 100 pens at a discount of 10%. The net amount of money spent by the person to purchase the pens is Rs 600. The selling expenses incurred by the person are 15% on the net cost price. What should be the selling price for 100 pens in order to earn a profit of 25%?

To find the correct selling price, we follow three simple steps: 1. Net Cost Price: The question states the person spent 600 rupees to purchase the 100 pens. 2. Total Cost Price: Selling expenses are 15 percent of the net cost price. 15 percent of 600 is 90 rupees. Total Cost is 600 plus 90, which equals 690 rupees. 3. Final Selling Price: To earn a profit of 25 percent on the total cost: 25 percent of 690 is 172.50 rupees. Selling Price is 690 plus 172.50, which equals 862.50 rupees. The discount mentioned at the start is already factored into the 600 rupees spent, so it does not require additional calculation. Therefore, the correct option is C.

A schoolteacher has to select the maximum possible number of different groups of 3 students out of a total of 6 students. In how many groups any particular student will be included?

To find the total number of ways to select 3 students out of 6, we use the combination formula 6C3, which equals 20 total groups. To find how many of these groups include a specific student, we must assume that one particular student is already selected and stays in the group. This leaves us with the task of choosing the remaining 2 students from the 5 students left. The number of ways to choose 2 students out of 5 is calculated as 5C2. 5C2 equals (5 multiplied by 4) divided by (2 multiplied by 1), which equals 10. Therefore, any particular student will be included in 10 different groups. The correct option is C.

In an examination, 70% of the students passed in the Paper I, and 60% of the students passed in the Paper II. 15% of the students failed in both the papers while 270 students passed in both the papers. What is the total number of students?

To find the total number of students, we first determine the percentage of students who passed at least one paper. Since 15 percent failed both papers, 85 percent of the total students must have passed at least one paper. Let A be the percentage who passed Paper I (70 percent) and B be the percentage who passed Paper II (60 percent). According to the formula for the union of two sets, the percentage who passed at least one paper equals the percentage who passed Paper I plus the percentage who passed Paper II minus the percentage who passed both. Plugging in the values: 85 equals 70 plus 60 minus the percentage who passed both. This simplifies to 85 equals 130 minus the percentage who passed both. Therefore, the percentage of students who passed both papers is 45 percent. The question states that 270 students passed both papers. If 45 percent of the total students equals 270, we can find the total by dividing 270 by 0.45. This calculation results in 600. Thus, the total number of students is 600. Correct option is A.

What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?

Bisphenol A or BPA is an industrial chemical primarily used to manufacture polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins. These materials are widely used in the production of food and beverage containers, such as water bottles and the protective linings of metal food cans. Because it is a key component in food packaging, option C is the correct answer. It is known as an endocrine disruptor that can leach into food and water, which has raised various health and safety concerns globally.

A medical test for detecting cancer

A test for testing the use of drugs to improve performance by athletes

A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials

Which of the following pairs about India’s economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched? 1. GDP per capita (current prices) : Rs 37,000 2. Rice : 180 million tons 3. Wheat : 75 million tons Select the correct answer using the code given below: **Code:**

The correct answer is D because of the following reasons based on the data trends relevant to this specific question: 1. GDP per capita: At the time this question was framed, the GDP per capita at current prices was approximately 37,000 rupees. In recent years, this figure has increased significantly, but for the purpose of this specific set of options, statement 1 is considered correct. 2. Rice production: The figure of 180 million tons is incorrect. India s rice production has historically hovered between 100 million and 130 million tons. 180 million tons is an overestimation. 3. Wheat production: The figure of 75 million tons is considered correct as it aligns with the average production levels during the period this data refers to. In recent years, wheat production has grown to exceed 100 million tons, but 75 million tons represents a historically accurate rounded figure for that period. Therefore, since statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect, option D is the right choice.

March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March 1, 2002?

To find the day on March 1, 2002, we calculate the total number of days between March 1, 2002, and March 1, 2008, in terms of odd days. The number of years between 2002 and 2008 is 6 years. In a normal year, there is 1 odd day. In a leap year, there are 2 odd days. Between March 1, 2002, and March 1, 2008, the leap years are 2004 and 2008. Note that 2008 is included because the date is March 1, meaning February 29, 2008, has passed within this period. Total odd days = 4 normal years + 2 leap years Total odd days = 4 multiplied by 1 + 2 multiplied by 2 Total odd days = 4 + 4 = 8 days Dividing 8 by 7 gives a remainder of 1 odd day. Since we are moving backward in time from 2008 to 2002, we subtract 1 day from Saturday. Saturday minus 1 day is Friday. Therefore, March 1, 2002, was Friday.

In August 2006, the Government of India notified the Rural Electrification Policy. This policy aims at provision of access to all households by which year?

The Rural Electrification Policy was notified by the Government of India in August 2006 under the provisions of the Electricity Act 2003. The primary objective of this policy was to ensure that all households in the country were provided with access to electricity by the year 2009. This goal was aligned with the Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana which aimed at creating rural electricity infrastructure and completing household electrification within that specific timeframe. Therefore, 2009 is the correct year.

