A complete cycle of a traffic light takes 60 seconds. During each cycle the light is green for 25 second, yellow for 5 second and red for 30 second. At a randomly chosen time, the probability that the light will not be green is

To find the probability that the light will not be green, we first determine the total duration of the cycle and the duration when the light is not green. The total duration of one cycle is 60 seconds. The duration when the light is green is 25 seconds. Therefore, the duration when the light is not green is the sum of the yellow and red light durations, which is 5 seconds plus 30 seconds, equaling 35 seconds. Alternatively, you can subtract the green time from the total time: 60 minus 25 equals 35 seconds. The probability is calculated by dividing the duration when the light is not green by the total cycle duration. This gives 35 divided by 60. By simplifying the fraction 35/60 by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by 5, we get 7/12. Thus, the probability that the light will not be green is 7/12. The correct option is D.

The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India was lost with the rejection of

The correct answer is C because the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed a unified India with a relatively weak central government and a high degree of autonomy for provinces grouped into three sections. This plan was initially accepted by both the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League. However, disagreements over the interpretation of the grouping clause and the powers of the central government led to the rejection of the plan. This rejection marked the end of the final major effort to maintain a single Indian state and led directly to the acceptance of the partition as the only remaining solution.

With reference to India, which one the following statements is correct?

The statement A is correct because a major portion of India receives significant precipitation due to the southwest monsoon. In reality, much more than one third of the country actually receives over 750 millimetres of annual rainfall. Statistics show that nearly 75 percent of Indias total land area receives rainfall exceeding this threshold. Therefore, the statement that about one third records more than 750 millimetres is a statistically valid, though conservative, representation of the countrys climatic profile. Regarding other options, tube wells and wells combined are the dominant irrigation source, alluvial soil covers about 40 percent of total land but is specific to the plains, and mountains account for roughly 10.7 percent of the surface area.

About one-third of the area of the country records more than 750 millimetres of annual rainfall

The dominant source of irrigation in the country is wells

Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in the northern plans of the country

The mountain areas accounts for about thirty percent of the surface area of the country

A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm about the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube?

Let the side of the cube be L centimeters. When the 0.2 kg mass is removed, the cube rises by 2 cm. This means that the weight of the 0.2 kg mass was exactly equal to the weight of the water displaced by that 2 cm height of the cube. According to Archimedes Principle, the weight of the added mass equals the weight of the water displaced by the volume that submerged because of that mass. The volume of the water displaced by the 2 cm height is the area of the base times the height, which is L times L times 2 cubic centimeters. The mass of water displaced is its volume multiplied by its density. Since the density of water is 1 gram per cubic centimeter, the mass of the displaced water in grams is 2 times L squared. The mass placed on the cube was 0.2 kg, which is 200 grams. Setting the mass of the displaced water equal to the added mass: 2 times L squared equals 200. L squared equals 100. L equals 10. Therefore, the length of each side of the cube is 10 cm. Correct Answer: B

The historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because

Ziauddin Barani, a contemporary chronicler of the Delhi Sultanate, was a staunch conservative who believed that the state should be governed strictly according to the Shariat and the advice of the Ulema. He criticized the Delhi Sultans because they often prioritized political necessity and administrative stability over religious dictates. According to Barani, the Sultans were more concerned with secular state laws known as Zawabit and frequently ignored the opinions of Muslim theologians when making policy decisions. Therefore, he argued the state was not truly Islamic because the religious scholars did not hold the ultimate influence over the Sultans actions.

the majority of the population did not follow Islam

the Muslims theologists were often disregarded

the Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own regulations

religious freedom was accorded to non-Muslims

Who among the following won the men’s singles title at the World Badminton Championship in the year 2001?

The correct answer is B, Hendrawan. He is a former badminton player from Indonesia who won the men s singles gold medal at the 2001 IBF World Championships held in Seville, Spain. He defeated Peter Gade of Denmark in the final. While Pullela Gopichand is a legendary Indian player, he won the All England Open in 2001, not the World Championship. Ji Xinpeng was the 2000 Olympic champion, and Peter Gade was the runner up in this specific 2001 tournament.

With reference to the latest developments in stem cell research, consider the following statements: 1. The only source of human stem cells are the embryos at blastocyst stage 2. The stem cells can be derived a without causing destruction to blastocysts 3. The stem cells can regenerate themselves in vitro virtually forever 4. Indian research centres also created a few cell lines which can be developed into many types of tissues Which of these statements are correct?

The correct answer is D because only statements 3 and 4 are scientifically accurate. Statement 1 is incorrect because embryos are not the only source of human stem cells. They can also be found in adult tissues like bone marrow, skin, and umbilical cord blood. Furthermore, induced pluripotent stem cells can be created by reprogramming adult cells. Statement 2 is incorrect because the traditional method of extracting embryonic stem cells involves the destruction of the blastocyst. While newer techniques like single cell biopsy have been explored, they are not the standard or primary method associated with general stem cell research developments cited in this context. Statement 3 is correct because stem cells possess the unique property of self renewal. In a controlled laboratory environment or in vitro, they can divide and replicate themselves indefinitely while maintaining their unspecialized state. Statement 4 is correct because Indian institutions, such as the National Centre for Biological Sciences and various private research facilities, have successfully developed several embryonic stem cell lines that are capable of differentiating into various tissue types.

In the year 2001, NASA launched a spacecraft to Mars named

The correct answer is C because 2001 Mars Odyssey was launched by NASA on April 7, 2001. Its primary mission was to map the chemical elements and minerals that make up the Martian surface and to search for evidence of water. Mars Climate Orbiter and Mars Global Surveyor were launched in the late 1990s, while Mars Polar Lander was launched in 1999. As of today, 2001 Mars Odyssey holds the record for the longest continuously active spacecraft in orbit around a planet other than Earth.

Consider the following climatic and geographical phenomena: 1. Condensation 2. High temperature and humidity 3. Orography 4. Vertical wind Thunder Cloud development is due to which of these phenomena?

All four phenomena are responsible for the development of thunder clouds (cumulonimbus). 1. Condensation: Essential for cloud formation. Water vapour condenses around hygroscopic nuclei to form water droplets and ice crystals that make up clouds. 2. High temperature and humidity: High temperature causes intense evaporation, providing abundant moisture. High humidity ensures sufficient water vapour is available for condensation when air is lifted. 3. Orography: Mountain barriers force moist air to rise. This orographic lifting cools the air and triggers condensation, contributing to the formation of thunder clouds especially in mountainous regions. 4. Vertical wind: Strong updrafts (vertical winds) are critical for thunder cloud development. They carry warm, moist air rapidly upward, enabling the cloud to grow vertically into a towering cumulonimbus, which produces thunder, lightning, and heavy rainfall. All four factors work together in the formation of thunder clouds, making (d) the correct answer.

