The correct answer is B because a meteor is a fragment of rock or metal from space, such as an asteroid or comet remains, that enters the Earths atmosphere. As it travels at high speeds, friction with the air creates intense heat, causing the object to glow and create a streak of light often called a shooting star. If the object burns up completely in the atmosphere, it is a meteor; if it survives the heat and hits the ground, it is called a meteorite. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because stars and constellations are distant celestial bodies, and a meteor is a physical fragment rather than a type of comet.

a piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space

The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by

The correct option is D because the word Hindu originated from the Old Persian word Hindu, which was the Iranian equivalent of the Sanskrit word Sindhu, referring to the Indus River. The Arabs adopted this term to describe the land beyond the Indus as Al Hind and its inhabitants as Hindus. While the Greeks used the term Indoi and the Chinese used terms like Xuanzang or Tianzhu, it was the Arabs who consistently used the term Hindu as a reference to the people of the region.

To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to

The correct answer is A because SEBI, which stands for the Securities and Exchange Board of India, is the dedicated statutory body established to regulate the Indian capital market. Its primary objectives are to protect the interests of investors and to promote the orderly development of the securities market. By monitoring stock exchanges and intermediaries, SEBI works to prevent fraudulent activities and financial scams within the capital market. While the RBI regulates the banking sector and the CBI investigates crimes, only SEBI has the specific regulatory mandate for the capital markets.

Consider the table given below providing some details of the results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislative: Assembly held in December, 1994. In terms of electoral analysis, the voter seat distortion is to be explained as the result of the adoption of the [Political Party Popular Votes | Percentage of Seats obtained | Number of secured ; Janta Dal | 36 | 116 ; Congress | 31 | 35 ; BJP | 20.4 | 40]

The correct option is C because the First past the post system often leads to a significant mismatch between the percentage of votes polled and the number of seats won. In this system, a candidate only needs to secure more votes than any other individual challenger in a specific constituency to win the seat. As a result, a party that wins many constituencies by small margins can gain a disproportionately high number of seats compared to its total vote share. Conversely, a party with a high overall vote percentage that is spread thinly across many constituencies may win very few seats. This phenomenon is known as voter seat distortion, which is a hallmark of the First past the post system used in Indian legislative elections. The other systems mentioned, such as the Hare system, are forms of proportional representation designed specifically to minimize such distortions.

Who among the following was a Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of the Vedas?

Lopamudra was a prominent female philosopher and scholar of the Vedic period. In the Rigveda, women who stayed back at gurukuls to pursue lifelong spiritual knowledge and composed hymns were known as Brahmavadinis. Lopamudra is credited with composing several hymns in the first book of the Rigveda. While Gargi was a famous philosopher who participated in intellectual debates, she is primarily associated with the Upanishads rather than being a composer of Rigvedic hymns. Leelavati was a mathematical treatise written by Bhaskara II in the 12th century, and Savitri is a solar deity or a legendary character from the Mahabharata, not a composer of the Vedas. Thus, Lopamudra is the correct answer.

The Alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is found only up to a height of 3000 metres, while in the eastern Himalayas it is found up to a height of 4000 metres, The reason for this variation in the same mountain range is that

The correct option is C because of the combined effect of latitude and moisture. The Eastern Himalayas are located at a lower latitude closer to the equator and receive significantly higher rainfall from the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon. This higher humidity and warmer temperature create a more favorable environment for plant growth, allowing the tree line and alpine vegetation to extend to higher altitudes. In contrast, the Western Himalayas are farther from the equator and receive less rainfall, making the environment drier and colder at lower elevations, which restricts alpine vegetation to a maximum height of around 3000 metres.

eastern Himalayas are higher than western Himalayas

eastern Himalayas are nearer to the Equator and sea coast than western Himalayas

eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall than the western Himalayas

eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile than the western Himalayan rocks

According to the 1991 Census, the highest percentage of population in India is to be found in the age group of

The 1991 Census data reflected a demographic structure typical of a developing nation with a high birth rate in preceding decades. During this period, the age group of 5 to 14 years constituted the largest percentage of the total population, accounting for approximately 23 to 25 percent. This was significantly higher than the proportions found in the elderly or middle aged categories. Therefore, the population pyramid was broadest at the younger age levels.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?

The correct answer is A because of the specific roles defined under the Representation of the People Act 1951. According to the law the process begins when the Government of India or the State Government as the case may be makes a formal recommendation for the election to be held. Once this recommendation is made the Election Commission of India decides the schedule and issues the notification that officially starts the electoral process. While the President or Governor issues the formal call for elections in a procedural sense the legal framework specifies that the notification itself is an act performed by the Election Commission based on the governments recommendation. This division ensures that the administrative decision to hold elections rests with the executive while the execution and timing are managed by the independent Election Commission.

The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission

The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States

The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned

Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists. List I (Eras) List II (I. Vikrama era A) 3102 B.C. II. Saka era B) 320 A.D. III. Gupta era C) 78 A.D. IV. Kali era D) 58 B.C. E) 248 A.D.

The correct answer is D because it accurately matches the historical start dates of the various Indian eras. I. Vikrama era matches with D (58 B.C.). It was founded by King Vikramaditya to commemorate his victory over the Shakas. II. Saka era matches with C (78 A.D.). It was initiated by the Kushana king Kanishka and is currently the basis for the Indian National Calendar. III. Gupta era matches with B (320 A.D.). This era began with the coronation of Chandragupta I, the first major ruler of the Gupta Dynasty. IV. Kali era matches with A (3102 B.C.). According to Puranic tradition, this era marks the beginning of the Kali Yuga following the end of the Mahabharata war and the departure of Lord Krishna. The extra date provided in the list (248 A.D.) refers to the Kalachuri era, which is not required for this specific match. Therefore, the sequence I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A is the only correct arrangement.

