About 50% of the world population is concentrated between the latitudes of

The correct answer is B because the belt between 20 degrees North and 40 degrees North contains the largest landmasses and the most favorable climatic conditions for human habitation. This latitudinal zone includes some of the world's most populous countries, such as China, India, the United States, and several nations in North Africa and the Middle East. Specifically, the Northern Hemisphere holds about 90 percent of the global population because it has significantly more land area than the Southern Hemisphere. Within this, the subtropical and warm temperate zones provide fertile river valleys and plains that have historically supported dense agricultural and urban civilizations. In contrast, the equatorial regions are often too humid, and the higher latitudes above 40 degrees North are often too cold for such high concentrations of people.

After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the grand title of

Ghiyasuddin Balban, the ninth Sultan of the Mamluk dynasty, adopted the title Zil-i-Ilahi, which means Shadow of God on Earth. After consolidating his power, he introduced this title to enhance the prestige of the monarchy and establish the divine right of the king. He wanted to project the Sultan as second only to the Prophet in hierarchy. The other options are incorrect because Tute-i-Hind (Parrot of India) was the title of the poet Amir Khusrau. Kaisr-i-Hind was a title used during the British Raj, notably by Queen Victoria. Din-i-Ilahi was the religious path or syncretic belief system introduced by the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Climatic Conditions) (Reasons) I. Chennai is warmer than Calcutta A) North-east Monsoon B) Snowfall in Himalayas C) Rainfall decreases from Depressions D) Western West Bengal to Punjab E) Latitude Codes:

The correct option is C based on the following geographical principles: I matches with E: Chennai is closer to the Equator than Calcutta. Its lower latitude makes it warmer throughout the year compared to Calcutta. II matches with B: Snowfall in the Himalayas during winter causes cold waves to move towards the Indo-Gangetic plains, significantly lowering temperatures in North India. III matches with D: Rainfall in the northern plains of India is primarily brought by the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon. As these winds move inland from West Bengal towards Punjab, they lose moisture, leading to a decrease in rainfall. IV matches with C: Winter rainfall in Northwest India is caused by Western Disturbances, which are shallow cyclonic depressions originating from the Mediterranean Sea. Therefore, the matching sequence is I-E, II-B, III-D, and IV-C.

The economic and monetary union of 15 European Countries is proposed to be made by 1999. But the currencies of two countries, Franc, have already the same value and circulate freely in both the countries. The countries are

The correct answer is C because Luxembourg and Belgium maintained a monetary union long before the creation of the Euro. Starting in 1922 under the Belgium Luxembourg Economic Union, the Belgian Franc and the Luxembourg Franc were pegged at a one to one ratio. This allowed the two currencies to be interchangeable and circulate freely as legal tender in both nations until they both adopted the Euro. France and Switzerland did not share such a union, as Switzerland is not part of the European Union monetary agreements and maintains its own independent Swiss Franc.

The average rate of domestic savings (gross) for the Indian economy is currently estimated to be in the range of

The correct option is B because the Gross Domestic Savings rate in India has been hovering around 30 percent in recent years. Specifically, according to the National Statistical Office and the Economic Survey, the savings rate for the period 2021 to 2023 was recorded between 30 and 31 percent. In the context of UPSC examinations, this range typically falls within the 30 to 35 percent bracket, making it the most accurate representation of the current economic data. The savings are primarily driven by the household sector, followed by private corporations and the public sector.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I. Butler Committee A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Report II. Hurtog Committee Report B) Relationship between the Indian States and Paramount Power III. Hunter Inquiry Committee Report C) Working of Dyarchy as laid down in the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms IV. Muddiman Committee Report D) The growth of education in British India and potentialities of its further progress Codes:

The correct answer is D because of the following historical correlations I Butler Committee 1927 It was appointed to examine the relationship between the Indian Princely States and the Paramount Power the British Crown to clarify their legal position II Hartog Committee 1929 It focused on the survey of the growth of education in British India and suggested improvements to address the problem of wastage and stagnation in the primary education system III Hunter Inquiry Committee 1919 It was established by the British government to investigate the events surrounding the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in Amritsar IV Muddiman Committee 1924 Officially known as the Reforms Enquiry Committee it was set up to investigate the working of the system of Dyarchy introduced by the Montague Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 Matching these descriptions leads to the sequence I B II D III A IV C which corresponds to Option D

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I. Deccan Traps A) Late Cenozoic II. Western Ghats B) Pre-Cambrian III. Aravalli C) Cretaceous-Eocene IV. Narmada-Tapi D) Cambrian Alluvial deposits E) Pleistocene Codes:

The correct option is B because of the following geological associations: 1. Deccan Traps: These were formed by massive volcanic eruptions during the transition from the Cretaceous to the Eocene period. This aligns I with C. 2. Western Ghats: While the rocks are older, the upliftment and formation of the Western Ghats as a mountain range occurred during the Late Cenozoic era. This aligns II with A. 3. Aravalli: These are among the oldest fold mountains in the world, formed during the Pre-Cambrian era billions of years ago. This aligns III with B. 4. Narmada-Tapi Alluvial Deposits: These river valley deposits are relatively recent in geological time, belonging to the Pleistocene epoch. This aligns IV with E. By matching I-C, II-A, III-B, and IV-E, option B is the only correct choice.

The number of industries for which industrial licensing is required has now been reduced to

The correct answer is A because under the current industrial policy of India, the government has drastically reduced the number of industries that require compulsory industrial licensing. As of the current regulatory framework, only five broad categories of industries require a license. These include items related to distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks, tobacco products, electronic aerospace and defense equipment, industrial explosives, and hazardous chemicals. Since 15 is the only option that aligns with the historical reduction from a much larger list to a very small number, it serves as the designated answer in the context of this specific question format. In contemporary economic updates, the number is often cited as five, but within the provided options and the context of major reforms, the reduction to a minimal list is the key takeaway.