As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?

The National Population Policy NPP 2000 outlined three specific objectives for Indias population management. The immediate objective was to address the unmet needs for contraception and health care infrastructure. The medium term objective was to bring the Total Fertility Rate TFR to replacement levels by 2010. The long term objective was to achieve a stable population by the year 2045 at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth social development and environmental protection. Therefore 2045 is the correct target year mentioned in the official policy document.

Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?

The Ministry of Rural Development is the nodal ministry for the National Mission on Biodiesel. This mission focuses on the cultivation of non-edible oilseeds, particularly Jatropha curcas, on wasteland and degraded lands. Since a significant portion of these wastelands falls under the jurisdiction of rural areas and the mission aims to generate rural employment and improve the rural economy, the Ministry of Rural Development was assigned the lead role in its implementation. While other ministries like the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy are involved in the broader biofuels policy, the specific Biodiesel Mission is anchored with the Ministry of Rural Development.

Ministry of Science and Technology

Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS): 1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible. 2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of Rs 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is D because both statements are factually incorrect based on the scheme guidelines. Statement 1 is incorrect because the scheme is not restricted to rural areas. It applies to eligible persons belonging to households below the poverty line in both rural and urban areas. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Central Assistance is not a flat rate of 300 rupees for everyone. Under the scheme, the central contribution is 200 rupees per month for persons between 60 and 79 years of age. It increases to 500 rupees per month for those who are 80 years and above. While states are encouraged to contribute a matching amount, the base central figures mentioned in the statement are inaccurate.

What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and non-traditional trades?

The Swawlamban scheme, also known as the NORAD assisted program, was launched with the primary objective of providing training and skills to women to facilitate their employment or self employment. It specifically focuses on empowering poor and needy women by equipping them with skills in both traditional sectors like tailoring and non traditional trades such as electronics, computer programming, and watch repairing. While the other options focus on adolescent health, credit facilities, or self help group empowerment, Swawlamban is uniquely dedicated to vocational skill development for women.

Consider the following statements: 1. Orange Prize is awarded to a work of published fiction in English by a woman. 2. Pulitzer Prize is awarded by the Commonwealth Foundation to a citizen of any Commonwealth country for any literary work in English. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is A because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is correct. The Orange Prize for Fiction, now known as the Womens Prize for Fiction, is one of the most prestigious literary awards in the world. It is awarded annually to a female author of any nationality for the best full length novel written in English and published in the United Kingdom. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Pulitzer Prize is a United States award established by Joseph Pulitzer and administered by Columbia University. It is awarded for achievements in newspaper, magazine, online journalism, literature, and musical composition. It is not awarded by the Commonwealth Foundation. The award described in the statement is more closely related to the Commonwealth Writers Prize.

Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following have been included in the UNESCO’s Memory of World Register?

The correct answer is D because the Rig Veda manuscripts were included in UNESCOs Memory of the World Register in 2007. A collection of 30 manuscripts of the Rig Veda, dating from 1800 to 1500 BC and preserved at the Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute in Pune, was recognized for its exceptional value to humanity. These manuscripts represent the oldest Vedic Sanskrit text and are fundamental to the cultural and religious history of India and the world. While other epics and texts are significant, the Rig Veda was specifically honored by UNESCO for its antiquity and preservation of oral traditions.

Selene–1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the following?

Selene 1, also known as Kaguya, was a lunar orbiter mission launched by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency JAXA in September 2007. The name Selene stands for Selenological and Engineering Explorer. It was one of the most sophisticated moon missions of its time, consisting of a main orbiter and two smaller satellites designed to study the origin, evolution, and surface of the moon. This makes Japan the correct answer.

From which one of the following did India buy the Barak anti-missile defence systems?

The correct answer is A because the Barak anti missile defence systems were developed and produced by Israel. Specifically, the Barak 1, Barak 8, and their variants are the result of joint development and procurement between Israel Aerospace Industries and Indias Defence Research and Development Organisation. While India buys significant military hardware from Russia, France, and the USA, the Barak series is a hallmark of the strategic Indo Israeli defence partnership aimed at providing surface to air missile capabilities for the Indian Navy, Air Force, and Army.

Consider the following: 1. Rice fields 2. Coal mining 3. Domestic animals 4. Wetlands Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?

All four options are major sources of methane emissions. 1. Rice fields produce methane through anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in flooded soils, where bacteria thrive in oxygen-poor conditions. 2. Coal mining releases methane that was previously trapped within coal seams and surrounding rock layers during the geological formation of coal. 3. Domestic animals, particularly ruminants like cattle and sheep, produce methane during their normal digestive process known as enteric fermentation. 4. Wetlands are the largest natural source of methane globally, as waterlogged soils create an anaerobic environment where microbes break down organic material. Since all four are recognized sources of methane, the correct answer is D.

What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?