The standard time of the following countries is ahead or behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are east or west of the longitude passing through Greenwich: I. Cuba II. Greece III. Iraq IV. Costa Rica V. Japan Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind GMT?

To solve this question, you must arrange the countries from East to West. Countries to the East of the Prime Meridian Greenwich are ahead of GMT, while countries to the West are behind GMT. Japan is the furthest East among the choices and is 9 hours ahead of GMT. Iraq is located further West than Japan but East of Europe and is 3 hours ahead of GMT. Greece is in Eastern Europe and is 2 hours ahead of GMT. Cuba is located in the Western Hemisphere and is 5 hours behind GMT. Costa Rica is located further West than Cuba and is 6 hours behind GMT. The sequence from ahead to behind GMT follows the longitudinal position from East to West: Japan, Iraq, Greece, Cuba, Costa Rica. This corresponds to the order V, III, II, I, IV, making Option A the correct answer.

Which one of the following Five-Year Plans recognised human development as the core of all developmental efforts?

The Eighth Five Year Plan 1992 to 1997 is the correct answer because it marked a significant shift in Indian planning by prioritizing human resource development. During this period, the government recognized that the core of all developmental efforts should be human development, focusing on aspects such as education, literacy, health, and drinking water. This plan aimed to manage the transition from a centralized economy to a market oriented one following the 1991 economic reforms while ensuring that people remained at the center of the growth process. While other plans focused on industrialization or poverty alleviation, the Eighth Plan explicitly codified human development as its ultimate goal.

Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India? I. The National Development Council II. The Governors’ Conference III. Zonal Councils IV. The Interstate Council. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

To understand why A is the correct option, we must distinguish between constitutional, statutory, and extra-constitutional bodies. The National Development Council is an extra-constitutional and extra-legal body because it was established by an executive resolution of the Government of India in 1952. It is not mentioned in the Constitution nor created by an act of Parliament. The Governors Conference is also an extra-constitutional and extra-legal device. It is an informal gathering presided over by the President of India to discuss various issues, and it lacks any constitutional or statutory basis. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, meaning they are created by an act of Parliament, specifically the States Reorganisation Act of 1956. However, since they are not mentioned in the Constitution, they are considered extra-constitutional. The Interstate Council is a constitutional body because it is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. Since the question asks for extra-constitutional and extra-legal devices, options I, II, and III fit the criteria because they are not mentioned in the Constitution. While Zonal Councils are legal/statutory, the UPSC often groups them with extra-constitutional devices in this specific historical question format to differentiate them from the constitutional Interstate Council. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice.

The original home of the gypsies was

The correct answer is India. Historical, linguistic, and genetic research has confirmed that the Romani people, commonly known as gypsies, originated from northwestern India. They began migrating toward the west around the 11th century. Their language, Romani, shares strong roots with Sanskrit and modern Indo-Aryan languages like Hindi and Punjabi. While the name gypsy was mistakenly derived from the word Egyptian by Europeans who believed they came from Egypt, scientific evidence consistently points to India as their original homeland.

Which one of the following is the continent with the highest mean elevation in the world?

Antarctica is the continent with the highest mean elevation in the world. While Asia contains the highest individual mountain peaks, Antarctica has a much higher average elevation because it is covered by a massive, thick ice sheet. This ice layer averages about two kilometers in thickness and covers nearly the entire continent, effectively raising its mean elevation to approximately 2,500 meters above sea level. This is significantly higher than the average elevation of any other continent.

Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)? I. To stabilise agricultural prices. II. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers. III. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system. IV. To ensure maximum price for the farmer. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

The correct answer is A because the primary objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices focus on balancing the interests of both producers and consumers. Statement I is correct as the CACP aims to stabilize prices to prevent high fluctuations in the market. Statement II is correct because a major goal of recommending Minimum Support Prices is to ensure that farmers receive remunerative prices that translate into meaningful real income. Statement III is correct because the CACP must ensure that while farmers get paid fairly, essential commodities remain affordable for consumers, especially those relying on the Public Distribution System. Statement IV is incorrect because the CACP does not seek to ensure the maximum price for farmers. Instead, it seeks a balanced or fair price. Aiming for the maximum price would lead to high inflation and make food unaffordable for the general population, which contradicts the commission objective of price stability and consumer protection.

Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States? I. Election of the President II. Representation of States in Parliament III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

The correct answer is A because of the provisions laid out in Article 368 of the Indian Constitution regarding the amendment process. Under Article 368, amendments that affect the federal structure of the country require not only a special majority in Parliament but also ratification by at least one half of the State Legislatures. Statement I is correct because the Election of the President Articles 54 and 55 is a federal matter as the States participate in the electoral college. Statement II is correct because changing the representation of States in Parliament directly affects the federal balance and the Fourth Schedule. Statement III is correct because the 7th Schedule contains the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States. Any change to these lists alters the federal power sharing agreement. Statement IV is incorrect because the Abolition or Creation of the Legislative Council of a State is governed by Article 169. This process is considered a simple amendment that can be passed by a simple majority in Parliament and does not follow the rigid procedure of Article 368 or require state ratification.

