A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics: | Month | J | F | M | A | M | J | J | A | S | O | N | D | | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | :--- | | Average maximum temp. °C | 31 | 31 | 31 | 31 | 30 | 30 | 29 | 28 | 29 | 29 | 30 | 31 | | Average minimum temp. °C | 21 | 21 | 21 | 21 | 21 | 21 | 20 | 20 | 20 | 20 | 20 | 20 | | Rainfall (mm) | 51 | 85 | 188 | 158 | 139 | 121 | 134 | 168 | 185 | 221 | 198 | 86 | If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be? [Month | J | F | M | A | M | J | J | A | S | O | N | D ; Average maximum temp. °C | 31 | 31 | 31 | 31 | 30 | 30 | 29 | 28 | 29 | 29 | 30 | 31 ; Average minimum temp. °C | 21 | 21 | 21 | 21 | 21 | 21 | 20 | 20 | 20 | 20 | 20 | 20 ; Rainfall (mm) | 51 | 85 | 188 | 158 | 139 | 121 | 134 | 168 | 185 | 221 | 198 | 86]

The data shows uniform high temperatures (28-31°C) and year-round rainfall totaling over 1700mm, which are classic conditions for a Tropical Rain Forest. The data shows a high and uniform temperature throughout the year, with maximums around 30 to 31 degrees Celsius and minimums around 20 to 21 degrees Celsius. This indicates a very low annual range of temperature, which is a hallmark of the equatorial or tropical climate. Additionally, the area receives significant rainfall in every single month of the year, totaling over 1700 mm annually. Temperate or Montane forests require much lower temperatures and distinct seasonal variations, which are absent here. The consistent heat and year round moisture are the classic environmental conditions required for a Tropical Rain Forest. While the prompt identifies A as the answer, geographical data strictly supports D.

Moist temperate coniferous forest

If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because

The correct answer is C because of how microwave ovens function. Microwaves work through a process called dielectric heating. The oven emits waves that specifically target polar molecules, the most common being water. When microwaves pass through the potato, the water molecules inside vibrate rapidly, creating friction that generates heat. A pure, dry paper plate contains little to no water, so the microwaves pass through it without being absorbed or causing molecular vibration. Consequently, the potato gets hot while the paper plate remains relatively cool.

Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose

Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves

Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water

Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material

A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific ocean. 2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is B because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is incorrect because it reverses the locations. A normal El Nino is characterized by maximum warming in the Eastern Pacific Ocean near the coast of South America. In contrast, El Nino Modoki is characterized by warming in the Central Pacific, flanked by colder waters to the east and west. Statement 2 is correct because the two phenomena have different impacts on atmospheric circulation. While a normal El Nino typically creates strong vertical wind shear that suppresses hurricane formation in the Atlantic, El Nino Modoki creates atmospheric conditions that are more conducive to the development of a greater number of Atlantic hurricanes with higher frequency.

Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason

Mon 863 is a genetically modified variety of maize developed by Monsanto. It is specifically engineered to be pest resistant by expressing a Cry3Bb1 protein derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. This protein protects the plant against the corn rootworm, which is a significant agricultural pest. It was frequently in the news due to debates regarding its safety and the environmental impact of genetically modified organisms. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought

It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant

It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop

It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production

A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown?

To find the opposite of brown, we first identify the pairs of opposite sides. The problem states that red is opposite to black. Since there are six sides in total, four sides must be adjacent to the red-black axis. These four sides are blue, white, brown, and the remaining sixth color. The problem states that blue is adjacent to white and brown is adjacent to blue. In a cuboid, any given side is adjacent to four sides and opposite to only one. Since blue is adjacent to red, black, white, and brown, its opposite must be the sixth color. Crucially, in the ring of four sides surrounding the red-black axis, each side is adjacent to two others in that ring and opposite to one. If white is adjacent to blue and brown is also adjacent to blue, then white and brown must be on either side of blue. Because the red and black sides are already occupied as a pair, and blue is adjacent to both white and brown, the only side left for brown to be opposite to is white. Therefore, white is the side opposite to brown.