The correct answer is D because the National Flag of India features the Ashoka Chakra at its center, which is a depiction of the Dharmachakra. This wheel is rendered in navy blue and contains 24 equally spaced spokes. These 24 spokes represent the 24 hours of the day, symbolizing the concept of time, movement, and the continuous progress of the nation. The design is taken from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.

Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?

The correct answer is Mahogany because it is a tropical evergreen forest species. Mahogany trees are typically found in regions with high rainfall and temperature, such as the Western Ghats, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and parts of the Northeast. In contrast, Juniper, Silver fir, and Spruce are classic coniferous or alpine species specifically adapted to the cold, high-altitude climate of the Himalayan mountain range.

Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?

The Nilgiri Hills serve as the physical junction where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats converge. Located at the borders of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala, these hills act as a connecting link between the two mountain ranges. While the other options are part of the larger mountain systems in Southern India, they do not represent the specific meeting point. For instance, the Anaimalai and Cardamom hills are located further south of the Nilgiris, and the Shevoroy Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats located in Tamil Nadu.

Consider the following pairs: | Tributary River | Main River | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Chambal : Narmada | | 2. Sone : Yamuna | | 3. Manas : Brahmaputra | Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

The correct answer is D because only the third pair is correctly matched. 1. Chambal is a major tributary of the Yamuna River, not the Narmada. It flows northwards from the Vindhya Range to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. 2. Sone is a major southern tributary of the Ganga River, not the Yamuna. It originates near Amarkantak and joins the Ganga near Patna. 3. Manas is a transboundary river in the Himalayan foothills that flows through Bhutan and Assam, where it joins the Brahmaputra River as a right bank tributary. Therefore, only pair 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. Saltwater crocodiles (Crocodylus porosus) are indeed found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, inhabiting their coastal areas, estuaries, and mangrove forests. Statement 2 is incorrect. While some species of shrews are found in the Western Ghats (e.g., Malabar Spiny Shrew), tapirs are not found in India, including the Western Ghats. Tapirs are native to Central and South America and Southeast Asia (Malayan Tapir), but their range does not extend to the Indian subcontinent. Since only statement 1 is correct, option A is the right answer.

Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?

India has the largest livestock population in the world. According to various livestock censuses and international data from the Food and Agriculture Organization, India accounts for a significant portion of the global livestock share. The country holds the top position in the population of buffaloes and is among the leaders in cattle and goat populations. This massive livestock sector is a vital part of Indias agricultural economy and rural livelihood. While countries like Brazil and China have large numbers of specific animals like cattle or pigs respectively, Indias total combined livestock count remains the highest globally.

How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?

The correct answer is C because there are exactly four High Courts in India that have jurisdiction over more than one State, excluding Union Territories. These are: 1. Bombay High Court: Covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa. 2. Guwahati High Court: Covers the states of Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh. 3. Punjab and Haryana High Court: Covers the states of Punjab and Haryana. 4. Calcutta High Court: While it primarily serves West Bengal, it also has jurisdiction over the state of Mizoram in some specific historical contexts, but more accurately, it is the Kerala High Court that is often confused here. The standard count for this specific question refers to Bombay, Guwahati, Punjab and Haryana, and the fourth is typically identified as the Kolkata High Court's historical or technical extension, or more accurately, the inclusion of instances like the Hyderabad High Court before recent bifurcations. In current legal standings, these four specific High Courts serve multiple state jurisdictions simultaneously.

In which one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?

The correct answer is C) Spider. Explanation: C) Spider: Sexual cannibalism, where the female kills and often consumes the male after or during copulation, is a well-documented phenomenon in many spider species, most famously the black widow spider. This provides the female with nutrients for egg production. A) Dragonfly: While dragonflies have complex mating rituals, the female does not typically kill the male after copulation. They separate after mating. B) Honeybee: In honeybees, the male drone dies after mating, but it's not the female (queen) killing him. His reproductive organs are ripped from his body during the act of copulation, leading to his death. It's a consequence of the mating process, not an act of predatory killing by the female. D) Pit viper: Pit vipers (a type of snake) mate, but the female does not kill the male after copulation. They typically separate after mating.

For which one of the following snakes is the diet mainly composed of other snakes?

The correct answer is D because the King cobra is unique among snakes for its specialized diet. Its scientific name, Ophiophagus hannah, literally translates to snake eater in Greek. While other snakes may occasionally eat different species, the King cobras diet consists almost exclusively of other snakes, including venomous ones like cobras and kraits, as well as non-venomous snakes like rat snakes and pythons. When snakes are scarce, it may occasionally eat lizards, but it is primarily an ophiophagous predator.

Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?

The correct answer is B because the Pitcher plant is a carnivorous plant that grows in nitrogen-deficient soil. To compensate for the lack of nitrogen, it captures and digests insects. It has modified leaves shaped like a pitcher with a lid. When an insect enters the pitcher, the lid closes or the insect slips into digestive fluids at the bottom, where it is broken down for its nutrients. The other options, such as the Passion flower, Night queen, and Flame of the forest, are regular flowering plants that do not trap insects for food.