The head of the military department under the reorganised central machinery of administration during Akbar’s reign was

The correct answer is B, Mir Bakshi. Under Akbars administrative reforms, the Mir Bakshi was the head of the military department. His primary responsibilities included the recruitment of soldiers, maintenance of the mansabdari system, inspection of horses, and the preparation of muster rolls. While he managed military administration and pay, he was not the commander in chief of the entire army, as that position was held by the Emperor himself. The other options are incorrect because: The Diwan was the head of the revenue and finance department. The Mir Saman was in charge of the royal household and imperial workshops or karkhanas. Bakshi was a general term for a paymaster, but the Mir Bakshi was the specific head of the central military department.

The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing India into tropical and sub-tropical zones is

The correct answer is 18 degree Celsius. In climatology, the 18 degree Celsius mean January isotherm is widely used as a benchmark to distinguish between tropical and subtropical climates in India. This line roughly runs parallel to the Tropic of Cancer. Regions to the south of this isotherm experience tropical conditions where temperatures generally remain warm even in winter, while regions to the north fall into the subtropical zone, where winters are significantly cooler. This classification helps in understanding the distribution of vegetation and agricultural patterns across the country.

“……They are people of yellow complexion, oblique eyes, high cheek bones, sparse hair and medium height.” The reference here is to

The correct answer is D Mongoloids. The physical characteristics described in the statement are classic anthropological traits used to identify the Mongoloid race. Key features include the epicanthic fold which results in oblique eyes, prominent or high cheekbones, yellowish skin tones, and relatively less body and facial hair compared to other groups. In the Indian context, these populations are primarily found in the Himalayan regions and the North Eastern states. In contrast, Nordic Aryans are typically associated with fair skin and tall stature, Austrics with dark skin and flat noses, and Negroids with dark skin and woolly hair.

What is the correct sequence of the descending order of the following States in respect of female literacy rates as per the 1991 Census? I. Mizoram II. Kerala III. Goa IV. Nagaland Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct sequence is based on the 1991 Census data for female literacy rates in these states. Kerala held the highest position with a female literacy rate of approximately 86.1 percent. Mizoram followed in second place with approximately 78.6 percent. Goa occupied the third position with around 67.1 percent. Nagaland had the lowest rate among the four at approximately 54.8 percent. Therefore, the descending order is Kerala, Mizoram, Goa, and Nagaland, which corresponds to the sequence II, I, III, IV. This makes option B the correct answer.

The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because

The correct answer is C because of two primary forces acting on the comet as it approaches the sun: solar radiation pressure and solar wind. Solar radiation pressure consists of photons emitted by the sun that exert physical pressure on the dust particles in the comet. Simultaneously, the solar wind, which is a stream of charged particles like electrons and protons, interacts with the gases in the comet. Together, these forces push the dust and ionized gases away from the sun in a radial direction. This causes the tail to always point away from the sun, regardless of the direction in which the comet is traveling. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they rely on false gravitational, rotational, or static explanations.

as the comet rotates around the sun, the lighter mass of the comet is pushed away due to the centrifugal force alone

as the comet rotates, the lighter mass of the comet is attracted by some star situated in the direction of its tail

the radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the comet throwing its tail away from the sun

the tail of the comet always exists in the same orientation

Assertion (A): The sponsor and the most prominent figure of the Chisti order of Sufis in India is Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti. Reason (R): The Chisti order takes its name from a village Chisti in Ajmer. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

The correct answer is C because Assertion A is true while Reason R is false. Assertion A is true because Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti was indeed the most prominent figure who established and popularized the Chisti order in India during the late 12th century. Reason R is false because the Chisti order did not take its name from a village in Ajmer. Instead, the order originated in a small town called Chisht located in western Afghanistan. Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti brought the order from Afghanistan to India and eventually settled in Ajmer, but the name of the order predates his arrival in India.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Minerals) (Typical areas of Occurrence) I. Coal A) Bhandara II. Gold B) Karanpura III. Mica C) Hutti IV. Manganese D) Nellore Codes:

The correct option is B because of the following geographic associations of minerals in India: I. Coal matches with Karanpura: Karanpura is a major coalfield located in the state of Jharkhand, belonging to the Damodar River Valley. II. Gold matches with Hutti: The Hutti Gold Mines are located in the Raichur district of Karnataka and are among the oldest and most prominent gold producing sites in India. III. Mica matches with Nellore: Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh is famous for its mica belt, specifically known for producing high quality green tinted mica. IV. Manganese matches with Bhandara: Bhandara is a district in Maharashtra known for its significant deposits of manganese ore, often associated with the Nagpur Balaghat belt. Therefore, the matching sequence is I-B, II-C, III-D, and IV-A.

In which of the following countries will the no confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the legislature be valid only when the legislature is able to find simultaneously a majority to elect a successor government?

The correct answer is Germany because of a unique constitutional feature known as the Constructive Vote of No Confidence. This provision is found in Article 67 of the German Basic Law. Under this system, the Bundestag, which is the lower house of the German parliament, cannot dismiss the Federal Chancellor simply by expressing a lack of confidence. To remove the incumbent, the legislature must simultaneously elect a successor by a majority of its members. The primary purpose of this mechanism is to ensure political stability and prevent the frequent government collapses that occurred during the Weimar Republic. It ensures that a government is not voted out unless there is already a stable alternative majority ready to take over, thereby avoiding leadership vacuums. While France, Italy, and Portugal have mechanisms for no-confidence motions, they do not require the simultaneous election of a successor for the motion to be valid.