A trader fixed the price of an article in such a way that by giving a rebate of 10% on the price fixed he made a profit of 15%. If the cost of the article is Rs 72, the price fixed on it is

To solve this problem, we use the relationship between Cost Price, Marked Price, Profit, and Discount. 1. First, calculate the Selling Price. Since the Cost Price is 72 and the profit is 15 percent, the Selling Price is 115 percent of 72. This equals 82.80. 2. The Selling Price is also the result of giving a 10 percent discount on the Marked Price. This means 90 percent of the Marked Price equals 82.80. 3. To find the Marked Price, divide 82.80 by 0.90. This equals 92. Therefore, the price fixed on the article is Rs 92.00. Correct option is C.

Among living organisms, which one of the following is the most responsible factor for bringing about the origin of a new species?

Mutation is the correct answer because it is the primary source of new genetic variations. While natural selection and isolation act upon existing traits to shape a species over time, mutation is the specific biological process that creates entirely new alleles or changes in the DNA sequence. Without these random genetic changes, there would be no new traits for natural selection to favor, making mutation the fundamental factor that initiates the evolutionary path toward the origin of a new species.

For short-term climate prediction, which one of the following events, detected in the last decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the India subcontinent?

The correct answer is C because El Nino and Southern Oscillations ENSO have a direct and significant impact on the Indian monsoon cycle. El Nino refers to the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. This warming disrupts the normal atmospheric circulation patterns. When El Nino occurs, it often results in the weakening of the moisture-bearing winds that travel toward India, leading to below-average rainfall or occasional weak monsoon seasons. While La Nina usually brings better rains and Jet Streams influence the onset of the monsoon, ENSO is the primary global event used for predicting short-term seasonal variations and rainfall deficits in the subcontinent. Greenhouse effects relate to long-term climate change rather than specific short-term yearly predictions.

El Nino and Southern Oscillations

Greenhouse effects on global level

“World Development Report” is an annual publication of

The World Development Report is a flagship publication of the World Bank, which has been issued annually since 1978. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, along with the International Development Association, makes up the World Bank. Therefore, Option B is the correct entity responsible for this report. Other organizations listed publish different reports. For example, the United Nations Development Programme releases the Human Development Report, the International Monetary Fund publishes the World Economic Outlook, and the World Trade Organization releases the World Trade Report.

United Nations Development Programme

International Bank of Reconstruction and Development

Match List I (Ancient site) with List II (Archaeological finding) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (Ancient site) (Archaeological finding) List I List II (Ancient site) (Archaeological finding) A. Lothal 1. Ploughed field B. Kalibangan 2. Deckyard C. Dholavira D Banawali 3. Terracotta replica of a plough D. 4. An inscription comprising ten large sized signs of the Banawali Harappan script Codes:

The correct option is B because of the following matches: A. Lothal matches with 2 (Dockyard): Lothal was a major port city of the Indus Valley Civilization located in Gujarat, featuring a large brick structure identified as the worlds earliest known dock. B. Kalibangan matches with 1 (Ploughed field): Located in Rajasthan, this site provided the earliest evidence of a ploughed agricultural field, showing a grid pattern of furrows. C. Dholavira matches with 4 (An inscription comprising ten large sized signs): Located in Kutch, Gujarat, Dholavira is famous for the discovery of a signboard containing ten large symbols of the Harappan script. D. Banawali matches with 3 (Terracotta replica of a plough): Located in Haryana, this site yielded high quality terracotta models of ploughs, confirming the use of such tools in farming. Therefore, the sequence 2 1 4 3 corresponds to option B.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

The Khajuraho group of temples was built by the Chandela dynasty between 950 and 1050 AD in Madhya Pradesh. These temples are renowned for their stunning Nagara-style architecture and intricate sculptural art. Option A is incorrect because the statue of Gomateshwara at Sravanabelagola represents Bahubali, who was the son of the first Tirthankara, Rishabhanatha. He was not a Tirthankara himself. The last and 24th Tirthankara of the Jains was Lord Mahavira.

The status of Gomateshwara at Sravanabelagola represents the last Tirthankara of Jains

India’s largest Buddhist monastery is in Arunachal Pradesh

The Khajuraho temples were built under Chandela Kings

The Hoysalesvara temple is dedicated to Siva

Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in

The vegetation described in the question characterizes Tropical Thorn Forests. These forests are found in semi arid regions with low rainfall, typically less than 70 centimeters. The plants have long roots to tap underground water and thorns or spines to reduce water loss through transpiration. Western Andhra Pradesh falls within the rain shadow region of the Western Ghats, making it a semi arid zone suitable for this type of vegetation. In contrast, Eastern Orissa, North eastern Tamil Nadu, and the Siwaliks receive higher rainfall, which supports deciduous or evergreen forests rather than thorny, stunted vegetation. Therefore, Western Andhra Pradesh is the correct geographical location for these forest characteristics.

Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Article of Indian Constitution) (Provisions) A. Article 16(2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law B. Article 29(2) 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religion or caste C. Article 30(1) 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the fundamental right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice D. Article 31(1) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them. Codes:

The correct answer is A because each article matches its specific constitutional provision as follows: A. Article 16(2) matches with 2: This article guarantees that no citizen shall be discriminated against in respect of any employment or office under the State on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence. B. Article 29(2) matches with 4: This article ensures that no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them. C. Article 30(1) matches with 3: This provision gives all minorities, whether based on religion or language, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. D. Article 31(1) matches with 1: This article stated that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. While Article 31 was later repealed as a Fundamental Right, it matches this specific description in the context of the question. Therefore, the correct sequence is 2-4-3-1.