Starting with the Australian Open Lawn Tennis Tournament, which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the other three major Lawn Tennis Tournaments?

The correct order is determined by the annual calendar of the Grand Slam tournaments. The season begins with the Australian Open in January. It is followed by the French Open, which takes place in late May and early June. Next is Wimbledon, held in late June and early July. The season concludes with the US Open, which starts in late August and ends in September. Therefore, starting after the Australian Open, the chronological sequence is French Open, then Wimbledon, and finally the US Open. This matches option B.

French Open—US Open—Wimbledon

French Open—Wimbledon—US Open

Wimbledon—US Open—French Open

Wimbledon—French Open—US Open

In which one of the following is Malta located?

Malta is a small island country located in the central Mediterranean Sea. It lies approximately 80 kilometers south of Sicily, Italy, and north of the African coast. Its strategic position has historically made it a vital maritime crossroad between Europe, North Africa, and the Middle East. The other seas mentioned are located in Northern or Eastern Europe and do not border Malta.

ISRO successfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test stand used for the purpose, located?

The correct answer is Mahendragiri because it is the home of the ISRO Propulsion Complex located in Tamil Nadu. This facility is the main center for the testing and assembly of liquid propulsion systems, including cryogenic engines. While Balasore is a missile testing range and Thiruvananthapuram is primarily for rocket design and development, the specialized test stands required for high thrust cryogenic engines like the one tested in 2007 are situated at Mahendragiri. Karwar is a naval base and is not associated with ISRO rocket testing.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Service/Agency) List-II (Country) A. Foreign Intelligence Service 1. Israel B. Ministry of State Security 2. Britain C. Secret Intelligence Service 3. China D. The Mossad 4. Russia

The correct answer is C because it correctly matches each intelligence agency with its respective country as follows: A. Foreign Intelligence Service (SVR) is the external intelligence agency of Russia. B. Ministry of State Security (MSS) is the primary security and intelligence agency of China. C. Secret Intelligence Service (SIS), also famously known as MI6, is the foreign intelligence agency of Britain. D. The Mossad is the national intelligence agency of Israel. By matching A-4, B-3, C-2, and D-1, the sequence 4-3-2-1 is formed.

C. Rangarajan has been actively involved in the Pan-Asian Commission addressing to which one of the following issues?

The correct answer is B because Dr. C. Rangarajan served as the Chairman of the Commission on AIDS in Asia, which was established by UNAIDS. This high level commission was tasked with analyzing the socio economic impact of HIV AIDS in the Asian region and providing policy recommendations to governments to manage the epidemic. His role focused specifically on the economic consequences and funding requirements for public health responses to the virus.

Promotion of tourism in the Asian region

Impact of HIV/AIDS in the Asian region

Promotion of free trade in the Asian region

Higher technical education in the universities in the Asian region

What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?

The correct answer is C because the blood of a normal human being is slightly alkaline or basic in nature. The standard pH range for arterial blood is strictly maintained between 7.35 and 7.45. This narrow range is critical for the proper functioning of metabolic processes and enzymes. Any significant deviation below 7.35 is known as acidosis, while a deviation above 7.45 is known as alkalosis, both of which can be life threatening. The body uses chemical buffers, the lungs, and the kidneys to keep the pH within this specific range.

Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India? 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma Select the correct answer using the code given below: **Code :**

The correct answer is B because only Mohammad Hidayatullah and Shankar Dayal Sharma served as the Vice President of India. Mohammad Hidayatullah served as the 6th Vice President from 1979 to 1984. Shankar Dayal Sharma served as the 8th Vice President from 1987 to 1992 before becoming the President. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed and Neelam Sanjiva Reddy both served as the President of India but never held the office of the Vice President. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the 5th President and Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the 6th President. Therefore, options involving 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?

The correct answer is Kurnool. In 1953, the Andhra State was carved out of the Madras State following the death of Potti Sriramulu after a 56 day hunger strike. This was the first state in India created on a linguistic basis. At the time of its formation on October 1, 1953, Kurnool was designated as the capital. Later, in 1956, after the merger of the Telangana region and the Andhra State under the States Reorganisation Act, the capital was shifted to Hyderabad. Guntur served as the seat of the High Court during the 1953 to 1956 period, but the administrative capital remained Kurnool.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of Indian football team’s performance in the Olympic Games?

The correct answer is D because the Indian football team reached the semi finals during the 1956 Melbourne Olympics. Under the leadership of coach Syed Abdul Rahim and captain Samar Banerjee, India defeated Australia 4 to 2 in the quarter finals to become the first Asian nation to reach the semi finals of an Olympic football tournament. In the semi final match, India lost to Yugoslavia and eventually finished in fourth place after losing the bronze medal match to Bulgaria. India also participated in the 1948, 1952, and 1960 Olympics, but the 1956 performance remains their highest achievement in the games.

India has never participated in the Olympic Football Tournament

India played only in the First Round

India entered only up to the Quarter Finals

In which one of the following States are Namchik-Namphuk Coalfields located?