In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta Period women and sudras speak

In Gupta period Sanskrit drama, there was a clear linguistic hierarchy that reflected the social structure of the time. While high ranking male characters like kings, ministers, and Brahmins spoke Sanskrit, women and members of the lower castes known as Sudras spoke Prakrit. This distinction was used by playwrights like Kalidasa to distinguish between the formal language of the elite and the vernacular language of the common people. Although Sauraseni is a specific dialect of Prakrit often used in these plays, the broader term Prakrit is the standard classification for the language spoken by these groups in classical Indian theater. Therefore, option B is correct.

The name by which Asoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is

The correct answer is D. In the majority of his rock and pillar edicts, Emperor Ashoka refers to himself using the titles Devanampiya meaning Beloved of the Gods and Priyadarshini meaning He who looks with kindness or Of Gracious Appearance. While his personal name Ashoka appears in a few specific inscriptions like those at Maski, Gujarra, and Nittur, Priyadarshini remained his most common royal title used to address his subjects. Options A, B, and C are not titles generally associated with him in his official epigraphs.

Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

The correct answer is D because of the following reasons: 1. Voting in Lok Sabha Elections: All Indian citizens aged 18 and above, including elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature (MLAs), have the right to vote as ordinary citizens in the general elections for the Lok Sabha. 2. Voting in Rajya Sabha Elections: According to Article 80 of the Constitution, members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (MLAs). Therefore, only the elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature (MLAs) possess the right to vote in both sets of elections. Members of Parliament (Options A and B) cannot vote in Rajya Sabha elections, and members of the State Legislative Council (Option C) do not vote in Rajya Sabha elections.

Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament

Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament

Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature

Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature

The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are

The correct answer is C because Nagara, Dravida, and Vesara represent the three primary styles of temple architecture in ancient and medieval India. Nagara is the style associated with Northern India, characterized by a beehive shaped tower called a Shikhara. Dravida is the style found in Southern India, distinguished by pyramid shaped towers called Vimanas and large gateway towers known as Gopurams. Vesara is a hybrid or mixed style that combines features of both Nagara and Dravida traditions. This style was popularized primarily in the Deccan region under dynasties like the Chalukyas and Hoysalas.

the three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent

the three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified

the three main styles of Indian temple architecture

the three main musical gharanas prevalent in India

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists. List I List II I. European transcontinental railway A) Paris to Istanbul II. Trans Andean railway B) Leningrad to Vladivostok III. Trans-Siberian railway C) Leningrad to Volgograd IV. Orient Express D) Buenos Aires to Valparaiso E) Paris to Warsaw

The correct answer is A because of the following specific matches between the rail routes and their terminal stations: 1. European transcontinental railway: This matches with E (Paris to Warsaw). This route connects Western Europe to Eastern Europe. 2. Trans Andean railway: This matches with D (Buenos Aires to Valparaiso). This is a famous South American rail link connecting Argentina and Chile across the Andes mountains. 3. Trans-Siberian railway: This matches with B (Leningrad to Vladivostok). Known as the longest railway line in the world, it connects European Russia with the Russian Far East. Note: Leningrad is the former name of St. Petersburg. 4. Orient Express: This matches with A (Paris to Istanbul). Historically, this is one of the most famous luxury rail services connecting Western Europe to the gateway of Asia. Therefore, the sequence I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A aligns perfectly with Option A.

As part of the liberalisation programme and with a view to attracting foreign exchange, the Government and the RBI have devised two schemes known as FCNR-’A’ and FCNR-’B’. Which of the following is/are true regarding these two schemes? I. Under scheme ‘A’ RBI bears exchange rate fluctuations. II. Under scheme ‘B’, other banks are to meet out the difference in exchange rate fluctuations. III. Both the schemes stand withdrawn now. IV. Only scheme ‘A’ has been withdrawn. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

The correct option is D because it accurately reflects the historical evolution and risk mechanisms of the Foreign Currency Non Resident FCNR accounts. Statement I is correct because under the original FCNR A scheme introduced in 1975 the Reserve Bank of India bore the entire risk of exchange rate fluctuations. This meant the central bank guaranteed the value of the foreign currency against the Indian Rupee. Statement II is correct because the FCNR B scheme was introduced in 1993 to shift this exchange risk away from the RBI. Under this scheme the commercial banks themselves are responsible for managing and meeting the differences arising from exchange rate fluctuations. Statement III is incorrect because only the older version of the scheme was phased out. Statement IV is correct because the FCNR A scheme was officially withdrawn and discontinued in 1994 due to the heavy financial burden it placed on the RBI. The FCNR B scheme remains operational as the primary vehicle for foreign currency deposits by Non Resident Indians. Therefore statements I II and IV are true making D the correct answer.

Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?

The correct answer is D because of a unique historical provision in the Constitution Seventh Amendment Act of 1956. This amendment included a provision for the creation of a Legislative Council in Madhya Pradesh. However, for the council to actually be established, a notification by the President was required. Since no such notification has been issued by the President to date, Madhya Pradesh continues to have a unicameral legislature. In contrast, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Karnataka have functional and established Legislative Councils.

In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-president of the Executive Council was

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru. In 1946, the Interim Government of India was formed to assist the transition of power from British rule to independence. According to the structure of this government, the Viceroy of India served as the President of the Executive Council. Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as the Vice President of the Council, which effectively made him the head of the cabinet and in charge of external affairs and commonwealth relations. While other leaders like Rajendra Prasad and C. Rajagopalachari held important portfolios like Food and Agriculture and Education respectively, the specific post of Vice President was held by Nehru.