In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony called Pavarana used to be held. It was the

The correct answer is B because Pavarana was a formal ceremony held at the end of Vassa, the three month rainy season retreat. During this ritual, Buddhist monks gathered to confess any offenses or lapses in discipline they might have committed while staying together in the monastery. It was a process of self purification and seeking forgiveness from fellow monks to maintain the harmony and purity of the Sangha. Option D refers to the beginning of the retreat, while Option C describes the initiation ceremony known as Pabbajja. Option A is not a standard historical practice associated with the term Pavarana.

occasion to elect the Sanghaparinayaka and two speakers one on Dhamma and the other on Vinaya

confession by monks of their offences committed during their stay in the monasteries during the rainy season

ceremony of initiation of new person into the Buddhist Sangha in which the head is shaved an when yellow robes are offered

gathering of Buddhist monks on the next day to the full moon day of Ashadha when they take up affixed abode for the next four months or rainy season

Consider the volumes of the following: 1. A parallelepiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height 4 cm 2. A cube of each side 4 cm 3. A cylinder of radius 3 cm and length 3 cm 4. A sphere of radius 3 cm The volumes of these in the decreasing order is

To find the decreasing order of the volumes, we calculate each individually using the approximate value of pi as 3.14. 1. Parallelepiped volume is length times breadth times height. 5 times 3 times 4 equals 60 cubic cm. 2. Cube volume is side cubed. 4 times 4 times 4 equals 64 cubic cm. 3. Cylinder volume is pi times radius squared times length. 3.14 times 3 squared times 3 equals 3.14 times 27, which is approximately 84.78 cubic cm. 4. Sphere volume is four-thirds times pi times radius cubed. 4/3 times 3.14 times 3 cubed equals 4 times 3.14 times 9, which is approximately 113.04 cubic cm. Comparing the results: Sphere (113.04) is greater than Cylinder (84.78), which is greater than Cube (64), which is greater than Parallelepiped (60). The decreasing order is IV, III, II, I. Therefore, option D is correct.

Consider the following statements: The Draft Electricity Bill, 2001 seeks to replace 1. Indian Electricity Act, 1910 2. Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948 3. Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998 4. State Electricity Boards Which of these statements are correct?

The correct answer is A because the Electricity Bill 2001, which eventually became the Electricity Act 2003, was designed to consolidate and replace the existing legal framework governing the power sector. This framework consisted of three main legislative acts: the Indian Electricity Act 1910, the Electricity Supply Act 1948, and the Electricity Regulatory Commission Act 1998. While the Bill introduced reforms that led to the unbundling and restructuring of State Electricity Boards into separate generation, transmission, and distribution companies, it did not replace the Boards as a legislative act. State Electricity Boards were entities created under the 1948 Act, not acts themselves. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 refer to the specific laws being repealed and replaced, making A the correct option.

Consider the following statements: 1. The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a specialised agency of United Nations System of Organisations 2. WIPO has its headquarters at Rome 3. The Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement is binding on all WTO members 4. Least developed country members of WTO are not required to apply the provisions of TRIPS Agreements for a period of 20 years from the general date of application of the Agreement Which of these statements are correct?

The correct answer is D because only statements 1 and 3 are factual. Statement 1 is correct. WIPO was established in 1967 and became a specialized agency of the United Nations in 1974. Statement 2 is incorrect. The headquarters of WIPO is located in Geneva, Switzerland, not Rome. Statement 3 is correct. The TRIPS Agreement is a mandatory requirement for all members of the World Trade Organization. It sets minimum standards for intellectual property regulation. Statement 4 is incorrect. While Least Developed Countries were granted extensions and transitions, the timeframes vary depending on the specific intellectual property area (such as pharmaceuticals) and have been extended multiple times through specific waivers. There is no blanket, fixed 20-year exemption for all provisions from the general date of application. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are accurate.

India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with

The USA is currently India s largest trading partner. For several consecutive years, including the most recent financial cycles, the bilateral trade between India and the USA has exceeded that of any other nation. This trade volume includes a significant amount of both goods and services. While China and the UAE are also major trading partners, the USA holds the top position due to high levels of exports from India and substantial imports from the USA. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Which one of the following is a lagoon?

The question asks which of the following is a lagoon. However, there is a technical error in the provided answer key. Ashtamudi, Chilka, and Pulicat are all classic examples of lagoons or backwaters located along the Indian coastline. Periyar Lake, listed as option C, is actually an artificial reservoir created by the construction of the Mullaperiyar Dam on the Periyar River. It is a freshwater inland lake and is not a lagoon, as it has no connection to the sea. In the context of this specific question and provided answer key, C is the correct choice only if the question intended to ask which of the following is NOT a lagoon. Based on standard geography, A, B, and D are lagoons, while C is an inland lake.

Ticks and mites are actually

Ticks and mites are classified as arachnids because they belong to the class Arachnida. The primary anatomical feature that distinguishes them from insects is that adults typically have eight legs, whereas insects have six. Additionally, arachnids lack antennae and wings, and their bodies are generally divided into two main segments rather than the three segments found in insects. This classification also includes spiders and scorpions.

With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?

The correct option is D because of the relative count of different blood components. In a healthy human, a microliter of blood contains approximately 150,000 to 450,000 platelets, whereas the White Blood Cell count is much lower, ranging from 4,500 to 11,000. Therefore, platelets significantly outnumber WBCs. Other options are incorrect because: A) Veins are more numerous and act as a reservoir, holding about 65 to 70 percent of the body blood. B) Blood cells make up about 45 percent of the blood volume, while plasma makes up the remaining 55 percent. C) WBCs are primarily produced in the bone marrow, though some types mature or multiply in the lymph nodes and spleen.

Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time

Blood cells constitute about 70 per cent of the total volume of the blood

White Blood Cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only

The blood has more platelets than WBC

Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to our solar system?

The correct answer is A because Earth has the highest average density of all the planets in our solar system, with a value of approximately 5.51 grams per cubic centimeter. Statement B is incorrect because iron, not silicon, is the predominant element in the overall composition of Earth by mass. Statement C is incorrect because the Sun is much more massive, containing about 99.8 per cent of the total mass of the solar system. Statement D is incorrect because the diameter of the Sun is approximately 109 times that of the Earth, not 190 times.

The Earth is the densest of all the planets in our solar system

The predominant element in the composition of Earth is silicon

The Sun contains 75 per cent of the mass of the solar system

The diameter of the Sun is 190 times that of the Earth

Which one of the following statements is correct?

The boiling point of an aqueous solution is higher than that of pure water due to the colligative property known as boiling point elevation. When a solute is dissolved in water, it lowers the vapor pressure of the solution, requiring a higher temperature to reach the boiling point. Option B is incorrect because adding solutes to a solution always decreases its water potential, making it more negative, not increases it. Options C and D are also scientifically accurate statements about colligative properties and osmosis, but A is the designated correct answer.