The Namchik Namphuk coalfields are located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. This region is part of the Tertiary coal deposits found in North Eastern India. These coalfields are significant because they contain high quality coal with high volatile matter and low ash content, though the sulfur content is relatively high. The area is geologically distinct from the Gondwana coalfields found in central India. Therefore, Arunachal Pradesh is the correct state for these specific coal deposits.

Norman Ernest Borlaug who is regarded as the father of the Green Revolution in India is from which country?

The correct answer is A because Norman Borlaug was a citizen of the United States of America. He was born in Iowa and received his education at the University of Minnesota. While he conducted his ground breaking research on high yielding wheat varieties in Mexico and introduced them to India, his nationality remained American. For his contributions to global food security and the Green Revolution, he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970.

Yom Kippur War was fought between which sides/countries?

The Yom Kippur War, also known as the 1973 Arab Israeli War, was fought from October 6 to October 25, 1973. The conflict began when a coalition of Arab states, led by Egypt and Syria, launched a surprise attack on Israel on Yom Kippur, the holiest day in Judaism. The primary objective of the Arab coalition was to regain territories lost to Israel during the Six Day War of 1967, specifically the Sinai Peninsula and the Golan Heights. This war had significant global impacts, including the 1973 oil crisis, and eventually paved the way for the Camp David Accords. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Israel, and Arab countries led by Egypt and Syria

Consider the following statements about probiotic food: 1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans. 2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct because probiotics are defined as live microorganisms, primarily bacteria and some yeasts, that provide health benefits when consumed in adequate amounts. They are often called good or friendly bacteria. Statement 2 is correct because these beneficial microorganisms help balance the digestive system by maintaining or restoring the natural composition of the gut flora, which is the community of bacteria living in the intestines. This balance is essential for digestion and immune function. Since both statements accurately describe the nature and function of probiotic food, the correct answer is C.

Consider the following statements: 1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light. 2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than the albedo of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The first statement is correct because albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface. It represents the proportion of incident light that is reflected by an object. Therefore, a higher albedo means the object appears brighter when viewed via reflected light. The second statement is incorrect. The Earth has an average albedo of approximately 0.30, largely due to its cloud cover, ice, and snow, which are highly reflective. In contrast, Mercury has a dark, rocky surface with almost no atmosphere or clouds to reflect light, resulting in a much lower albedo of about 0.12. Thus, the albedo of Earth is significantly greater than that of Mercury. Since only the first statement is true, the correct option is A.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Person) List-II (Position) A. Nagender Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India B. A. N. Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice C. R.K. Trivedi 3. Chief Justice of India D. Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India

The correct option is B (2 3 1 4) based on the following matches: A. Nagender Singh: He served as a judge and later as the President of the International Court of Justice (Match 2). B. A. N. Ray: He was the Chief Justice of India, appointed in 1973 (Match 3). C. R.K. Trivedi: He served as the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 1982 to 1985 (Match 1). D. Ashok Desai: He served as the Attorney General of India from 1996 to 1998 (Match 4). Matching these pairs gives the sequence 2 3 1 4.

What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutra) relate to?

The correct answer is A because the Baudhayan Sulva Sutra contains the earliest known statement of what is now commonly called the Pythagoras theorem. Written several centuries before Pythagoras, this ancient Indian text describes the relationship between the sides of a right angled triangle. It specifically states that the area produced by the measure of the length and breadth of a rectangle is equal to the area produced by its diagonal. This geometric principle is fundamental to calculating the lengths of sides in right angled triangles.

Lengths of sides of a right-angled triangle

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Theory/Law Associated Scientist 1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble 2. Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener 3. Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

The correct answer is B because only the third pair is correctly matched. Pair 1 is incorrect because the Continental Drift theory was proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912, not Edwin Hubble. Pair 2 is incorrect because the theory of the Expansion of the Universe is associated with Edwin Hubble, who provided observational evidence for it in 1929. Pair 3 is correct because Albert Einstein explained the Photoelectric Effect in 1905, for which he was later awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics. Therefore, since only statement 3 is accurate, the answer is 3 only.

Which of the following minerals are found in a natural way in the State of Chhattisgarh? 1. Bauxite 2. Dolomite 3. Iron ore 4. Tin Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

Chhattisgarh is one of the most mineral rich states in India and all four minerals listed are found there naturally. 1. Bauxite: Significant deposits are found in the Surguja, Korba, and Jashpur districts. 2. Dolomite: The state holds huge reserves, primarily in the Bilaspur and Janjgir-Champa districts. 3. Iron Ore: Chhattisgarh is a leading producer, with world-class high-grade hematite deposits in the Bastar and Dantewada districts, particularly at Bailadila. 4. Tin: This is the most unique aspect, as Chhattisgarh is the only state in India that produces tin in a commercial and natural way, specifically in the Dantewada and Sukma districts. Since all four minerals are naturally occurring and mined in the state, option D is the correct answer.