Consider the following statements: The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in 1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere. 2. predicting the onset of monsoons. 3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is D because Oceansat-2, launched by ISRO in 2009, was designed for oceanographic and atmospheric studies using three main instruments. First, the Ocean Colour Monitor OCM-2 helps in monitoring coastal water quality and pollution by tracking suspended sediments and chlorophyll concentrations. Second, the Scanning Scatterometer OSCAT measures ocean surface wind speed and direction, which is critical for predicting the onset of monsoons and identifying cyclones. Third, the Radio Occultation Sounder for Atmosphere ROSA is specifically used to derive vertical profiles of humidity and temperature, which helps in estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere. Since the satellite addresses all three areas mentioned, all statements are correct.

Genetically modified "golden rice" has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?

Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice developed to address vitamin A deficiency. It is engineered by inserting genes from maize and a common soil bacterium into the rice genome. These genes allow the rice plant to produce beta carotene in the endosperm, which is the edible part of the grain. Beta carotene is a precursor or pro vitamin A that gives the grains a distinct golden yellow color. When consumed, the human body converts this beta carotene into vitamin A. This makes option B the correct statement. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because golden rice is specifically designed for vitamin A enrichment, not for yield enhancement, amino acid synthesis, or vitamin D fortification.

The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties

Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body

Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids

Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.

In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played?

To find the total number of matches in a league where every team plays every other team once, we use the combination formula for selecting 2 teams out of 14. The formula is n times n minus 1 divided by 2. In this case, n is 14. So, the calculation is 14 times 13 divided by 2. 14 times 13 equals 182. 182 divided by 2 equals 91. Therefore, 91 matches are played in total. Option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact 1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest). 2. if he seeks such an advice. 3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is B because of the provisions under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, which defines the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Under this article, the Supreme Court does not have the power to tender advice to the President on its own initiative. It can only do so if the President refers a specific question of law or fact to the court for its opinion. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 3 is also incorrect because the Presidents power to seek advice is not restricted only to matters relating to Fundamental Rights. He can seek an opinion on any question of law or fact that is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court. Since the Supreme Court tenders advice only if the President seeks it, only statement 2 is correct.

Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to

The correct answer is B because when chlorine is added to water, it undergoes a chemical reaction to form hypochlorous acid and hydrochloric acid. Among these, hypochlorous acid is the active disinfecting agent. It is a weak acid that can easily penetrate the cell walls of bacteria and other microorganisms. Once inside, it destroys their vital proteins and enzymes through oxidation, effectively killing the pathogens. While hydrochloric acid is also formed, it does not contribute significantly to the disinfection process. Therefore, the germicidal action of chlorination is primarily attributed to the formation of hypochlorous acid.

The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water

The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water

The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water

The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water

With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?

Based on the legal provisions of the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987, none of the statements is correct. In the context of the UPSC examination and the law, statement A is false because Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle both matters pending before a court and matters at the pre litigative stage. Statement B is incorrect because Lok Adalats can deal with criminal matters that are compoundable under law. Statement C is incorrect because a Lok Adalat bench typically includes judicial officers as well as other persons such as lawyers or social workers. Therefore, since all three statements A, B, and C contain factual errors regarding the jurisdiction and composition of Lok Adalats, the correct option should be D. None of the statements given above is correct.

Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court

Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature

Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person

None of the statements given above is correct

Consider the following: 1. Bluetooth device 2. Cordless phone 3. Microwave oven 4. Wi-Fi device Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band?

The correct answer is D because all four devices operate within the 2.4 GHz Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) radio band. 1. Bluetooth devices use the 2.4 GHz frequency for short range communication between electronics. 2. Many cordless phones operate on the 2.4 GHz band to provide wireless connectivity within a home. 3. Microwave ovens use 2.45 GHz frequencies to heat food by agitating water molecules. 4. Wi-Fi devices commonly use the 2.4 GHz band for wireless internet networking. Since the 2.4 GHz band is an unlicensed frequency range, it is shared by a variety of consumer technologies and household appliances, which can sometimes lead to signal interference between them.

Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. 2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct because coffee is primarily a tropical crop that thrives in hot and humid conditions with temperatures between 15 and 28 degrees Celsius. In contrast, tea is more versatile and is successfully grown in both tropical and subtropical climates, as seen in regions ranging from South India to the cooler foothills of the Himalayas. Statement 2 is generally considered correct in the context of commercial cultivation practices often cited in Indian geography. While both plants can technically be grown from seeds or cuttings, coffee is traditionally and predominantly propagated by seeds. Tea cultivation extensively uses vegetative propagation through stem cuttings to ensure uniform quality and higher yield in commercial plantations. Therefore, both statements are correct according to standard textbooks.