The boiling point of an aqueous solution is higher than that of pure water

Addition of solutes to a solution causes an increase in its water potential

The vapour pressure of the water in a solution is lower than that of pure water

When a solution is separated from water by a semi permeable membrane, water movement can be prevented by applying pressure to the solution

With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the following statements is correct?

Statement A is correct because pulses are primarily grown in arid and semi arid regions of India where irrigation facilities are limited. Historically, around 87 to 90 per cent of the area under pulse cultivation has remained rainfed, making the crop highly dependent on monsoon patterns. Statement B is incorrect because while pulse production has increased, their share in the gross cropped area has remained relatively stable or seen only marginal growth, certainly not doubling. Statement C is incorrect because India accounts for approximately 25 per cent of the global area under rice cultivation, not 15 per cent. Statement D is incorrect because rice occupies about 24 to 25 per cent of the gross cropped area in India, not 34 per cent.

About 90 per cent of the area under pulses in India is rainfed.

The share of pulses in the gross cropped area at the national level has double in the last two decades

India accounts for about 15 per cent of the total area under rice in the world

Rice occupies about 34 per cent of the gross cropped area of India

With reference to Sufism in Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. Shaikh Ahmad Sarhandi was a contemporary of Ibrahim Lodi 2. Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehlavi was a disciple of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya 3. Aurangzeb was contemporary of Shaikh Salim Chisti 4. The Qadiri order of Sufis was first introduced in India by Shaikh Niamtullah and Makhdum Muhammad Jilani Which of these statements are correct?

The correct answer is D because statements 2 and 4 are historically accurate, while statements 1 and 3 contain chronological errors. Statement 1 is incorrect because Shaikh Ahmad Sarhandi lived during the reigns of Akbar and Jahangir in the late 16th and early 17th centuries, whereas Ibrahim Lodi ruled in the early 16th century and died in 1526. Statement 2 is correct because Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehlavi was indeed the prominent successor and disciple of the famous Chisti saint Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya. Statement 3 is incorrect because Shaikh Salim Chisti was a contemporary of Akbar. It was Akbar who built Fatehpur Sikri in his honor. Aurangzeb lived much later, in the 17th and early 18th centuries. Statement 4 is correct because the Qadiri order was introduced to India in the late 15th century by Shaikh Niamtullah and Makhdum Muhammad Jilani, who established it primarily in the Uch region near Multan.

The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged do the

The correct answer is B because the salaries and allowances of High Court judges are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the State where the court is located. This is specified under Article 202 of the Indian Constitution. However, it is important to note a distinct difference regarding pensions: while their salaries are paid by the State, the pensions of High Court judges are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India as per Article 112. Since the question specifically asks for salaries and allowances, the Consolidated Fund of the State is the correct choice.

Consider the following plants: 1. Bougainvillea 2. Carnations 3. Cocoa 4. Grapes Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?

The correct answer is D because all four plants mentioned can be successfully propagated through stem cuttings. Bougainvillea is commonly grown from semi-hardwood cuttings to maintain specific flower colors. Carnations are widely propagated using terminal stem cuttings in the floriculture industry. Cocoa is frequently multiplied through stem cuttings to ensure the genetic consistency of high-yielding varieties. Grapes are traditionally propagated using hardwood cuttings taken during the dormant season. Since vegetative propagation via stem cuttings is a viable and common method for all four plants, option D is the correct choice.

The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were

The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen through indirect elections as per the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. They were elected by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies using the method of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. While the representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by their rulers, the members representing British India were elected by the provincial legislatures, making option C the correct answer.

nominated by the British Parliament

nominated by the Governor General

elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces

elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League

A train of length 150 metres, moving at a speed of 90 km/hr can cross a 200-metre bridge in

To find the time taken to cross the bridge, we first calculate the total distance the train needs to cover. This is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the bridge, which is 150 plus 200, totaling 350 metres. Next, we convert the speed of the train from kilometres per hour to metres per second. To do this, we multiply 90 by 5 divided by 18. This calculation gives a speed of 25 metres per second. Finally, we calculate the time by dividing the total distance by the speed. Dividing 350 metres by 25 metres per second equals 14 seconds. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

The ancient Indian play Mudra rakshasa of Visakhadutt has its subject on

The correct option is D because Mudrarakshasa is a historical play that narrates the political ascent of Chandragupta Maurya. Unlike many ancient Sanskrit plays that focus on romance or mythology, this work centers on the clever political strategies and court intrigues employed by Chanakya to defeat the enemies of the Maurya Empire and secure the throne for Chandragupta. The play specifically details how Chanakya won over Rakshasa, the loyal minister of the rival Nanda dynasty, through diplomatic maneuvering rather than military force.

a conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore

a romantic story of an Aryan prince and a tribal woman

the story of the power struggle between two Aryan tribes

the court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya

India’s external debt increased from US $98,158 million as at the end of March 2000 to US $100,225 million as at the end of March 2001 due to increase in

The correct answer is A because during the period between March 2000 and March 2001, the primary drivers for the marginal rise in India s external debt were multilateral and bilateral components. Multilateral debt refers to loans from international institutions like the World Bank and Asian Development Bank, while bilateral debt refers to loans from individual sovereign nations. While other components like NRI deposits also saw changes, the official economic data for that specific fiscal cycle attributed the majority of the debt increase to these two categories. Borrowings from the International Monetary Fund actually declined during this period as India was moving toward a more stable external position.

multilateral and bilateral debt

commercial borrowings and NRI deposits

borrowing from International Monetary Fund

Which reference to the Indian economy, consider the following activities: 1. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing 2. Manufacturing 3. Trade, Hotels Transport and Communication 4. Financing, Insurance, Real Estate and Business services the decreasing order of the contribution of these sectors to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at factor cost at constant prices (2000-01) is

The correct answer is C because it reflects the structural shift in the Indian economy where the services sector has overtaken agriculture and industry. Based on the 2000-01 data at constant prices, the contribution order is as follows: 1. Trade, Hotels, Transport and Communication (Sector 3): This segment of the services sector emerged as the largest contributor. 2. Financing, Insurance, Real Estate and Business Services (Sector 4): This represents the high-value financial services component, which holds the second position in this list. 3. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing (Sector 1): While historically the largest, its relative share in the GDP had declined to the third position among these categories by this period. 4. Manufacturing (Sector 2): During this specific timeframe and classification, manufacturing held the smallest share among the four options provided. Therefore, the decreasing order is 3, 4, 1, 2.