Which of the following are among the non-plan expenditures of the Government of India? I. Defence expenditure II. Subsidies III. All expenditures linked with the previous plan periods IV. Interest payment Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

The correct option is D because all four items listed were classified as non plan expenditures under the traditional accounting system of the Government of India. Non plan expenditure refers to the outlays that are not part of the specific projects or schemes outlined in the Five Year Plans. It primarily covers the maintenance and routine functioning of the government. First, defence expenditure is considered non plan because it relates to national security and administrative maintenance rather than developmental planning. Second, subsidies on food, fuel, and fertilizers are recurring administrative costs aimed at welfare and price stability. Third, expenditures linked with previous plan periods are classified as non plan because once a plan period ends, the ongoing maintenance of the assets created during that period becomes a liability on the regular budget. Finally, interest payments on internal and external loans are mandatory contractual obligations that do not fall under developmental plan projects. Note that while the distinction between plan and non plan expenditure was abolished starting from the 2017 to 2018 budget in favor of capital and revenue classification, this historical classification remains a standard topic in economic studies.

“Monoculture of commercially viable trees is destroying the unique natural profile of ...Thoughtless exploitation of timber, deforestation vast tracts for palm cultivation, destruction of mangroves, illegal logging by tribals and poaching only compound the problem. Fresh water pockets are fast drying up due to deforestation and destruction of mangroves.” The place referred to in this quotation is

The correct answer is A because the description specifically matches the ecological challenges faced by the Sundarbans. While other regions also face deforestation, the combination of mangrove destruction and the drying up of fresh water pockets is a defining crisis for the Sundarbans. The reference to monoculture and the exploitation of timber relates to the historical introduction of specific commercial species and the clearing of diverse natural vegetation for plantations. Additionally, the Sundarbans are unique for their complex mangrove ecosystem where fresh water sources are increasingly threatened by both environmental degradation and rising salinity, leading to the specific conditions mentioned in the quotation.

The Mughal School of Painting formed the spinal column of the various schools of Indian miniature art. Which one of the following painting styles was not affected by Mughal painting?

The correct answer is D because Kalighat painting was a folk art form that originated in the 19th century around the Kalighat Temple in Kolkata, West Bengal. Unlike the other styles mentioned, it was not influenced by the Mughal School. The Pahari, Rajasthani, and Kangra schools were all princely court arts that directly evolved or were heavily influenced by the Mughal style, adopting its techniques of fine detailing, royal themes, and Persian aesthetics. In contrast, Kalighat painting was a style developed by local artisans for the common people. It was characterized by bold outlines, vibrant colors, and brushwork that reflected daily life, social satire, and religious deities. Its evolution was influenced more by traditional rural scroll painting and contemporary British academic art rather than the refined Mughal miniature tradition.

Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India? I. Vijnanesvara II. Hemadri III. Rajasekhara IV. Jimutavahana Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

The correct answer is C because Vijnanesvara, Hemadri, and Jimutavahana were renowned legal authorities and jurists, while Rajasekhara was primarily a poet and dramatist. Vijnanesvara is famous for the Mitaksshara, a foundational legal commentary on the Yajnavalkya Smriti that governs inheritance in much of India. Hemadri was a great scholar and administrator who wrote the Chaturvarga Chintamani, an exhaustive encyclopedia on Hindu rituals and administrative law. Jimutavahana authored the Dayabhaga, a major legal treatise on inheritance and property rights that was traditionally followed in Bengal and Assam. Rajasekhara, though a prominent figure in medieval India, was a court poet and critic known for works like the Kavyamimamsa and Karpuramanjari, not a jurist. Therefore, statements I, II, and IV are correct.

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Increase in foreign exchange reserves Monetary expansion II. Low import growth rate in India Recession in Indian Industry III. Euro issues Shares held by Indian companies in European countries IV. Portfolio investment Foreign institutional investors Select the correct answer by using the following codes: Codes:

Explanation of why Option A is correct: Statement I is correct because when foreign exchange reserves increase, the central bank buys foreign currency and releases equivalent domestic currency into the economy, leading to monetary expansion. Statement II is correct because a significant portion of Indian imports consists of raw materials and capital goods. A low import growth rate often indicates sluggish manufacturing activity and low demand, which are signs of a recession in industry. Statement III is incorrect because Euro issues refer to securities like Global Depository Receipts issued by Indian companies in the international market to raise foreign capital. They are not shares held by Indian companies in European countries. Statement IV is correct because investments by Foreign Institutional Investors in the Indian stock market are a primary component of portfolio investment. Since statements I, II, and IV are correct, Option A is the right answer.

Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this? I. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term. II. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

The correct answer is D because neither statement is a valid deduction from the constitutional provisions regarding the Governor. Regarding statement I: While Article 156 mentions a five year term, it specifically states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. This means the President can remove a Governor at any time before the five year term expires. Regarding statement II: Article 156 also contains a provision stating that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office. This ensures there is no vacancy in the post, allowing a Governor to stay beyond five years. Therefore, since both statements are legally incorrect based on the provisions of Article 156, neither can be deduced.

Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the disease

The correct answer is C because coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was devastated by a fungal disease known as coffee leaf rust, caused by the fungus Hemileia vastatrix. In the late 19th century, specifically starting around 1869, this disease spread rapidly across the island. It destroyed the vast coffee plantations, forcing the British colonial economy to shift from coffee to tea production. This event is one of the most famous examples of a monoculture being wiped out by a single pathogen.

What is the annual growth rate aimed at in the Eighth FiveYear Plan?

The Eighth Five Year Plan, which spanned from 1992 to 1997, was launched following a period of economic instability and the introduction of liberalization policies in India. The Planning Commission set an average annual growth target of 5.6 percent for this period. Interestingly, the actual growth achieved during this plan was approximately 6.8 percent, significantly exceeding the initial target due to the positive impact of economic reforms. Therefore, the aimed growth rate was 5.6 percent.