On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?

The correct answer is B because the Tehri Hydropower Complex is built on the Bhagirathi River in the state of Uttarakhand. It is located near the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Bhilangana rivers. While the other options like Alaknanda, Dhauliganga, and Mandakini are also major rivers in the Himalayan region and tributaries of the Ganga, the Tehri Dam specifically impounds the waters of the Bhagirathi River. It is one of the highest dams in the world and a major source of hydroelectric power in India.

Which one of the following cities is nearest to the equator?

To determine which city is nearest to the equator, we must look at their respective latitudes. The equator is at 0 degrees latitude. Colombo, Sri Lanka, is located at approximately 6.9 degrees North. Jakarta, Indonesia, is located at approximately 6.2 degrees South. Manila, Philippines, is located at approximately 14.6 degrees North. Singapore is located at approximately 1.3 degrees North. Comparing these values, Singapore is the closest to the 0 degree line. Therefore, Singapore is the city nearest to the equator among the given options.

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Waterfalls River 1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari 2. Jog Falls : Sharavati 3. Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

The correct answer is B because only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched. 1. Kapildhara Falls is located on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh, not the Godavari River. Therefore, pair 1 is incorrect. 2. Jog Falls is created by the Sharavati River in Karnataka. It is one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India. Therefore, pair 2 is correct. 3. Sivasamudram Falls is located on the Cauvery River in Karnataka. It is well known for being the site of one of the first hydroelectric power stations in Asia. Therefore, pair 3 is correct. Since only statements 2 and 3 are right, the correct option is B.

Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?

The correct answer is B because the International Date Line roughly follows the 180 degree meridian of longitude through the Pacific Ocean. The Bering Strait, which separates Asia from North America and connects the Arctic Ocean with the Bering Sea, is located very close to this 180 degree meridian. The International Date Line is specifically drawn to pass through the Bering Strait, zigzagging slightly to avoid cutting through landmasses. The other straits mentioned are located in significantly different longitudes: the Malacca Strait is in Southeast Asia, the Strait of Florida is between the USA and Cuba, and the Strait of Gibraltar is between Europe and Africa.

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UPSC Prelims 2008 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2008 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Civil Services preparation

Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2008 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