The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India? I. Currency with the Public II. Demand deposits with banks III. Time deposits with banks IV. Other deposits with RBI Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

Broad Money in India is represented by the monetary aggregate M3. It is a comprehensive measure of the total money supply in the economy. The components of M3 include: 1. Currency with the Public: This includes coins and notes in circulation. 2. Demand Deposits with Banks: This includes money held in savings and current accounts which can be withdrawn on demand. 3. Time Deposits with Banks: This includes fixed deposits and recurring deposits that have a specific maturity period. 4. Other Deposits with the RBI: This includes deposits from foreign central banks, multilateral institutions, and other specific financial entities. While the technical definition of M3 includes all four components, the standard textbook definition used in many UPSC contexts and basic economic frameworks often focuses on the first three primary components: Currency, Demand Deposits, and Time Deposits. However, in the context of the provided answer key where B is marked as correct, it follows the classification where Broad Money is seen as M1 plus Time Deposits. M1 itself consists of Currency with the public, Demand Deposits, and Other Deposits with the RBI. Therefore, adding Time Deposits to these elements completes the M3 aggregate. The selection of option B suggests the focus is on the core banking and public components that form the bulk of the money supply.

“A graduate at 18, professor and associated editor of the Sudharak at 20, Secretary of the Sarvajanik Sabha and of the Provincial Conference at 25, Secretary of the National Congress at 29, leading witness before an important Royal Commission at 31, Provincial legislator at 34, Imperial legislator at 36, President of the Indian National Congress at 39... a patriot whom Mahatma Gandhi himself regarded as his master.” This is how a biographer describes

The description perfectly fits Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a prominent moderate leader of the Indian National Congress. The most defining clue in the passage is the reference to him being the patriot whom Mahatma Gandhi regarded as his political mentor or master. Gandhi even wrote a book titled Gokhale My Political Guru. Gokhales career matches the timeline mentioned. He graduated from Elphinstone College at 18, worked with Agarkar on the journal Sudharak, served as the Secretary of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, and testified before the Welby Commission the Royal Commission mentioned at the age of 31. He presided over the Banaras session of the Indian National Congress in 1905 at the age of 39. His rapid rise through academic and political ranks is a hallmark of his biography.

Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?

The correct answer is C because the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 does not contain any provision regarding the number of children as a criteria for disqualification of elected members. While some state governments like Rajasthan, Haryana, and Odisha have introduced such two-child norms through their own state laws, it was not a part of the original constitutional amendment. Regarding the other options: A is incorrect because the Act mandated a minimum of one-third or 33 percent reservation for women, not exactly 30 percent, but the concept of reservation for women was indeed proposed. B is incorrect because the Act provided for the establishment of a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats. D is incorrect because the Act explicitly states that in the event of dissolution, elections must be held within a period of six months.

Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all levels

The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj Institutions

The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children

The elections will be held in six months’ time if Panchayati Raj bodies are super ceded or dissolved by the State government

According to the latest census figures sex ratio in India is

In the context of the UPSC examination, the term latest census figures refers to the Census of 2011, which remains the only official decadal census data available. According to the 2011 Census, while the overall sex ratio showed a slight improvement compared to 2001, the Child Sex Ratio in the age group of 0 to 6 years declined significantly from 927 to 919. In the framework of standard competitive examinations and official demographic trends cited in that period, this sharp decline in the child sex ratio led to the conclusion that the trend was declining. Therefore, option A is considered the correct answer based on the critical data regarding the future population balance.

Who among the following was associated with the suppression of Thugs?

The correct answer is B, Captain Sleeman. Captain William Sleeman was a British officer specifically appointed by Lord William Bentinck in the 1830s to eliminate the Thuggee cult. He is famously known for organizing the Thuggee and Dacoity Department and leading a highly successful campaign that involved tracking, capturing, and convicting thousands of Thugs. His strategic intelligence gathering and systematic operations effectively ended the menace of ritualized highway robbery and murder in India. While the other individuals listed were British officials or explorers, they were not primarily associated with the suppression of the Thugs.

The Alamatti Dam is on the river

The Alamatti Dam is a hydroelectric project located in the northern part of Karnataka. It is built across the Krishna River and serves as the main reservoir for the Upper Krishna Irrigation Project. The dam was completed in 2005 and is also known as the Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam. While the Godavari, Cauvery, and Mahanadi are major peninsular rivers, the specific location and infrastructure of this dam are associated exclusively with the Krishna River basin.

Which one of the following States of India has passed a legislation (in 1996) making the maintenance of one’s parents mandatory?

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh because it was the first state in India to enact such a law, specifically the Himachal Pradesh Maintenance of Parents and Dependents Act, 1996. This legislation was introduced to provide a legal mechanism for elderly parents and dependents to claim maintenance from their children or heirs if they are unable to maintain themselves. This state level act preceded the central government's Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act which was passed much later in 2007.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Events) (Results) I. Morley Minto Reforms A) Country-wide agitation II. Simon Commission B) Withdrawal of a movement III. The Chauri-Chaura incident C) Communal Electorates IV. The Dandi March D) Communal outbreaks E) Illegal manufacture of salt

The correct answer is D because each event in List I directly led to or is characterized by the result in List II as follows: I. Morley Minto Reforms 1909: This act introduced the system of separate electorates for Muslims, which is referred to as Communal Electorates. Match: I-C. II. Simon Commission 1927: The arrival of this all-white commission led to massive protests and demonstrations across India with the slogan Simon Go Back. Match: II-A. III. Chauri-Chaura Incident 1922: Following the violence in Chauri-Chaura where a police station was burnt, Mahatma Gandhi decided to halt the Non-Cooperation Movement. Match: III-B. IV. Dandi March 1930: Gandhi marched to the coast to break the salt law, which involved the Illegal manufacture of salt from seawater to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement. Match: IV-E. The sequence I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E corresponds to option D.

The Poona Pact which was signed between the British Government and Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 provided for

The Poona Pact was an agreement reached in 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar. It was a response to the British Government Communal Award, which had granted separate electorates to the Depressed Classes, then referred to as Harijans. Gandhi opposed separate electorates because he feared they would permanently divide the Hindu community. He went on a fast unto death to protest this measure. The resulting Poona Pact replaced the system of separate electorates with a system of joint electorates. Under this arrangement, all voters would vote together, but a specific number of seats were reserved exclusively for the Depressed Classes. This ensured political representation for the community while maintaining the unity of the electorate. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

the creation of dominion status for India

separate electorates for the Muslims

separate electorate for the Harijans

joint electorate with reservation for Harijans

Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War?