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under

The Constitution of India classifies Fundamental Rights into six broad categories. The Right to Equality comprises Articles 14 to 18. Article 15 specifically prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Therefore, it falls directly under the classification of the Right to Equality. The other options represent different categories: the Right to Freedom of Religion covers Articles 25 to 28, the Right against Exploitation covers Articles 23 and 24, and Cultural and Educational Rights cover Articles 29 and 30. Since Article 15 deals with ensuring equal treatment and non-discrimination, Option D is the correct classification.

the Right to Freedom of Religion

the Cultural and Educational Rights

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Ernesto Zedillo II. Alberto Fujimori III. Julio Maria Sanguinetti IV. Fernando H. Cardoso ; List II A) Uruguay B) Brazil C) Mexico D) Bolivia E) Peru Codes:

To solve this question, you must match the names of the leaders in List I with their respective countries in List II. Ernesto Zedillo was the President of Mexico from 1994 to 2000. Alberto Fujimori served as the President of Peru from 1990 to 2000. Julio Maria Sanguinetti was the President of Uruguay for two terms, first from 1985 to 1990 and again from 1995 to 2000. Fernando Henrique Cardoso was the President of Brazil from 1995 to 2002. The correct matching is I-C Mexico, II-E Peru, III-A Uruguay, and IV-B Brazil. In the context of the options provided, Option A represents the correct identification for Julio Maria Sanguinetti and the corresponding set of matches. Bolivia is the extra country provided in List II that does not match any of the leaders listed.

Which one of the following is the largest mutual fund organisation in India?

The correct answer is D, Unit Trust of India. The Unit Trust of India was established in 1963 by an Act of Parliament and was the first mutual fund set up in India. For several decades, it held a monopoly in the Indian mutual fund industry. Even after the sector was opened to public and private players, it remained the largest organization in terms of historical significance and Assets Under Management for a long period. In the context of traditional UPSC questions and the historical evolution of the Indian financial market, UTI is identified as the pioneering and largest mutual fund entity. While current market rankings may fluctuate among firms like SBI Mutual Fund, UTI remains the standard answer regarding the foundational and largest historical organization in this sector.

According to the Mimamsa system of philosophy, liberation is possible by means of

The correct answer is D because the Mimamsa school of philosophy, specifically Purva Mimamsa, emphasizes the performance of Vedic rituals and duties as the ultimate path to liberation. According to this school, the universe is governed by the eternal law of Karma. Liberation is achieved not through philosophical knowledge or emotional devotion, but through the meticulous performance of Nitya and Naimittika Karmas, which are the daily and obligatory duties prescribed in the Vedas. By performing these duties without any desire for rewards and avoiding prohibited actions, an individual exhausts their accumulated merit and demerit, eventually leading to a state of liberation from the cycle of birth and death.

The lead character in the film The Bandit Queen has been played by

The correct answer is C. The lead character of Phoolan Devi in the 1994 biographical film Bandit Queen was played by actress Seema Biswas. The film was directed by Shekhar Kapur and is based on the life of the Indian dacoit and politician. Seema Biswas received critical acclaim and won the National Film Award for Best Actress for her portrayal of the titular role.

The Nobel Prize for deciphering the language of bees was awarded to

The correct answer is B because Karl von Frisch was an Austrian ethologist who received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1973. He shared the prize with Konrad Lorenz and Nikolaas Tinbergen for their discoveries concerning the organization and elicitation of individual and social behavior patterns. Von Frisch is specifically celebrated for his pioneering research on honeybees, where he successfully decoded their dance language, such as the waggle dance, which bees use to communicate the direction and distance of food sources to other members of the hive.

The palaeomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in the past, the Indian land mass has moved

The correct answer is A because of the theory of Continental Drift and Plate Tectonics. Approximately 200 million years ago, India was part of the supercontinent Gondwana, located in the Southern Hemisphere near Antarctica. Over millions of years, the Indian tectonic plate separated and moved in a northward direction across the equator. Palaeomagnetic studies analyze the alignment of iron minerals in ancient rocks, which act like fossil compasses. These studies confirm that the latitude of the Indian landmass has shifted from the far south to its current northern position, eventually colliding with the Eurasian plate to form the Himalayas.

The correct answer is D because Corporation Tax is a direct tax levied on the net income or profit of corporations. Under the Indian Constitution, it is listed in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule. Article 270 of the Constitution provides for the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States. However, according to the specific constitutional definitions and the historical framework of the Finance Commission, while the revenue is collected by the Union, it was traditionally considered a tax belonging exclusively to the Union. Even though modern Finance Commission recommendations include Corporation Tax in the divisible pool of taxes shared with states, in the context of standard UPSC terminology and constitutional classification, it is categorized as a tax levied by the Union that belongs to it, as opposed to taxes that are specifically assigned to states or mandated to be shared under different constitutional articles. Therefore, within the provided options, it is identified as a Union levy.

is levied and appropriated by the States

is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States

is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States

is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively

In which one of the following States of India it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a Muslim male to have more than one living wife?

The correct answer is Goa because of the Goa Civil Code, which is based on the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867. While India generally follows personal laws based on religion, Goa follows a common civil code. Under this code, polygamy is generally prohibited for all communities, including Muslims. However, a specific and rare exception exists for Hindu males under the Code of Gentile Hindus and Usages of Goa of 1880. A Hindu man is permitted a second marriage only under very strict conditions, such as the total absence of children by the first wife by age 25 or the absence of a male child by age 30. Because the Shariat Act of 1937 was never extended to Goa, Muslim men there are governed by the common code which enforces monogamy, making Goa the only state where this specific legal distinction exists.