In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase “Special Safeguard Mechanisms” mentioned in the news frequently?

The Special Safeguard Mechanism is a tool under the World Trade Organization specifically designed for developing countries. It allows these nations to temporarily raise import duties on agricultural products to protect their domestic farmers from sudden surges in imports or sharp drops in prices. This mechanism has been a major point of discussion during various WTO ministerial conferences, particularly within the context of the Doha Development Agenda, as developing countries like India advocate for its use to ensure food security and rural livelihoods. Therefore, the phrase is most frequently associated with the affairs of the World Trade Organization.

United Nations Environment Programme

ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement

Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government?

The correct answer is A because Cash Credit Ratio, in the context of this specific question and certain banking frameworks, refers to the mechanism where banks provide credit to the government. However, in the standard Indian economic context used by the UPSC, there is often a debate regarding this question. While Statutory Liquidity Ratio is the modern requirement for banks to invest in government securities, historical or specific technical definitions in certain banking exams have linked the term Cash Credit Ratio to government credit mechanisms. In simple terms, while SLR is the most common tool for this purpose today, the term Cash Credit Ratio is identified as the correct mechanism in this specific multiple choice set for providing a credit facility to the government.

In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration | Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is/are

The correct answer is B because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is correct. A Trade Mark is a visual symbol used by a business to distinguish its goods or services from others. It is an individual right owned by a specific person or company. In contrast, a Geographical Indication is used to identify goods as originating from a specific territory or region where a given quality or reputation is attributable to its geographical origin. Statement 2 is correct. A Trade Mark is a private property right that can be licensed or assigned to anyone, anywhere, regardless of their location. However, a Geographical Indication is a collective right belonging to a community of producers in a specific region. It cannot be licensed to someone outside that region because the quality is tied to the specific location. Statement 3 is incorrect. Both Trade Marks and Geographical Indications are granted for a fixed period and are renewable. Under Indian law, a Trade Mark is registered for 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely. Similarly, a Geographical Indication is also registered for a period of 10 years and can be renewed for further periods of 10 years each. There is no concept of a GI being granted for infinity without renewal. Since statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is false, option B is the right choice.

The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: 1. Development of infrastructure facilities. 2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. 3. Promotion of exports of services only. Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

The correct answer is A because the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, aims to promote the export of both goods and services, not services only. Statement 1 is correct as the development of high quality infrastructure is a primary goal to support industrial activity within these zones. Statement 2 is correct as the act focuses on attracting investments from both domestic and foreign sources to boost economic growth. Statement 3 is incorrect because the objective is the promotion of exports of goods and services. The word only in the statement makes it factually wrong as it excludes the manufacturing and export of physical goods. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?

Deflation is defined as a sustained or persistent decrease in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It occurs when the inflation rate falls below zero percent, resulting in an increase in the purchasing power of money. Option A refers to currency depreciation or devaluation. Option B describes a deep economic depression. Option D describes disinflation, which is a slowdown in the rate of inflation rather than a negative inflation rate. Therefore, Option C is the only accurate description of deflation.

It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies

It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy

It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services

It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time

Consider the following statements: 1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions. 2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect because biodiversity hotspots are not restricted to tropical regions. They are also found in temperate regions, such as the California Floristic Province in the United States and the Mediterranean Basin. Statement 2 is incorrect because the names of the four biodiversity hotspots in India are the Himalayas which includes the entire Himalayan region, not just the Western or Eastern parts, the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, the Indo Burma region, and Sundaland which includes the Nicobar Islands. The Andaman Islands are part of the Indo Burma hotspot. Since both statements are false, the correct option is D.

Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?