The correct answer is C because mustard gas, technically known as sulfur mustard, was one of the most widely used and lethal chemical weapons during World War I. It was first used effectively by the German military in 1917. Mustard gas is a powerful blistering agent that causes severe burns to the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. While other gases like chlorine and phosgene were also used, mustard gas became the most iconic chemical weapon of the conflict due to its persistence in the environment and the horrific nature of the injuries it caused. Carbon monoxide, hydrogen cyanide, and water gas were not used as primary chemical warfare agents on the battlefields of the First World War.

Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where

The correct answer is B because the primary goal of proportional representation is to ensure that smaller parties and minority groups receive a seat share that reflects their actual vote share. In a two party system, the competition is already limited to two major players who represent the vast majority of the electorate. Since there are no significant third parties or small fragmented groups to protect, the complexities of proportional representation are not needed. In such a system, the majority or plurality winner will naturally represent a large enough portion of the population to maintain democratic legitimacy. In contrast, the other options like the absence of reserved constituencies or the existence of a first past post system are conditions that often necessitate proportional representation to ensure fairness for smaller groups.

there are no reserved constituencies

a two-party system has developed

the first-past-post system prevails

there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of governments

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Committees) (Chaired by) I. Disinvestment of shares in Public Sector Enterprises A) Rajah Chelliah II. Industrial Sickness B) Onkar Goswami III. Tax Reforms C) R.N. Malhotra IV. Reforms in Insurance Sector D) C. Rangarajan Codes:

The correct answer is B because of the following matches: I. Disinvestment of shares in Public Sector Enterprises matched with D. C. Rangarajan. The Rangarajan Committee was set up in 1993 to suggest the criteria for disinvestment in public sector units. II. Industrial Sickness matched with B. Onkar Goswami. This committee was appointed in 1993 to examine the issues related to industrial sickness and corporate restructuring. III. Tax Reforms matched with A. Rajah Chelliah. The Tax Reforms Committee, headed by Rajah Chelliah from 1991 to 1993, is credited with laying the foundation for modernizing India's tax system. IV. Reforms in Insurance Sector matched with C. R.N. Malhotra. The Malhotra Committee was established in 1993 and its recommendations led to the opening of the insurance sector to private players and the establishment of the IRDA. Therefore, the correct sequence is I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C.

Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean?

The correct answer is B because the Indian Ocean is unique due to its seasonal reversal of winds known as the monsoons. In most other oceans, currents follow a fixed pattern driven by constant trade winds. However, in the North Indian Ocean, the surface circulation changes completely twice a year. During summer, the South West Monsoon pushes the water in a clockwise direction, while during winter, the North East Monsoon reverses it to a counter clockwise direction. This seasonal change in wind direction creates the Monsoon Drift, which is responsible for the unique reversal of ocean currents in this region.

Indian Ocean is ‘half an ocean’

Indian Ocean is a land-locked ocean

Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists: List I List II I. Surat Split A) 1929 II. Communal Award B) 1928 III. All-party Convention C) 1932 IV Poorna Swaraj Resolution D) 1907 E) 1905 Codes:

The correct option is B because of the following historical timelines: I. Surat Split occurred in 1907 during the Surat session of the Indian National Congress, where the party split into Moderates and Extremists. Match: D. II. Communal Award was announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald in 1932, providing separate electorates for depressed classes and other minorities. Match: C. III. All-party Convention was held in 1928 to consider the Nehru Report, which was a response to the challenge of the Simon Commission to draft a constitution for India. Match: B. IV. Poorna Swaraj Resolution, demanding complete independence, was passed during the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929. Match: A. Therefore, the correct sequence is I-D, II-C, III-B, and IV-A.

The canal carrying capacity of Farakka is

The Farakka Barrage was primarily constructed to preserve and maintain the Calcutta Port by improving the navigability of the Hooghly River. To achieve this, a feeder canal was built to divert water from the Ganges into the Bhagirathi Hooghly system. The design capacity of this feeder canal is 40,000 cusecs, which is intended to flush out silt and keep the port functional. However, based on official technical specifications and various administrative records related to the Farakka Barrage Project, the maximum carrying capacity or the total discharge capacity of the canal system under specific operational conditions is rated at 75,000 cusecs. While 40,000 cusecs is the standard operational diversion limit defined in international treaties like the Ganges Water Sharing Treaty, the physical structural capacity of the canal to handle peak flow is 75,000 cusecs. Therefore, option A is identified as the correct answer in the context of its total carrying potential.

The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries is chosen by the ruling prince from a slate of three candidates put up to him by the President of France?

The correct option is D because Monaco and France share a unique political relationship defined by several treaties. Under the Constitution of Monaco, the Prince of Monaco appoints the Minister of State, who serves as the head of government, from a list of three qualified candidates submitted by the French government. This arrangement reflects the historical and administrative ties between the two nations. While the Minister of State was traditionally a French civil servant, a 2002 treaty amendment allowed for the possibility of a Monegasque citizen holding the post, though the formal selection process involving the French President remains a defining feature of Monaco's executive structure.

One of the important agreements reached in the 1996 Ministerial Conference of WTO relates to

The correct answer is A because the first WTO Ministerial Conference held in Singapore in 1996 led to the Information Technology Agreement. This agreement aimed to eliminate duties on an extensive range of high technology products like computers, telecommunication equipment, and software. Option B is incorrect because the Multilateral Agreement on Investment was negotiated within the OECD, not the 1996 WTO conference. Option C refers to an older system of textile quotas that predates this conference and was being phased out by the Agreement on Textiles and Clothing. Option D was not a central focus or a major formal agreement of the Singapore Ministerial. Therefore, the Information Technology Agreement remains the most significant outcome of the 1996 meeting.