Which of the following constitute the World Bank? I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development II. International Finance Corporation III. International Development Association IV. International Monetary Fund. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:

The World Bank Group consists of five closely associated institutions. However, the term World Bank specifically refers to only two of these: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA). In many contexts, including this question, the International Finance Corporation (IFC) is also grouped under the World Bank umbrella as it is a core part of the organization's development operations. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a separate organization. While both the World Bank and the IMF were created at the Bretton Woods Conference, they have different mandates. The IMF focuses on maintaining global monetary stability and providing short term loans for balance of payments issues, whereas the World Bank focuses on long term economic development and poverty reduction. Therefore, statement IV is incorrect, making option A the correct answer.

The radical wing of the Congress Party, with Jawaharlal Nehru as one of its main leaders, founded the ‘Independence for India League’ in opposition to

The Independence for India League was founded in 1928 by radical leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose. They were dissatisfied with the Nehru Report because it recommended Dominion Status for India instead of Purna Swaraj or complete independence. The League was specifically formed to protest the moderate stance of the Nehru Report and to pressure the Congress to adopt the goal of complete independence. The League was established in direct response to the Nehru Report of 1928.

Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State Governments by

The correct answer is D because the division of powers between the Union and the States is explicitly defined in the Constitution of India. Specifically, under the Seventh Schedule, List II (State List), Entry 46 grants State Governments the exclusive power to levy taxes on agricultural income. Unlike the Finance Commission, which recommends the distribution of existing tax proceeds, or the other bodies mentioned, the Constitution is the primary legal source that assigns this specific taxing authority to the States.

the National Development Council

Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period invariably show the deity with

The correct answer is C because the Chola style Nataraja is characterized by a specific four armed iconography representing the cosmic dance of Tandava. Each of the four hands holds a symbolic meaning: the upper right hand holds the damaru drum representing creation, the upper left hand holds the fire representing destruction, the lower right hand is in the abhaya mudra signifying protection, and the lower left hand points toward the raised foot representing liberation. While other forms of Shiva may have different numbers of hands, the classic Chola bronze Nataraja invariably features four.

The correct answer is C because Willy Willy is the local name given to tropical cyclones that occur in the coastal waters of North-West Australia. Just as these intense low pressure systems are called hurricanes in the Atlantic and typhoons in the Pacific, they are specifically referred to as Willy Willies in the Australian region. They typically develop over warm tropical waters and bring strong winds and heavy rainfall to the continent.

a type of tree grown in temperate regions

a tropical cyclone of the north-west Australia

a kind of common fish found near Lakshadweep islands

Which one of the following is not an instrument of selective credit control in India?

The correct answer is D because Variable cost reserve ratios such as Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio are instruments of Quantitative or General credit control. These measures affect the total volume of credit in the entire economy without discriminating between specific sectors. In contrast, options A, B, and C are Qualitative or Selective credit control instruments. These are used by the Reserve Bank of India to regulate the flow of credit to specific sectors or for specific purposes. Regulation of consumer credit controls installment buying, rationing of credit limits the maximum amount of loans available to certain sectors, and margin requirements determine the percentage of a loan that a borrower must finance with their own funds. Since variable reserve ratios apply to the overall money supply rather than specific sectors, it is not a selective credit control instrument.

The term Yavanapriya, mentioned in ancient Sanskrit texts, denoted

The term Yavanapriya is a Sanskrit word where Yavana refers to the Greeks or Romans and priya means dear or beloved. In ancient times, Indian black pepper was in such high demand in the Graeco Roman world that it was literally called dear to the Greeks. It was one of the most significant items of export from India to the Roman Empire, often traded for gold. This makes pepper the correct answer.

a fine variety of Indian muslin

damsels sent to the Greek court for dance performance

The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with

The Dinesh Goswami Committee was appointed in 1990 by the V.P. Singh government to study and suggest measures for electoral reforms in India. The committee recommended several key changes, including state funding of elections, checking the misuse of official machinery during polls, and the use of electronic voting machines. It focused on making the electoral process more transparent and reducing the influence of money and muscle power in politics. Therefore, it is directly associated with electoral reforms.

steps to put down insurgency in the North-east

Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is said to be one of the largest in the world?

The correct answer is D because Gol Gumbaz, located in Bijapur, Karnataka, houses the tomb of Muhammad Adil Shah and features one of the largest free standing domes in the world. It is celebrated for its immense scale and unique architectural design, particularly the circular gallery inside the dome known as the Whispering Gallery, where even the slightest sound can be heard across the vast space. While the other listed monuments are architecturally significant, their domes do not match the massive diameter and structural scale of Gol Gumbaz.

Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, Delhi

Which one of the following is true regarding the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)?

The correct answer is D because the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana JRY specifically mandated that 30 percent of the employment opportunities generated be reserved for women. Launched in April 1989 under the Prime Ministership of Rajiv Gandhi not Indira Gandhi the JRY resulted from the merger of the National Rural Employment Programme and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme. Its primary objective was to generate gainful employment for the unemployed and underemployed in rural areas not urban areas. Therefore options A B and C are incorrect while D accurately reflects one of the schemes key statutory requirements.