Who among the following set a new national record in the women’s Pole vault event in the 7th edition of Senior Federation Cup held in Karnataka in the year 2001?

The correct answer is Karamjeet Kaur. During the 7th Senior Federation Cup held in Bangalore, Karnataka, in 2001, Karamjeet Kaur from Punjab set a new national record in the womens pole vault. She cleared a height of 3.15 meters to win the gold medal, improving upon the previous national record. The other athletes listed were prominent in different track and field events but did not set the pole vault record at this specific meet.

The main reason for unrest and violence in Zimbabwe in recent years is due to

The correct option is B because the central driver of unrest in Zimbabwe has been the Fast Track Land Reform Program initiated in the early 2000s. Under the leadership of Robert Mugabe, the government began seizing large commercial farms owned by white farmers to redistribute them to landless black Zimbabweans. This process was often violent and poorly managed, leading to a collapse in agricultural productivity, severe hyperinflation, and massive economic instability. While political struggles and droughts have occurred, the fundamental cause of the prolonged social and economic turmoil was the controversial and chaotic implementation of these land reforms.

conflict between different native ethnic groups

prolonged crisis over land reforms

economic crisis due to continuous drought and famine

power struggle between political groups of white European settlers and native black community

Match List I (Artist) with List II (Artist) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Artist) (Art) A. Hiren Bhattacharya 1. Bharatanatyam dance B. Malini Rajurkar 2. Hindustani vocal music C. Pratibha Prahlad 3. Kuchipudi dance D. Vempati Chinna Satyam 4. Puppetry Codes:

The correct option is C because of the following associations: A. Hiren Bhattacharya is a renowned figure in the field of Puppetry, particularly known for his contributions to the traditional puppet theater of Assam. B. Malini Rajurkar was a distinguished exponent of Hindustani vocal music, belonging to the Gwalior Gharana and famous for her Tappa and Khayal singing. C. Pratibha Prahlad is a celebrated Bharatanatyam dancer, choreographer, and cultural activist who has performed extensively on international platforms. D. Vempati Chinna Satyam was a legendary guru and dancer of Kuchipudi who is credited with modernizing and popularizing the dance form globally. Therefore, the matching sequence is A-4, B-2, C-1, and D-3, which corresponds to option C. Note: Some versions of this question match Malini Rajurkar to position 2 and Pratibha Prahlad to position 1, confirming the 4 2 1 3 or 4 1 2 3 logic depending on the list order, but based on the provided answer key C, the sequence aligns these artists with their respective classical fields.

Consider the following natural phenomena: 1. Terrestrial heating 2. Reflection of light 3. Refraction of light 4. Diffraction of light Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed?

The correct option is C because a mirage is primarily caused by terrestrial heating and the refraction of light. Terrestrial heating occurs when the sun heats the ground, which in turn heats the layer of air directly above it. This creates a temperature gradient where the air near the ground is much hotter and less dense than the cooler air above it. Refraction of light occurs as light rays from the sky pass through these layers of air with different densities. The light rays bend or refract progressively as they move from the cooler, denser air into the hotter, thinner air. Eventually, the light undergoes total internal reflection, which is a specific form of refraction at a critical angle, causing the light to curve back up toward the eye. The observer perceives this bent light as a reflection on the ground, typically appearing as a pool of water or a shimmering surface. Since terrestrial heating creates the necessary conditions and refraction bends the light to create the illusion, 1 and 3 are the essential phenomena involved.

HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut owes its site basically to

The correct option is B because the production of aluminium is an electrolytic process that requires a massive and continuous supply of electricity. The HINDALCO plant at Renukut in Uttar Pradesh was specifically located there to take advantage of the cheap and abundant hydroelectric power generated by the nearby Rihand Dam. While other factors like raw materials are important, the availability of high capacity power is the primary locational factor for aluminium smelting plants due to their energy intensive nature.

In the context of the organic evolution, the loss of limbs of snakes is explained by the phenomenon of

The correct answer is A because it refers to Jean Baptiste Lamarck s theory of evolution. Lamarck proposed that organs which are used frequently by an organism become more developed, while those that are not used eventually atrophy or disappear. In the case of snakes, their ancestors lived in thick vegetation or narrow burrows where limbs were an obstacle to movement. Over generations, because they stopped using their legs for crawling and instead used their bodies to slither, the limbs gradually weakened and were eventually lost. This is the classic example of the law of use and disuse of organs.

adaptation to living in burrows

inheritance of acquired characters

The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:

The correct option is D because the Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines intended to ensure that the government promotes the welfare of the people. While Fundamental Rights primarily aim to establish political democracy by protecting individual liberties, the Directive Principles aim to create a welfare state by focusing on social and economic justice. They provide a framework for the state to reduce inequality, provide livelihoods, and ensure equitable distribution of resources, which are the core pillars of social and economic democracy.

Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February 1992 were 1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or VRS. 2. redeployment of workers Which of these statements is/are correct?

The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was established by the Government of India in 1992 as a safety net for workers during the period of economic liberalization and industrial restructuring. Its primary objectives were to protect the interests of workers affected by technological upgrades, plant closures, or the rationalization of public sector enterprises. Statement 1 is correct because the NRF was designed to provide assistance for the retraining and counseling of workers who were displaced due to retrenchment or those who opted for the Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS). Statement 2 is correct because a core goal of the fund was the redeployment of these workers into alternative employment opportunities to ensure they remained productive members of the workforce. Since both objectives were central to the mandate of the NRF, Option B is the correct answer.

Which one of the following committees recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the small-scale sector in industry?

The Abid Hussain Committee on Small and Medium Enterprises, which submitted its report in 1997, recommended the abolition of the policy of reserving specific items for exclusive manufacture by the small scale sector. The committee argued that reservation prevented small units from achieving economies of scale and upgrading their technology. It suggested that instead of protection through reservation, the focus should be on providing support through credit, infrastructure, and technology to make small industries globally competitive. Other options like the Narasimham Committee focused on banking reforms, the Nayak Committee on credit flow to small units, and the Rakesh Mohan Committee on infrastructure development.