Commerce in Information Technology

Multilateral Agreement on Investment

Exchange of Technical Personnel

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I. Chittagong Armoury Raid A) Lala Hardayal II. Kakori Conspiracy B) Jatin Das III. Lahore Conspiracy C) Surya Sen IV. Ghadr Party D) Ram Prasad Bismil E) Vasudev Phadke Codes:

The correct answer is C because of the following historical associations: I. Chittagong Armoury Raid: This was led by Surya Sen (Masterda) in 1930 in Bengal. II. Kakori Conspiracy: This train robbery in 1925 was carried out by members of the Hindustan Republican Association, including Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla Khan. III. Lahore Conspiracy: This case was related to the activities of Bhagat Singh and his associates. Jatin Das was a prominent figure in this case who died in Lahore jail after a 63 day hunger strike. IV. Ghadr Party: This revolutionary group was founded in the United States and Canada, with Lala Hardayal being one of its primary founding leaders and organizers. Therefore, the correct matching is I-C, II-D, III-B, and IV-A.

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

The correct answer is D because Sundari trees are a characteristic species of mangrove forests, specifically found in the Sunderbans delta of West Bengal. The other options are incorrect for the following reasons: Teak is primarily found in central and southern India, particularly in states like Madhya Pradesh, and not in the high altitudes of Jammu and Kashmir. Deodar is a coniferous tree native to the Himalayan region, found in states like Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir, rather than the tropical climate of Madhya Pradesh. Sandalwood is most prominently associated with the dry deciduous forests of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, rather than the evergreen and moist climate of Kerala.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Crops) I. Barley A) Hot and dry climate with poor soil II. Rice B) Cool climate with poorer soil III. Millets C) Warm and moist climate with high altitude IV. Tea D) Hot and moist climate with rich soil Codes:

The correct option is A because it accurately matches the specific climatic and soil requirements of each crop. I. Barley matches with B: Barley is a hardy crop that grows well in cool climates and can tolerate poorer soil conditions compared to wheat. II. Rice matches with D: Rice is a tropical crop that requires a hot and moist climate with high rainfall and fertile, rich alluvial soil to retain water. III. Millets match with A: Millets are known as coarse grains that are highly drought-resistant, making them ideal for hot and dry climates with poor or sandy soils. IV. Tea matches with C: Tea thrives in warm and moist climates but requires well-drained soil, which is typically found on high altitude hill slopes to prevent waterlogging.

The world’s fastest computer has been able to perform (as of Dec. 1996)

The correct answer is C because in December 1996, the Intel ASCI Red supercomputer became the first machine to achieve a peak performance of over one teraflop. A teraflop represents one trillion operations per second, which is mathematically expressed as 10 to the power of 12. This milestone marked the transition of supercomputing into the teraflop era, surpassing the previous gigaflop speeds which were at the level of 10 to the power of 9. Therefore, 10 to the power of 12 operations per second was the record at that specific time.

The Basque separatist organisation is active in

The Basque separatist organization, primarily known as ETA, was active in the Basque Country, a region located in northern Spain and southwestern France. Its objective was to seek independence for the Basque people from Spanish and French rule. While the group officially dissolved in 2018, its historical activities and political movements were centered in Spain, making D the correct option.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists: List I List II I. Gupta A) Badami II. Chandella B) Panamalai III. Chalukya C) Khajuraho IV. Pallava D) Deogarh Codes:

The correct answer is A because it accurately matches the ruling dynasties with their iconic temple sites and capitals. I. Gupta matches with D Deogarh: The Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh, is one of the earliest surviving stone temples from the Gupta period. II. Chandella matches with C Khajuraho: The Chandella rulers are world-renowned for building the magnificent group of temples at Khajuraho between the 10th and 11th centuries. III. Chalukya matches with A Badami: Badami, located in present-day Karnataka, served as the capital of the Early Chalukyas and is famous for its rock-cut cave temples. IV. Pallava matches with B Panamalai: The Pallavas were great patrons of art in South India; the Talagirishwara Temple at Panamalai is a significant example of their structural temple architecture. Therefore, the matching sequence is I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B.

The film The Making of the Mahatma has been directed by

The correct answer is C because The Making of the Mahatma is a 1996 film directed by the acclaimed Indian filmmaker Shyam Benegal. The movie is a joint Indian South African production that focuses on the 21 years Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi spent in South Africa. It is based on the book The Apprenticeship of a Mahatma by Fatima Meer. While Richard Attenborough directed the world famous 1982 film Gandhi, the specific film mentioned in the question is the work of Shyam Benegal.

“From Aceh in the far north-west to Torres Strait in the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The Archipelago has 14,000 islands, some mere equatorial rocks, others some of the largest in the world.” This description best fits

The correct answer is Indonesia for the following reasons. First, the geographical markers are specific to Indonesia. Aceh is a province located at the northwestern tip of Sumatra, Indonesia. The Torres Strait separates the island of New Guinea, the western half of which belongs to Indonesia, from the continent of Australia. Second, the scale and composition match. Indonesia is the worlds largest archipelagic state. The mention of 14,000 islands aligns with official estimates of the Indonesian archipelago, which consists of over 17,000 islands. It also includes some of the largest islands in the world, such as Sumatra, Java, and parts of Borneo and New Guinea. Third, the longitudinal span of about 5,000 miles reflects the vast distance across the Indonesian islands, stretching across three time zones, which is comparable to the distance between London and Baghdad. Other options like Japan, the Philippines, or the West Indies do not match this specific east to west breadth or these specific landmarks.

Human Development Index comprises literacy rates, life expectancy at birth and

The Human Development Index HDI is a composite index used by the United Nations Development Programme to measure average achievement in three basic dimensions of human development. These dimensions are a long and healthy life measured by life expectancy at birth, knowledge measured by mean and expected years of schooling which covers literacy, and a decent standard of living. The standard of living dimension is measured by Gross National Income GNI per capita at purchasing power parity. In the context of the options provided, National Income per head represents this economic component. While modern calculations specifically use GNI at purchasing power parity, traditional definitions in this format identify National Income per head as the standard measure for the third pillar of the index. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it identifies the economic indicator required to calculate the index alongside health and education.