It was launched during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi

It aims at creating one million jobs annually

The target group of JRY are the urban poor living below the poverty line

Under the scheme 30% of the employment generated is reserved for women

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 1995 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 1995 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

Reviewed by Dalvoy

UPSC Civil Services preparation

Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 1995 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

132 / 132

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	A meteor is	geography	B	View
2	The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by	history	D	View
3	To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to	economy	A	View
4	Consider the table given below providing some details of the results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislative: Assembly held in De…	polity-and-governance	C	View
5	Who among the following was a Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of the Vedas?	history	A	View
6	The Alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is found only up to a height of 3000 metres, while in the eastern Himalayas it is found up to…	geography	C	View
7	According to the 1991 Census, the highest percentage of population in India is to be found in the age group of	geography	D	View
8	Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?	polity-and-governance	A	View
9	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists. List I (Eras) List II (I. Vikrama era A) 3…	history	D	View
10	The standard time of the following countries is ahead or behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are east or west of the longit…	geography	A	View
11	Which one of the following Five-Year Plans recognised human development as the core of all developmental efforts?	economy	D	View
12	Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in…	polity-and-governance	A	View
13	The original home of the gypsies was	history	C	View
14	Which one of the following is the continent with the highest mean elevation in the world?	geography	A	View
15	Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)? I. To stabilise agricultural prices. I…	economy	A	View
16	Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not les…	polity-and-governance	A	View
17	In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta Period women and sudras speak	history	B	View
18	The name by which Asoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is	history	D	View
19	Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?	polity-and-governance	D	View
20	The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are	art-and-culture	C	View
21	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists. List I List II I. European transcontinenta…	geography	A	View
22	As part of the liberalisation programme and with a view to attracting foreign exchange, the Government and the RBI have devised two schemes …	economy	D	View
23	Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, …	polity-and-governance	D	View
24	In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-president of the Executive Council was	history	A	View
25	Which of the following are among the non-plan expenditures of the Government of India? I. Defence expenditure II. Subsidies III. All expendi…	economy	D	View
26	“Monoculture of commercially viable trees is destroying the unique natural profile of ...Thoughtless exploitation of timber, deforestation v…	geography	A	View
27	The Mughal School of Painting formed the spinal column of the various schools of Indian miniature art. Which one of the following painting s…	art-and-culture	D	View
28	Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India? I. Vijnanesvara II. Hemadri III. Rajasekhara IV. Jimutavahana Choose the corr…	history	C	View
29	Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Increase in foreign exchange reserves Monetary expansion II. Low import growth rate i…	economy	A	View
30	Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enter…	polity-and-governance	D	View
31	Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the disease	geography	C	View
32	What is the annual growth rate aimed at in the Eighth FiveYear Plan?	economy	A	View
33	Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable und…	polity-and-governance	D	View
34	Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List I I. Ernesto Zedillo II. Alberto Fuji…	polity-and-governance	A	View
35	Which one of the following is the largest mutual fund organisation in India?	economy	D	View
36	According to the Mimamsa system of philosophy, liberation is possible by means of	art-and-culture	D	View
37	The lead character in the film The Bandit Queen has been played by	art-and-culture	C	View
38	The Nobel Prize for deciphering the language of bees was awarded to	science-and-technology	B	View
39	The palaeomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in the past, the Indian land mass has moved	geography	A	View
40	Corporation tax	economy	D	View
41	In which one of the following States of India it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a Muslim male to have more than one living wife?	polity-and-governance	C	View
42	Which of the following constitute the World Bank? I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development II. International Finance Corpora…	polity-and-governance	A	View
43	The radical wing of the Congress Party, with Jawaharlal Nehru as one of its main leaders, founded the ‘Independence for India League’ in opp…	history	C	View
44	Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State Governments by	polity-and-governance	D	View
45	Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period invariably show the deity with	art-and-culture	C	View
46	Willy Willy is	geography	C	View
47	Which one of the following is not an instrument of selective credit control in India?	economy	D	View
48	The term Yavanapriya, mentioned in ancient Sanskrit texts, denoted	history	D	View
49	The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with	polity-and-governance	B	View
50	Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is said to be one of the largest in the world?	art-and-culture	D	View
51	Which one of the following is true regarding the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)?	economy	D	View
52	Bank Rate implies the rate of interest	economy	D	View
53	Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?	polity-and-governance	C	View
54	Which one of the following was an emigree Communist Journal of M.N. Roy?	history	C	View
55	In which one of the following crops international trades is low in the context of total produce?	economy	A	View
56	The Narasimham Committee for Financial Sector Reforms has suggested reduction in	economy	B	View
57	Which of the following are the States in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?	polity-and-governance	B	View
58	Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers	history	D	View
59	The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge land mass called	geography	D	View
60	Which of the following are correctly matched? I. Hamas—Palestinian extremist group II. Sinn Fein—IRA’s political wing III. True Path Party—A…	polity-and-governance	C	View
61	Which one of the following does not belong to biosphere reserves set-up so far?	geography	D	View
62	The clouds float in the atmosphere because of their low	geography	D	View
63	Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one State in India?	geography	C	View
64	Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by	history	A	View
65	In the field of space technology, India has demonstrated during 1994, her capability to	science-and-technology	D	View
66	The ‘Modi script’ was employed in the documents of the	history	D	View
67	One of the reasons for India’s occupational structure remaining more or less the same over the years has been that	economy	A	View
68	Which one of the following countries had in 1994 voted against joining the European Union?	polity-and-governance	A	View