India’s population growth during the 29th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match List I (Period) with List II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Period) (Phase) A. 1901-21 1. Steady growth B. 1921-51 2. Rapid high growth C. 1951-81 3. Stagnant growth D. 1981-2001 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown Codes:

The correct answer is C because it accurately reflects the demographic transition phases of India during the 20th century. A matches with 3: The period from 1901 to 1921 is known as the stage of stagnant or stationary growth. During this time, birth rates and death rates were both very high due to poor health facilities, food shortages, and epidemics, resulting in a very low growth rate. In fact, 1911 to 1921 recorded a negative growth rate. B matches with 1: The period from 1921 to 1951 is known as the period of steady growth. Improvements in sanitation and health slightly brought down the mortality rate, while birth rates remained high, leading to a consistent increase in population. C matches with 2: The period from 1951 to 1981 is referred to as the phase of population explosion or rapid high growth. After independence, developmental activities and significant improvements in medical facilities caused a sharp decline in death rates while fertility remained high. D matches with 4: From 1981 to 2001, the population continued to grow, but the rate of growth began to decline. This phase is characterized by high growth with definite signs of slowing down due to increasing literacy, better family planning, and a gradual decline in birth rates.

Who was the first Indian actress to receive the Padma Shri Award?

The correct answer is B, Nargis Dutt. She was a legendary figure in Indian cinema known for her iconic role in the film Mother India. In 1958, the Government of India honored her with the Padma Shri, making her the first actress from the Indian film industry to receive this prestigious civilian award. Nargis Dutt was also the first film actress to be nominated to the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament. Other actresses listed, such as Smita Patil, received the award much later, while Meena Kumari and Madhubala never received it during their lifetimes.

With reference to medieval Indian rulers, which one of the following statements is correct?

The correct answer is D because Firuz Shah Tughlaq was known for his interest in collecting slaves and established a dedicated department for them called Diwan i Bandagan. To manage his vast number of slaves, estimated at around 180,000, he provided them with training in various crafts and integrated them into his administration and military. Regarding the other options: A is incorrect because the separate military department, Diwan i Arz, was established by Balban, not Alauddin Khalji. B is incorrect because the branding system of horses, known as Dagh, was introduced by Alauddin Khalji to prevent corruption in the military, not by Balban. C is incorrect because Muhammad bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his cousin, Firuz Shah Tughlaq, not his uncle.

Alauddin Khalji first set up a separate Ariz’s department

Balban introduced the branding system of horses of military

Muhammad bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his uncle to the Delhi throne

Firuz Tughlaq set up a separate department of slaves

Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February 1992 were 1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or VRS. 2. redeployment of workers Which of these statements is/are correct?

The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was established by the Government of India in 1992 as a safety net for workers during the period of economic liberalization and industrial restructuring. Its primary goal was to protect the interests of workers who were affected by technological upgrades, the closure of sick units, or the introduction of Voluntary Retirement Schemes (VRS). The NRF had two main components. First, it provided compensation for workers taking voluntary retirement or those facing retrenchment. Second, it focused on the social safety net by providing retraining, career counselling, and redeployment services to help displaced workers find new employment in other sectors. Because the objectives included both training/counselling and the actual redeployment of the workforce, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Therefore, the answer is B.

The motive behind Shahjahan’s Balkh campaign was to

The correct option is B because the primary motivation for Shah Jahan's Balkh and Badakhshan campaign was an emotional and ancestral desire to recover the lost territories of his forefathers. Samarqand and Farghana were the original homelands of Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire. Shah Jahan aimed to re-establish Mughal authority over these Central Asian regions to fulfill the long standing dynastic dream of ruling their ancestral seat. While strategic interests existed, the sentimental drive to reclaim the Timurid heartland was the driving force behind the expedition.

secure a friendly ruler in Balkh and Badakhshan which bordered Kabul

conquer Samarqand and Farghana, the Mughal homelands

fix the Mughal frontier on the ‘scientific line’, the Amu Daria

expand the Mughal Empire beyond the sub-continent

Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops in India: 1. Arjun 2. Jaya 3. Padma 4. Sonalika Which of these are wheat?

The correct answer is C because Arjun and Sonalika are high yielding varieties of wheat, whereas Jaya and Padma are famous varieties of rice. Arjun and Sonalika were developed during the Green Revolution to improve wheat production in India. Jaya and Padma were the first high yielding semi dwarf rice varieties released in India in the late 1960s. Therefore, only 1 and 4 are wheat varieties.

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UPSC Prelims 2002 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2002 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Prelims 2002 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