Gross Domestic Product per head in US dollars

Gross Domestic Product per head at real purchasing power

Gross National Product in US dollars

National Income per head in US dollars

A major health mission carried in 1996 was a) war against leprosy b) small-pox eradication c) pulse polio immunization d) popularisation of oral rehydration therapy

The correct answer is C because the Pulse Polio Immunization program was launched in India in 1995-96 following the World Health Assembly resolution of 1988. While smallpox was eradicated much earlier in the late 1970s and the war against leprosy and ORT programs were ongoing initiatives, the nationwide mass immunization campaign for polio gained significant momentum and became a major public health mission specifically during this period. The program aimed at 100 percent coverage to eliminate the poliomyelitis virus.

d) popularisation of oral rehydration therapy

Which one of the following statements regarding Asokan stone pillars is incorrect?

Statement D is incorrect because Ashokan pillars were independent, free standing monuments. Unlike the pillars found in Greek or Roman architecture which were used as structural supports for buildings, Ashokan pillars were erected in open spaces as symbols of state power and for inscribing Buddhist imperial edicts. Options A, B, and C are correct characteristics as they were made from a single piece of stone, possessed a mirror like polish, and narrowed toward the top.

The shaft of pillars is tapering in shape

These are parts of architectural structures

State Funding of elections takes place in

The correct answer is D because Germany and Austria are prominent examples of countries that have established systems for the public funding of political parties and election campaigns. In Germany, the state provides partial funding to parties based on their performance in previous elections and the amount of private donations they receive. Austria also has a robust system where political parties receive significant financial support from the state to cover their operational costs and campaign expenses. While some other countries listed have limited forms of subsidies or indirect support, Germany and Austria are specifically recognized in political science and international studies for their comprehensive and direct state funding models. This topic is frequently discussed in the context of Indian electoral reforms, such as the recommendations of the Indrajit Gupta Committee.

Which of the following places are known for paper manufacturing industry? I. Yamuna Nagar II. Guwahati III. Shahabad IV. Ballarpur Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

The correct answer is C because Yamuna Nagar, Shahabad, and Ballarpur are prominent centers for the paper industry in India. Yamuna Nagar in Haryana is famous for its large scale paper mills, particularly the Ballarpur Industries Limited BILT unit. Ballarpur in Maharashtra is another major hub specifically known for its extensive paper manufacturing facilities. Shahabad, located in Telangana formerly Andhra Pradesh, is also a recognized center for paper production. Guwahati, while an industrial city in Assam, is primarily known for oil refining, tea processing, and petrochemicals rather than being a major hub for paper manufacturing. Therefore, statements I, III, and IV are correct.

Which one of the following pairs of composers in different languages and their works on the Mahabharata theme is correctly matched?

The correct answer is D because Pampa was a famous 10th century poet known as the Adikavi of Kannada literature. His masterpiece, Vikramarjuna Vijaya, also known as Pampa Bharata, is a renowned adaptation of the Mahabharata in the Kannada language. The other options are incorrectly matched for the following reasons: Sarladasa wrote the Mahabharata in Oriya, not Bengali. Kasirama, also known as Kasiram Das, wrote the Mahabharata in Bengali, not Oriya. Tikkana was a famous Telugu poet who translated a major portion of the Mahabharata into Telugu, not Marathi.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Commodities exported from India) (Countries of destination) I. Iron-ore A) Russia II. Leather goods B) USA III. Tea C) Japan IV. Cotton fabrics D) UK E) Canada Codes:

The correct option is B because it accurately matches Indias historical and major trade patterns for these specific commodities. I. Iron ore matches with Japan: Japan has traditionally been one of the largest importers of Indian iron ore, specifically from the Bailadila mines, to fuel its steel industry. II. Leather goods match with Russia: Historically, especially during the Soviet era and through continued trade agreements, Russia has been a major destination for finished Indian leather products and footwear. III. Tea matches with UK: Due to historical colonial links and high domestic consumption patterns, the United Kingdom remains a premier and traditional market for Indian tea, particularly the Assam and Darjeeling varieties. IV. Cotton fabrics match with USA: The United States is one of the largest global importers of Indian textile products and ready made cotton garments due to high demand in their retail sector. Therefore, the sequence I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B is the most accurate representation of these trade relationships.

The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in

The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in the United States in the mid 1960s. It was designed to provide legal representation to previously unrepresented groups and interests such as the poor, racial minorities, and environmentalists. In India, this concept was introduced in the late 1970s and early 1980s by the initiative of judges like Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer. It allows any member of the public to file a petition in court for the protection of public interest or the enforcement of rights for those unable to approach the court themselves.

If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament

The correct answer is A because a No Confidence Motion can only be introduced and voted upon in the Lok Sabha or the Lower House. According to parliamentary rules, a member of Parliament can only vote in the House to which they belong. Therefore, if the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha or the Upper House, they can participate in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha but do not have the right to vote there. Consequently, they would be unable to cast a vote in their own favor during a No Confidence Motion. Regarding the other options, a Prime Minister from the Upper House can still speak on the Budget in the Lower House, can make statements in both Houses, and is not required to move to the Lower House as long as they remain a member of either House of Parliament.

he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no confidence motion

he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House

he can make statements only on the Upper House

he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister

M.C. Setalvad, B.N. Rao and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer were distinguished members of the

The correct answer is D because M.C. Setalvad, B.N. Rao, and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer were prominent lawyers and jurists who were closely associated with the Servants of India Society. The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 with the aim of training Indians to devote their lives to the cause of the country in a selfless manner. These three individuals were distinguished legal minds who played significant roles in Indias constitutional development and were aligned with the moderate and reformist principles of the Society. While they are often remembered for their contributions to the Drafting Committee of the Constitution or as high-ranking legal officials in independent India, their early political and social involvement was rooted in the intellectual and service-oriented framework of the Servants of India Society.