69	Which of the following benefits are likely to accrue to India from the World Trade Organisation? I. India’s share in the world trade is to g…	economy	D	View
70	Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 hit the planet	science-and-technology	C	View
71	The clouds float in the atmosphere because of their low density.	geography	D	View
72	Examine the following statements: I. All children are inquisitive. II. Some children are inquisitive. III. No children are inquisitive. IV. …	polity-and-governance	A	View
73	Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in	geography	B	View
74	The signatories to the treaty banning chemical weapons include	polity-and-governance	A	View
75	What is the correct sequence of the following events? I. The Lucknow Pact II. The Introduction of Dyarchy III. The Rowlatt Act IV. The Parti…	history	B	View
76	The national highway from Delhi to Calcutta via Mathura and Varanasi is numbered	geography	B	View
77	The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by	history	B	View
78	The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by	art-and-culture	C	View
79	Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?	polity-and-governance	A	View
80	The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorist of the freedom movement in	history	C	View
81	Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?	history	D	View
82	Examine the map of Jammu and Kashmir given below: The mountain ranges marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are respectively	geography	B	View
83	The largest source of financing the public sector outlay of the Eighth Five-Year Plan comes from	economy	C	View
84	The new Exim Policy announced in 1992, is for a period of	economy	D	View
85	Consider the following: I. Industrial Finance Corporation of India II. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India III. Industrial…	economy	A	View
86	In 1930 Mahatma Gandhi started Civil Disobedience Movement from	history	C	View
87	If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that	polity-and-governance	D	View
88	Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?	history	D	View
89	Which one of the following is a mixed fertilizer?	science-and-technology	D	View
90	Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bullet proof material?	science-and-technology	B	View
91	The chemical used as a ‘fixer’ in photography is	science-and-technology	B	View
92	The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcasts is	science-and-technology	B	View
93	Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma emitting isotope or not?	science-and-technology	C	View
94	The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is	science-and-technology	D	View
95	When the same note is played on a sitar and a flute, the sound produced can be distinguished from each other because of the difference in	science-and-technology	C	View
96	Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape. Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less tha…	science-and-technology	C	View
97	Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things gravitate to the earth?	history	D	View
98	Optical fibre works on the principle of	science-and-technology	A	View
99	Suppose a rocketship is receding from the earth at a speed of 2/10th the velocity of light. A light in the rocketship appears blue to the pa…	science-and-technology	C	View
100	Which one of the following pairs of materials serves as electrodes in chargeable batteries commonly used in devices such as torchlights, ele…	science-and-technology	A	View
101	Cryogenic engines find applications in	science-and-technology	C	View
102	An air bubble in water will act like a	science-and-technology	D	View
103	The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that	science-and-technology	B	View
104	Which one of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution?	geography	C	View
105	Zero was invented by	history	D	View
106	Which one of the following sets is correctly matched?	science-and-technology	C	View
107	A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the	science-and-technology	B	View
108	Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?	science-and-technology	A	View
109	Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy?	science-and-technology	D	View
110	Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because	geography	D	View
111	The only snake that builds a nest is	geography	B	View
112	Which of the following elements are present in all proteins? I. Carbon II. Hydrogen III. Oxygen IV. Nitrogen Select the correct answer from …	science-and-technology	D	View
113	Which one of the following hormones contains iodine?	science-and-technology	A	View
114	“By weaving threads of physics, chemistry and biology into a rich tapestry, this remarkable scientist provided a unifying molecular view of …	science-and-technology	B	View
115	‘The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970… areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war’s end, it seems plai…	—	D	View
116	“It begins as a single cell and grows into a merciless disease that claims millions of lives year after year. But scientists are steadily un…	science-and-technology	A	View
117	‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across borders is	science-and-technology	A	View
118	Consider the series given below: 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96... The next term of the series is	science-and-technology	B	View
119	In track meets both 100 yards and 100 metres are used as distances. By how many metres is 100 metres longer than 100 yards?	science-and-technology	B	View
120	Examine the following statements: I watch TV only if I am bored. I am never bored when I have my brother’s company. Whenever I go to the the…	polity-and-governance	D	View
121	Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo…	polity-and-governance	C	View
122	A person travelled from one place to another at an average speed of 40 kilometres/hour and back to the original place at an average speed of…	science-and-technology	C	View
123	The value of (a - m) (b - m) ... (y - m) (z - m) is	science-and-technology	C	View
124	A rectangular sump of dimensions 6 m x 5 m x 4 m is to be built by using bricks to make the outer dimension 6.2 m x 5.2 x 4.2 m. Approximate…	geography	C	View
125	A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 metres ahead of the policeman, then the tim…	science-and-technology	D	View
126	A student has 60% chance of passing in English and 54% chance of passing in both English and Mathematics. What is the percentage probability…	science-and-technology	D	View
127	A table has three drawers. It is known that one of the drawers contains two silver coins, another contains two gold coins and the third one …	science-and-technology	C	View
128	Consider the table given below providing details of traffic volume per hour for locations: \| Location \| Total traffic volume \| % of Heavy Ve…	geography	A	View
129	The price fluctuations of 4 scrips in a stock market in the four quarters of a year are shown in the table below. Four different investors h…	economy	B	View
130	Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of …	science-and-technology	B	View
131	Which of the following can be inferred from the statement that ‘Either John is stupid or John is lazy’? I. John is lazy / therefore, John is…	science-and-technology	B	View
132	A person earns Rs. 2000 per month over and above his salary as additional charge allowance. However, 30% of this additional income will be d…	economy	B	View

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

132

Questions

science-and-technology35 (27%)
geography23 (17%)
polity-and-governance23 (17%)
history22 (17%)
economy21 (16%)
art-and-culture7 (5%)
Others1 (1%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 1995 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 1995 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

How is the UPSC Prelims 1995 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 1995 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 1995 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 1995 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

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