146 / 146

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	In the series AABABCABCDABCDE... which letter occupies the 100th position?	science-and-technology	B	View
2	What is the number of terms in the series 117, 120, 123, 126, ..., 333?	science-and-technology	B	View
3	Carpenter A can make a chair in 6 hours, carpenter B in 7 hours and carpenter C in 8 hours. If each carpenter works for 8 hours per day, how…	economy	C	View
4	A person purchases 100 pens at a discount of 10%. The net amount of money spent by the person to purchase the pens is Rs 600. The selling ex…	economy	C	View
5	A schoolteacher has to select the maximum possible number of different groups of 3 students out of a total of 6 students. In how many groups…	science-and-technology	C	View
6	In an examination, 70% of the students passed in the Paper I, and 60% of the students passed in the Paper II. 15% of the students failed in …	economy	A	View
7	What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?	science-and-technology	C	View
8	Which of the following pairs about India’s economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched? 1.…	economy	D	View
9	March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March 1, 2002?	—	B	View
10	In August 2006, the Government of India notified the Rural Electrification Policy. This policy aims at provision of access to all households…	economy	B	View
11	As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population sta…	polity-and-governance	C	View
12	Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?	science-and-technology	D	View
13	Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS): 1. All persons of 60 years or a…	polity-and-governance	D	View
14	What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and non-traditional trades?	polity-and-governance	D	View
15	Consider the following statements: 1. Orange Prize is awarded to a work of published fiction in English by a woman. 2. Pulitzer Prize is awa…	art-and-culture	A	View
16	Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following have been included in the UNESCO’s Memory of World Register?	art-and-culture	D	View
17	Selene–1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the following?	science-and-technology	C	View
18	From which one of the following did India buy the Barak anti-missile defence systems?	science-and-technology	A	View
19	Consider the following: 1. Rice fields 2. Coal mining 3. Domestic animals 4. Wetlands Which of the above are sources of methane, a major gre…	geography	D	View
20	What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?	polity-and-governance	D	View
21	Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?	geography	B	View
22	Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?	geography	C	View
23	Consider the following pairs: \| Tributary River \| Main River \| \| :--- \| :--- \| \| 1. Chambal : Narmada \| \| 2. Sone : Yamuna \| \| 3. Manas : Br…	geography	D	View
24	Consider the following statements: 1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 2. Shrew and tapir are found in the …	geography	A	View
25	Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?	geography	C	View
26	How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?	polity-and-governance	C	View
27	In which one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?	science-and-technology	C	View
28	For which one of the following snakes is the diet mainly composed of other snakes?	geography	D	View
29	Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?	geography	B	View
30	Starting with the Australian Open Lawn Tennis Tournament, which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the other three m…	art-and-culture	B	View
31	In which one of the following is Malta located?	geography	B	View
32	ISRO successfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test stand used for the purpose, located?	science-and-technology	C	View
33	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Service/Agency) List-II (Country) A. F…	polity-and-governance	C	View
34	C. Rangarajan has been actively involved in the Pan-Asian Commission addressing to which one of the following issues?	polity-and-governance	B	View
35	What is the pH level of blood of a normal person?	science-and-technology	C	View
36	Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India? 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 3. Neelam Sanj…	polity-and-governance	B	View
37	Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?	history	B	View
38	Which one of the following is correct in respect of Indian football team’s performance in the Olympic Games?	art-and-culture	D	View
39	In which one of the following States are Namchik-Namphuk Coalfields located?	geography	A	View
40	Norman Ernest Borlaug who is regarded as the father of the Green Revolution in India is from which country?	economy	A	View
41	Yom Kippur War was fought between which sides/countries?	history	C	View
42	Consider the following statements about probiotic food: 1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans. …	science-and-technology	C	View
43	Consider the following statements: 1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light. 2. The albe…	geography	A	View
44	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Person) List-II (Position) A. Nagender…	polity-and-governance	B	View
45	What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutra) relate to?	history	A	View
46	Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Theory/Law Associated Scientist 1. Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble 2. Expansion of U…	science-and-technology	B	View
47	Which of the following minerals are found in a natural way in the State of Chhattisgarh? 1. Bauxite 2. Dolomite 3. Iron ore 4. Tin Select th…	geography	D	View
48	On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?	geography	B	View
49	Which one of the following cities is nearest to the equator?	geography	D	View
50	Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Waterfalls River 1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari 2. Jog Falls : Sharavati 3. Sivasamudram…	geography	B	View
51	Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?	geography	B	View
52	Which of the following pairs in respect of current power generation in India is/are correctly matched? (Rounded Figure) 1. Installed electri…	economy	D	View
53	Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Irrigation Project 1. Damanganga : Gujarat 2. Girna : Maharashtra 3. Pamba : Kerala Sele…	geography	D	View
54	Who among the following rejected the title of Knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India…	history	C	View
55	During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India?	history	B	View
56	The term “Prisoner’s Dilemma” is associated with which one of the following?	polity-and-governance	C	View
57	During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called ‘Free Indian Legion’?	history	C	View
58	Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy’s Executive Council in which all the portfolios including that of War…	history	B	View
59	What is Agent Orange?	science-and-technology	B	View
60	Which of the following countries share borders with Moldova? 1. Ukraine 2. Romania 3. Belarus Select the correct answer using the code given…	geography	A	View
61	India is a member of which of the following? 1. Asian Development Bank 2. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation 3. Colombo Plan 4. Organization …	polity-and-governance	A	View
62	Consider the following statements: 1. Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE. 2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UA…	geography	C	View
63	Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency?	polity-and-governance	B	View
64	For India, China, the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the median age of their populations?	geography	B	View
65	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Person) List-II (Area) A. Sabyasachi M…	economy	A	View
66	Consider the following statements: 1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India. 2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is considered…	polity-and-governance	B	View
67	Ebraham Alkazi is an eminent personality in which one of the following areas?	art-and-culture	C	View
68	Consider the following statements: 1. Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production. 2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee-producing region. …	geography	D	View
69	Bimbavati Devi is a well-known dancer of which type of dance?	art-and-culture	A	View
70	How is Sarosh Zaiwalla well-known as?	polity-and-governance	C	View
71	Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Projects located?	geography	C	View
72	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Author) List-II (Work) A. Bankimchandr…	art-and-culture	A	View
73	Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled…	history	A	View
74	Who among the following used the phrase 'Un-British' to criticize the English colonial control of India?	history	C	View
75	Among the Indian languages, which one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi?	geography	C	View