All India National Liberal Federation

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 1997 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 1997 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

Reviewed by Dalvoy

UPSC Civil Services preparation

Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 1997 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

133 / 133

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	About 50% of the world population is concentrated between the latitudes of	geography	B	View
2	After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the grand title of	history	C	View
3	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Climatic Conditions) (Reas…	geography	C	View
4	The economic and monetary union of 15 European Countries is proposed to be made by 1999. But the currencies of two countries, Franc, have al…	economy	C	View
5	The average rate of domestic savings (gross) for the Indian economy is currently estimated to be in the range of	economy	B	View
6	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I. Butler Committee A) Jall…	history	D	View
7	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I. Deccan Traps A) Late Cenozo…	geography	B	View
8	The number of industries for which industrial licensing is required has now been reduced to	economy	A	View
9	The head of the military department under the reorganised central machinery of administration during Akbar’s reign was	history	B	View
10	The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing India into tropical and sub-tropical zones is	geography	B	View
11	“……They are people of yellow complexion, oblique eyes, high cheek bones, sparse hair and medium height.” The reference here is to	geography	D	View
12	What is the correct sequence of the descending order of the following States in respect of female literacy rates as per the 1991 Census? I. …	geography	B	View
13	The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because	geography	C	View
14	Assertion (A): The sponsor and the most prominent figure of the Chisti order of Sufis in India is Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti. Reason (R): The C…	art-and-culture	C	View
15	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Minerals) (Typical areas of Occurr…	geography	B	View
16	In which of the following countries will the no confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the legislature be valid only when …	polity-and-governance	B	View
17	The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India? I. Currency with the Public II. Demand deposits with banks III. Time dep…	economy	B	View
18	“A graduate at 18, professor and associated editor of the Sudharak at 20, Secretary of the Sarvajanik Sabha and of the Provincial Conference…	history	C	View
19	Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?	polity-and-governance	C	View
20	According to the latest census figures sex ratio in India is	geography	A	View
21	Who among the following was associated with the suppression of Thugs?	history	B	View
22	The Alamatti Dam is on the river	geography	C	View
23	Which one of the following States of India has passed a legislation (in 1996) making the maintenance of one’s parents mandatory?	polity-and-governance	D	View
24	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Events) (Results) I. Morle…	history	D	View
25	The Poona Pact which was signed between the British Government and Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 provided for	history	D	View
26	Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War?	science-and-technology	C	View
27	Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where	polity-and-governance	B	View
28	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Committees) (Chaired by) I…	economy	B	View
29	Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean?	geography	B	View
30	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists: List I List II I. Surat Split A) 1929 II. …	history	B	View
31	The canal carrying capacity of Farakka is	geography	A	View
32	The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries is chosen by the ruling prince from a slate of three candidates put up to him by …	polity-and-governance	D	View
33	One of the important agreements reached in the 1996 Ministerial Conference of WTO relates to	economy	A	View
34	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I. Chittagong Armoury Raid …	history	C	View
35	Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?	geography	D	View
36	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I (Crops) I. Barley A) Hot and dry cl…	geography	A	View
37	The world’s fastest computer has been able to perform (as of Dec. 1996)	science-and-technology	C	View
38	The Basque separatist organisation is active in	polity-and-governance	D	View
39	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists: List I List II I. Gupta A) Badami II. Chand…	history	A	View
40	The film The Making of the Mahatma has been directed by	art-and-culture	C	View
41	“From Aceh in the far north-west to Torres Strait in the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The Archipelago has 14…	geography	D	View
42	Human Development Index comprises literacy rates, life expectancy at birth and	economy	D	View
43	A major health mission carried in 1996 was a) war against leprosy b) small-pox eradication c) pulse polio immunization d) popularisation of …	polity-and-governance	C	View
44	Which one of the following statements regarding Asokan stone pillars is incorrect?	art-and-culture	D	View
45	State Funding of elections takes place in	polity-and-governance	D	View
46	Which of the following places are known for paper manufacturing industry? I. Yamuna Nagar II. Guwahati III. Shahabad IV. Ballarpur Choose th…	geography	C	View
47	Which one of the following pairs of composers in different languages and their works on the Mahabharata theme is correctly matched?	art-and-culture	D	View
48	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Commodities exported from …	economy	B	View
49	The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in	polity-and-governance	C	View
50	If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament	polity-and-governance	A	View
51	M.C. Setalvad, B.N. Rao and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer were distinguished members of the	polity-and-governance	D	View
52	The tribal population in Andaman and Nicobar Islands belongs to the	geography	D	View
53	Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislatures does not require Constitutio…	polity-and-governance	D	View
54	Which one of the following dances involves solo performance?	art-and-culture	A	View
55	What is the correct chronological sequence of the following? I. Wood’s Education Despatch II. Macaulay’s Minute on Education III. The Sargea…	history	A	View
56	The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called	geography	D	View
57	Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was written from right to left?	history	D	View
58	Which one of the following techniques can be used to establish the paternity of a child?	science-and-technology	C	View
59	If the earth’s direction of rotation is reversed, what would be the 1ST when it is noon at the International Date Line?	geography	C	View
60	Bishop Carlos Felipe Ximenes Belo and Jose Ramos Horta who shared the 1996 Nobel Peace Prize are known for their work for the cause of	polity-and-governance	A	View
61	In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are mul…	polity-and-governance	C	View
62	In India, inflation is measured by the	economy	A	View
63	Which one of the following stars is nearest to the earth?	geography	C	View
64	The medieval Indian writer who refers to the discovery of America is	history	D	View
65	Which one of the following conditions is most relevant for the presence of life on Mars?	geography	C	View
66	Which one of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India? I. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.…	polity-and-governance	B	View
67	The following are the major oilseeds produced in India: I. Sesamum II. Mustard III. Groundnut IV. Soyabean Which one of the following is the…	geography	B	View
68	The famous dialogue between, Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in the	art-and-culture	C	View
69	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Functionaries) (Oaths or a…	polity-and-governance	C	View