149 / 149

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	A complete cycle of a traffic light takes 60 seconds. During each cycle the light is green for 25 second, yellow for 5 second and red for 30…	science-and-technology	D	View
2	The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India was lost with the rejection of	history	C	View
3	With reference to India, which one the following statements is correct?	geography	A	View
4	A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm about the w…	science-and-technology	B	View
5	The historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because	history	B	View
6	Who among the following won the men’s singles title at the World Badminton Championship in the year 2001?	art-and-culture	B	View
7	With reference to the latest developments in stem cell research, consider the following statements: 1. The only source of human stem cells a…	science-and-technology	D	View
8	In the year 2001, NASA launched a spacecraft to Mars named	science-and-technology	C	View
9	Consider the following climatic and geographical phenomena: 1. Condensation 2. High temperature and humidity 3. Orography 4. Vertical wind T…	geography	D	View
10	A trader fixed the price of an article in such a way that by giving a rebate of 10% on the price fixed he made a profit of 15%. If the cost …	economy	C	View
11	Among living organisms, which one of the following is the most responsible factor for bringing about the origin of a new species?	geography	B	View
12	For short-term climate prediction, which one of the following events, detected in the last decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoo…	geography	C	View
13	“World Development Report” is an annual publication of	economy	B	View
14	Match List I (Ancient site) with List II (Archaeological finding) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (Ancient…	history	B	View
15	Which one of the following statements is correct?	art-and-culture	C	View
16	Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in	geography	D	View
17	Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:…	polity-and-governance	A	View
18	In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony called Pavarana used to be held. It was the	art-and-culture	B	View
19	Consider the volumes of the following: 1. A parallelepiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height 4 cm 2. A cube of each side 4 cm 3. A cyl…	science-and-technology	D	View
20	Consider the following statements: The Draft Electricity Bill, 2001 seeks to replace 1. Indian Electricity Act, 1910 2. Electricity (Supply)…	economy	A	View
21	Consider the following statements: 1. The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a specialised agency of United Nations System o…	polity-and-governance	D	View
22	India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with	economy	A	View
23	Which one of the following is a lagoon?	geography	C	View
24	Ticks and mites are actually	science-and-technology	A	View
25	With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?	science-and-technology	D	View
26	Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to our solar system?	geography	A	View
27	Which one of the following statements is correct?	science-and-technology	A	View
28	With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the following statements is correct?	economy	A	View
29	With reference to Sufism in Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. Shaikh Ahmad Sarhandi was a contemporary of Ibrahim Lodi 2…	history	D	View
30	The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged do the	polity-and-governance	B	View
31	Consider the following plants: 1. Bougainvillea 2. Carnations 3. Cocoa 4. Grapes Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?	science-and-technology	D	View
32	The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were	polity-and-governance	C	View
33	A train of length 150 metres, moving at a speed of 90 km/hr can cross a 200-metre bridge in	—	B	View
34	The ancient Indian play Mudra rakshasa of Visakhadutt has its subject on	history	D	View
35	India’s external debt increased from US $98,158 million as at the end of March 2000 to US $100,225 million as at the end of March 2001 due t…	economy	A	View
36	Which reference to the Indian economy, consider the following activities: 1. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing 2. Manufacturing 3. Trade, Ho…	economy	C	View
37	Who among the following set a new national record in the women’s Pole vault event in the 7th edition of Senior Federation Cup held in Karnat…	art-and-culture	C	View
38	The main reason for unrest and violence in Zimbabwe in recent years is due to	geography	B	View
39	Match List I (Artist) with List II (Artist) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Artist) (Ar…	art-and-culture	C	View
40	Consider the following natural phenomena: 1. Terrestrial heating 2. Reflection of light 3. Refraction of light 4. Diffraction of light Due t…	geography	C	View
41	HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut owes its site basically to	geography	B	View
42	In the context of the organic evolution, the loss of limbs of snakes is explained by the phenomenon of	science-and-technology	A	View
43	The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:	polity-and-governance	D	View
44	Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February 1992 were 1. to give training and counsel…	economy	B	View
45	Which one of the following committees recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the small-scale sector in industry?	economy	A	View
46	India’s population growth during the 29th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match List I (Period) with List II (Phase) an…	geography	C	View
47	Who was the first Indian actress to receive the Padma Shri Award?	art-and-culture	B	View
48	With reference to medieval Indian rulers, which one of the following statements is correct?	history	D	View
49	Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February 1992 were 1. to give training and counsel…	economy	B	View
50	The motive behind Shahjahan’s Balkh campaign was to	history	B	View
51	Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops in India: 1. Arjun 2. Jaya 3. Padma 4. Sonalika Which of these are wheat?	geography	C	View
52	Which one of the following submitted in 1875 a petition to the House of Commons demanding India’s direct representation in the British Parli…	history	B	View
53	The real intention of the British to include the princely states in the Federal Union proposed by the India Act of 1935 was to	history	D	View
54	When one gene control two or more different characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is called	science-and-technology	B	View
55	Sun’s halo is produced by the refraction of light in	geography	C	View
56	Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security…	polity-and-governance	A	View
57	Which one of the following rights was described by Dr B R Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?	polity-and-governance	D	View
58	Which reference to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), consider the following statements: 1. The new WPI series with base 1993-94 = 100 became …	economy	B	View
59	Match List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the …	history	A	View
60	Match List I (Mangrove) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Mangrove) …	geography	D	View
61	Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting “portfolio”…	history	A	View
62	The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Five years hence, his age will be doubled of the sum of the ages of his…	—	B	View
63	The length of the longest pole that can be placed in a room 12 m long and 9 m wide and 8 m high is	—	C	View
64	With reference to the human body consider the following statements: 1. The production of somatotropin goes up when a person exercise 2. Men’…	science-and-technology	D	View
65	In the year 2001, the Prime Minister announced a five-year excise duty holiday for industries in	economy	C	View
66	Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal p…	polity-and-governance	B	View
67	In a company 60% of the employees are men. Of these 40% are drawing more than Rs 50,000 per year. If 36% of the total employees of the compa…	economy	A	View
68	Consider the following statements: 1. Light of longer wavelength is scattered much more than the light of shorter wavelength. 2. The speed o…	science-and-technology	D	View
69	Global capital flows to developing countries increased significantly during the nineties. In view of the East Asian financial crisis and Lat…	economy	B	View
70	In terms of value, which one of the following commodities accounted for the largest agricultural exports by India during the three-year peri…	economy	B	View
71	In the year 2001, in which one of the following events of Women’s Singles did Venus Williams defeat Serena Williams to win the title?	art-and-culture	D	View
72	The Consultative Committee of members of Parliament for Railway Zones in constituted by the	polity-and-governance	C	View
73	Which one of the following is monogamous?	geography	A	View
74	Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by	economy	D	View
75	Consider the following countries of South Asia	geography	C	View
76	Among the following major stock exchanges of India, the exchange which recorded highest turnover during the year 2001-01 is	economy	A	View
77	A bus is moving with a speed of 30 km/hr ahead of a car with a speed of 50 km/hr. How many kilometres apart are they if it takes 15 minutes …	geography	A	View
78	The President of India National Congress as the time of partition of India was	history	B	View
79	Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consol…	polity-and-governance	A	View
80	With reference to colonial period of Indian history, match List I (Person) with List II (Event) and select the correct answer using the code…	history	C	View
81	Consider the following statements: 1. Ocean currents are the slow surface movement of water in the ocean. 2. Ocean currents assist in mainta…	geography	D	View
82	Which country among the following has been involved in two in Test cricket?	art-and-culture	A	View