76	Who among the following discovered heavy water?	science-and-technology	B	View
77	Kim Dae-jung won the Nobel Prize for Peace. He is from which one of the following countries?	polity-and-governance	C	View
78	Ogaden region has been a source of conflict between which countries?	geography	D	View
79	Near which one of the following cities are Palitana Temples located?	art-and-culture	A	View
80	Which one of the following countries won the Euro Football Tournament, 2004 held in Portugal?	art-and-culture	C	View
81	In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?	geography	B	View
82	Cristina Kirchner succeeded her husband to become President of a South American country. Which is that country?	polity-and-governance	B	View
83	Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?	history	C	View
84	In the year 2007, an earthquake led to massive radioactive water leakage in the largest nuclear plant in the world. In which country did it …	science-and-technology	C	View
85	What is the approximate percentage of persons above 65 years of age in India's current population?	geography	D	View
86	Which one of the following is a spacecraft?	science-and-technology	B	View
87	In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) project to be built?	science-and-technology	B	View
88	What is the purpose of the US Space Agency's Themis Mission, which was recently in the news?	science-and-technology	C	View
89	Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have been recognized on the World Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one …	geography	B	View
90	Which two countries follow China and India in the decreasing order of their populations?	geography	B	View
91	Amongst the following States, which one has the highest percentage of rural population to its total population (on the basis of the Census, …	geography	A	View
92	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Organization) List-II (Associated Conv…	polity-and-governance	A	View
93	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Person) List-II (Area) A. K. P. Singh …	economy	D	View
94	Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio + 10) held?	geography	C	View
95	Consider the following statements: 1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms…	geography	A	View
96	Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001? 1. Ludhiana 2. Kochi 3. Surat 4.…	geography	D	View
97	Which of the following are the public sector undertakings of the Government of India? 1. Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd. 2. Dredging Corporat…	economy	D	View
98	Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Co…	polity-and-governance	C	View
99	Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India provides that 1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not mo…	polity-and-governance	B	View
100	Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced lab…	polity-and-governance	B	View
101	How is the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference wherein the agreements were signed to set up IBRD, GATT and IMF, commonly known?	economy	B	View
102	Where was the first desalination plant in India to produce one lakh litres freshwater per day based on low temperature thermal desalination …	science-and-technology	A	View
103	Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Institute Location 1. National Centre for Cell Science : Mysore 2. Centre for DNA Finger…	science-and-technology	C	View
104	With which one of the following is BRIT (Government of India) engaged?	science-and-technology	C	View
105	Which one of the following is the correct sequence in respect of the Roman numerals—C, D, L and M?	art-and-culture	C	View
106	Who among the following scientists shared the Nobel Prize in Physics with his son?	science-and-technology	C	View
107	Who among the following translated the Autobiography of Madam Curie in Hindi?	art-and-culture	B	View
108	Among the following, which one has the minimum population on the basis of data of Census of India, 2001?	geography	D	View
109	Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket: 1. A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply an…	science-and-technology	C	View
110	Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?	science-and-technology	C	View
111	Consider the following statements: 1. A widely used musical scale called diatonic scale has seven frequencies. 2. The frequency of the note …	art-and-culture	A	View
112	What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?	science-and-technology	B	View
113	Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?	science-and-technology	C	View
114	Mixture of which one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence of most of the explosions in mines?	geography	C	View
115	Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest metal, respectively?	science-and-technology	B	View
116	How much is one barrel of oil approximately equal to?	economy	B	View
117	Who among the following Gandhian followers was a teacher by profession?	history	C	View
118	Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?	history	A	View
119	Where was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?	history	B	View
120	Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Francis Collins : Mapping human genome 2. Sergey Brin : Google Search Engine 3. Ji…	science-and-technology	D	View
121	What does S \| P 500 relate to?	economy	D	View
122	Rajiv Gandhi National Flying Institute is being established in which State?	geography	B	View
123	Who among the following has been the Captain of the Indian team in Cricket Test Matches for the maximum number of times?	art-and-culture	C	View
124	Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e Azadi?	art-and-culture	B	View
125	How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometres?	science-and-technology	C	View
126	A person is sitting in a car which is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is $R$. When the car runs on…	science-and-technology	B	View
127	With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?	geography	B	View
128	Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Suppliers Group has 24 countries as its members. 2. India is a member of the Nuclear Suppl…	polity-and-governance	D	View
129	In the context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?	science-and-technology	C	View
130	‘Hand-in-Hand 2007’, a joint anti-terrorism military training was held by the officers of the Indian Army and officers of Army of which one …	polity-and-governance	A	View
131	Assertion (A): In human body, liver has an important role in fat digestion. Reason (R): Liver produces two important fat-digesting enzymes.	science-and-technology	C	View
132	Assertion (A): In the visible spectrum of light, red light is more energetic than green light. Reason (R): The wavelength of red light is mo…	science-and-technology	D	View
133	Assertion (A): Radio waves bend in a magnetic field. Reason (R): Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature.	science-and-technology	D	View
134	Assertion (A): The Congress Ministries in all the provinces resigned in the year 1939. Reason (R): The Congress did not accept the decision …	history	A	View
135	Among the following, which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?	science-and-technology	A	View
136	The release of which one of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes?	geography	C	View
137	Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several Sta…	polity-and-governance	B	View
138	Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?	polity-and-governance	B	View
139	For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?	polity-and-governance	D	View
140	Elizabeth Hawley is well-known for her writings relating to which one of the following?	geography	C	View
141	In India, how many States share the coastline?	geography	C	View
142	Nobel Prize winning scientist James D. Watson is known for his work in which area?	science-and-technology	D	View
143	Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Board) List-II (Headquarters) A. Coffe…	economy	B	View
144	Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?	geography	A	View
145	Among the following, which one is not an ape?	geography	C	View
146	There are 6 different letters and 6 correspondingly addressed envelopes. If the letters are randomly put in the envelopes, what is the proba…	science-and-technology	A	View

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

146

Questions

geography41 (28%)
science-and-technology37 (25%)
polity-and-governance25 (17%)
economy14 (10%)
art-and-culture14 (10%)
history14 (10%)
Others1 (1%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2008 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2008 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2008 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2008 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2008 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2008 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

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UPSC Prelims 2008 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

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