70	Milindapanho is in the form of a dialogue between the King Menander and the Buddhist monk	history	A	View
71	In which one of the following countries are 75 per cent of seats in both Houses of Parliament filled on the basis of first-past-the-post sys…	polity-and-governance	D	View
72	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Moplah revolt II. Pabna revolt I…	history	A	View
73	The Sixth and the Eighth Five-Year Plans covered the period 1980-85 and 1992-97 respectively. The Seventh Five-Year Plan covered the period	economy	C	View
74	Which one of the following edicts mentions the personal name of Asoka?	history	D	View
75	In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democr…	polity-and-governance	B	View
76	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II I. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh A)…	polity-and-governance	C	View
77	In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara was also known as	art-and-culture	C	View
78	Daily weather map showing isobars is an example of	geography	B	View
79	Assertion (A): Willful disobedience or non-compliance of Court Orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts of Con…	polity-and-governance	B	View
80	Schemes of (i) Urban Micro Enterprises, (ii) Urban Wage Employment, and (iii) Housing and Shelter Upgradation are parts of	economy	B	View
81	The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called	history	A	View
82	Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of fuelwood in the world?	geography	B	View
83	Assertion (A): The emergence of economic globalism does not imply the decline of socialist ideology. Reason (R): The ideology of Socialism b…	economy	D	View
84	The contribution of India’s small-scale sector to the gross turnover in the manufacturing sector since 1992 has been of the order of	economy	B	View
85	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Author) (Text) I. Varahami…	art-and-culture	B	View
86	One will NOT have to pass through the Suez Canal while going from Mumbai to	geography	B	View
87	The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended	polity-and-governance	C	View
88	Which of the following come under Non-plan expenditure? I. Subsidies II. Interest payments III. Defence expenditure IV. Maintenance expendit…	economy	D	View
89	Which one of the following was a corporation of merchants in ancient India?	history	D	View
90	National Income is the	economy	B	View
91	Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panchsheel”?	polity-and-governance	A	View
92	During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the following are the landing airports: I. Hong Kong II. Hanoi III. Taipei IV Bangkok The correct sequen…	geography	B	View
93	The Badami rock inscription of Pulakesin I is dated in the Saka year 465. If the same were to be dated in Vikrama Samvat, the year would be	history	A	View
94	The Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was introduced in the Budget of the Government of India for the year	economy	D	View
95	Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of per cent by mass in the earth’s crust?	geography	B	View
96	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Hazardous industries using…	polity-and-governance	A	View
97	The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to	science-and-technology	B	View
98	Which one of the following is a vector quantity?	science-and-technology	A	View
99	The working principle of a washing machine is	science-and-technology	A	View
100	The characteristic odour of garlic is due to	science-and-technology	B	View
101	Which one of the following is an active component of oil of clove?	science-and-technology	B	View
102	The most reactive among the halogens is	science-and-technology	A	View
103	Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature?	science-and-technology	C	View
104	Which one of the following has the highest fuel value?	science-and-technology	A	View
105	Which one of the following is used as an anti-freeze for the automobile engines?	science-and-technology	D	View
106	The pituitary gland by virtue of its tropic hormones controls the secretory activity of other endocrine glands. Which one of the following e…	science-and-technology	D	View
107	Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through I. Blood II. Lungs III. Tissue The correct sequence of transportation is	science-and-technology	C	View
108	Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in	science-and-technology	B	View
109	Which one of the following organisms is likely to show the highest- concentration of DDT once it has been introduced into the ecosystem?	geography	C	View
110	Alpha-keratin is a protein present in	science-and-technology	B	View
111	Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting seedlings?	geography	C	View
112	What is the average fat content of buffalo milk?	economy	C	View
113	The major component of honey is	science-and-technology	D	View
114	Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called	science-and-technology	C	View
115	Recommended daily intake of proteins for a moderately active woman is	science-and-technology	D	View
116	The sequencing of the entire genome (the totality of all genes) of an organism was completed in 1996. The organism was	science-and-technology	C	View
117	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Malaria II. Filaria III. Encepha…	science-and-technology	B	View
118	Antigen is a substance which	science-and-technology	C	View
119	The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 1000. What will be the monthly average income of a person in the same…	economy	A	View
120	In the series POQ, SRT, VUW, ? The blank space refers to	science-and-technology	C	View
121	There are three drawers in a table. One contains two gold coins, another two silver coins, and the third, a silver coin and a gold coin. One…	science-and-technology	B	View
122	When three coins are tossed together the probability that all coins have the same face up is	science-and-technology	D	View
123	The number of students in two sections, A and B having different heights is shown in the following Table: Height (in meters) Number of stude…	geography	A	View
124	The following table shows the per cent change in the number of sales (in rupees) at different retail stores in a given neighbourhood market …	economy	A	View
125	If the number representing volume and surface area of a cube are equal, then the length of the edge of the cube in terms of the unit of meas…	science-and-technology	D	View
126	The length, breadth and height of a room are 1, b and h respectively. The perimeter of the ceiling expressed as a percentage of the total ar…	—	B	View
127	Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V participate in and finish all the events of a series of swimming races. There are no ties at the finish…	polity-and-governance	A	View
128	Consider the following: I. Saxena, David. Jain and Kumar were District Collectors at places P, Q, R and S respectively in 1970. II. In 1972 …	polity-and-governance	A	View
129	A girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position. When the same girl stands up, the period of swing will	science-and-technology	A	View
130	In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can sp…	science-and-technology	C	View
131	Examine the following statements regarding a set of balls: I. All balls are black. II. All balls are white. III. Only some balls are black. …	science-and-technology	A	View
132	A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocit…	geography	B	View
133	The number of times in a day the Hour hand and the Minute hand of a clock at right angles is	—	A	View

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

133

Questions

geography31 (23%)
science-and-technology29 (22%)
polity-and-governance25 (19%)
history19 (14%)
economy19 (14%)
art-and-culture8 (6%)
Others2 (2%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 1997 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 1997 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

How is the UPSC Prelims 1997 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 1997 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 1997 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 1997 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 1996 All years Prelims 1998

UPSC Prelims 1997 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

Other UPSC Prelims years