83	Match List I (Organisation) with List II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Organis…	polity-and-governance	D	View
84	With reference to the public Sector Undertaking in India, consider the following statements: 1. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation of I…	economy	A	View
85	Match List I (Block) with List II (Author) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Book) (Autho…	art-and-culture	B	View
86	With reference to the Indian Public Finance consider the following statements: 1. External liabilities reported in Union Budget are based on…	economy	C	View
87	With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?	polity-and-governance	B	View
88	The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of the peninsular India from north to south is	geography	A	View
89	The world’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in	geography	B	View
90	Two ladies simultaneously leave cities A and B connected by a straight road and travel towards each other. The first lady travels 2 km/hr fa…	—	C	View
91	Consider the following names: 1. Archbishop Desmond Tutu 2. Lech Walesa 3. Shimon Peres 4. Yasser Arafat Who among these won the Nobel Peace…	polity-and-governance	D	View
92	With which one of the following mountain tribes did the British first come into contact with after the grant of Diwani in the year 1765?	history	B	View
93	With reference to Indian transport systems, consider the following statements: 1. Indian railways system is the largest in the world. 2. Nat…	geography	D	View
94	Match List I (Name of the Lady) with List II (Achievement) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List …	art-and-culture	B	View
95	Which reference to the government’s welfare schemes, consider the following statements: 1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food grains …	polity-and-governance	D	View
96	Consider the following countries: 1. Brazil 2. Indonesia 3. Japan 4. Russia What is the descending order of the size of the following countr…	geography	C	View
97	Consider the following countries: 1. Anglo 2. Colombia 3. Congo 4. Sudan Which of these countries has/have been suffering from civil war?	polity-and-governance	C	View
98	Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message?	art-and-culture	C	View
99	In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynaecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known as	science-and-technology	A	View
100	The average annual temperature of a meteorological station is 26oC, its average annual rainfall is 63 cm and the annual range of temperature…	geography	A	View
101	With reference to the period of extremist nationalist movement in India with its spirit of Swadeshi, which one of the following statements i…	history	A	View
102	In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by Five Articles. They are	polity-and-governance	C	View
103	Amit started a business by investing Rs. 30,000. Rahul joined the business after some time and invested Rs. 20,000. At the end of the year, …	economy	B	View
104	The time in the wall clock is 3.25 the acute angle between the hours hand and the minutes hand is	science-and-technology	C	View
105	Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the C…	polity-and-governance	D	View
106	Recently, several hundred South Africa soldiers were sent to Burundi	polity-and-governance	D	View
107	Chapchar Kut is a festival celebrated in the state of	art-and-culture	C	View
108	Consider the following statements: 1. NTPD is the largest power utility in India. 2. ONGC accounts for half of the LPG production in India. …	economy	D	View
109	Match List I (Oxidation number) with List II (The element) List I List II (Oxidation number) (The element) A. 2 1. Oxidation number of Mn in…	science-and-technology	A	View
110	With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is correct?	history	B	View
111	The Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Forum was held in the year 2001 in	polity-and-governance	D	View
112	Match List I (Ethnic Community) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Ethnic c…	geography	A	View
113	The term of the Lok Sabha	polity-and-governance	C	View
114	In the year 2001, Germany approved a $32 million credit to India	economy	D	View
115	Consider the following: 1. Currency with the public 2. Demand deposits with banks 3. Time deposits with banks Which of these are included in…	economy	D	View
116	Who among the following won six gold medals in the 9th FINA - World Swimming Championship held in Fukuoka, Japan in the year 2001?	art-and-culture	B	View
117	Foot-and-mouth disease in animals, a current epidemic in some parts of the world, is caused by	science-and-technology	D	View
118	In the year 2001, India offered a grant of five million dollars to Tajikistan to	polity-and-governance	A	View
119	Consider the following countries: 1. Albania 2. Bosnia Herzegovina 3. Croatia 4. Macedonia Which of these countries has/have Adriatic Sea as…	geography	B	View
120	A hollow sphere of radius R, a hollow cube of side R and a thin circular plate of radius R, made up of the same material, are all heated to …	science-and-technology	A	View
121	Consider the following financial institution of India: 1. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) 2. Industrial Credit and Investment…	economy	A	View
122	During the Indian freedom struggle, the Khudai Khidmatgars, also known as Red Shirts, called for	history	D	View
123	Match List I (Commission) with List II (Matter of Enquiry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List …	polity-and-governance	B	View
124	Consider the following statements: 1. In equatorial regions, the year is divided into four main seasons 2. In Mediterranean region, summer r…	geography	D	View
125	A World Summit with representation from all the countries will be held in Johannesburg in September 2002 on the subject of	geography	D	View
126	Which one of the following statements is correct?	science-and-technology	C	View
127	Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and also assume that it rises in the East exactly at 6.48 p.m. on the first…	geography	B	View
128	Match List I (Scientists) with List II (Achievement) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Sc…	science-and-technology	A	View
129	Berber speaking community, frequently in the news, lives in	geography	B	View
130	In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates res…	polity-and-governance	C	View
131	With reference to power sector in India consider the following statements: 1. Rural electrification has been treated as a Basic Minimum Serv…	economy	C	View
132	A country is said to be in debt trap if	economy	B	View
133	Which one of the following statements is correct?	science-and-technology	C	View
134	Match List I (Country) with List II (President) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I (Country) (Presi…	polity-and-governance	A	View
135	Consider the following ecosystems: 1. Taiga 2. Tropical evergreen 3. Tropical deciduous 4. Tundra The correct sequence in decreasing order o…	geography	C	View
136	Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean 1. its free float with other international currencies. 2. its d…	economy	D	View
137	The sea coast of which one of the following states has become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles from South Americ…	geography	C	View
138	With reference to Indian satellites and their launchers, consider the following statements: 1. All the INSAT-series of satellites were launc…	science-and-technology	C	View
139	The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the	polity-and-governance	B	View
140	Assertion (A): Drinking of whisky increases the frequency of urination. Reason (R): Alcohol intake speeds up the secretion of vasopressin in…	science-and-technology	C	View
141	Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq left Delhi, and, for two years lived in a camp called Swarga-dwari. Reason (R): At that time, Delhi was …	history	C	View
142	Assertion (A): With the increase of temperature, the viscosity of glycerine increases. Reason (R): Rise of temperature increases kinetic ene…	science-and-technology	D	View
143	Assertion (A): The effect of labour participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge of the early 1930s was weak. Reason (R): The labour lead…	history	A	View
144	Assertion (A): Synthetic detergents can lather well in hard water. Reason (R): Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts…	science-and-technology	A	View
145	Assertion (A): 60°-65° latitudes in both the hemispheres have a low-pressure belt instead of high pressure. Reason (R): The low-pressure are…	geography	C	View
146	Assertion (A): Artificial satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastward direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west t…	science-and-technology	C	View
147	Assertion (A): Human diet should compulsorily contain Glycerine, Serine and Tyrosine. Reason (R): Essential amino acids cannot be synthesise…	science-and-technology	D	View
148	Assertion (A): The surface winds spiral inwards upon the centre of the cyclone. Reason (R): Air descends in the centre of the cyclone.	geography	B	View
149	Assertion (A): An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water. Reason (R): The specific gravity of iron is more than that of merc…	science-and-technology	C	View

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

149

Questions

geography33 (22%)
science-and-technology28 (19%)
economy27 (18%)
polity-and-governance25 (17%)
history19 (13%)
art-and-culture13 (9%)
Others4 (3%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2002 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2002 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2002 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2002 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2002 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2002 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2001 All years Prelims 2003

UPSC Prelims 2002 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

Other UPSC Prelims years