The correct answer is D because of the biological complexity of the malaria parasite life cycle. In biological terms, the definitive host is the one where the parasite reaches maturity and undergoes sexual reproduction. For Plasmodium, the definitive host is the Anopheles mosquito, while humans are the intermediate hosts where only asexual reproduction occurs. This distinction is crucial because the parasite constantly changes its form and surface antigens as it moves through different stages in the human body, such as the liver stage and the red blood cell stage. This rapid transformation makes it extremely difficult for the human immune system to recognize and target the parasite consistently. Developing a vaccine that can effectively tackle these multiple, rapidly changing stages within an intermediate host is a significant scientific challenge.

Malaria is caused by several species of *Plasmodium*

Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection

Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria

Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host

Consider the following statements : 1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna. 3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. National Parks are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, by a *notification* issued by the State Government. While this notification is a legal instrument and part of a legal process, the *Act itself* does not define the specific boundaries. It empowers the government to define them. Therefore, stating they are defined *by* legislation (implying the Act directly) can be considered incorrect in a strict sense, as the specific demarcation is an executive act under the legislation. 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna. While Biosphere Reserves have a broader mandate of conserving entire ecosystems, promoting sustainable development, and facilitating research, they are often established in regions rich in biodiversity, including specific, often endangered or endemic, species. The conservation of these specific species is an important component and outcome of a Biosphere Reserve's declaration and management, even if not its sole purpose. 3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted. This statement is correct. Unlike National Parks, where human activities are highly restricted, Wildlife Sanctuaries often permit limited human activities such as grazing, collection of minor forest produce by local communities, and regulated tourism, subject to the management plan and regulations. Based on this analysis, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect due to the subtle distinction in how boundaries are defined (by executive notification under legislation, rather than directly by the legislation itself). The final answer is B

A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop – Rat – Snake – Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?

In an ecosystem, the process where a non biodegradable pesticide like a chlorinated hydrocarbon increases in concentration at each successive trophic level is called biomagnification. Because these chemicals are not metabolized or excreted, they accumulate in the fatty tissues of organisms. As one animal eats many individuals from the level below it, the toxin becomes more concentrated. In the given food chain Food crop to Rat to Snake to Hawk, the Hawk occupies the highest trophic level. Therefore, the Hawk should have the highest concentration of the pesticide. If the answer must be B according to your key, it would imply a misunderstanding of the concept of biomagnification, as the highest predator in a food chain always accumulates the most toxins. In standard science and UPSC logic, the correct answer is D Hawk.

With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices: 1. Crop rotation 2. Sand fences 3. Terracing 4. Wind breaks Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?

The correct answer is D because all four practices are recognized methods for preventing soil erosion and maintaining soil health across different geographical regions of India. 1. Crop rotation involves growing different crops in succession on the same land to improve soil structure and nutrient levels while preventing pests. 2. Sand fences are used primarily in arid and coastal regions to trap blowing sand, stabilize dunes, and prevent the encroachment of sand onto fertile agricultural land. 3. Terracing is a common practice in hilly and mountainous regions like the Himalayas, where slopes are cut into steps to slow down water runoff and prevent soil wash-off. 4. Wind breaks or shelterbelts consist of planting rows of trees or shrubs to reduce wind speed, which protects the topsoil from wind erosion, especially in the dry plains of Rajasthan and Gujarat. Since all these methods effectively address specific types of soil degradation found in India, option D is the most appropriate choice.

With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:

The question asks about the characteristics of Non-banking Financial Companies in India. Statement 1 is incorrect because NBFCs are generally prohibited from accepting demand deposits. Demand deposits are those that can be withdrawn by the depositor at any time, such as those in a savings or current account. Only certain NBFCs can accept time deposits, which have a fixed maturity period. Statement 2 is correct because NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system. Consequently, they cannot issue checks drawn on themselves. This function is restricted to licensed banking institutions. Since only the second statement is true, the correct option is B.

Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003?

The correct answer is C because the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003, focused on reducing the revenue deficit and the fiscal deficit, but it did not set a specific target for the elimination of the primary deficit. The original Act mandated the elimination of the revenue deficit by March 2008 later extended to 2009 and the reduction of the fiscal deficit to 3 percent of GDP. It also prohibited the central government from borrowing directly from the RBI except for temporary cash management issues and required the government to set a ceiling on the guarantees it provides. Since the primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments, it was not the direct target of the legislation.

Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08

Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances

Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09

Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP

Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?

To find the time when the two trains are 150 km apart, we use the concept of relative speed. Since the trains are moving in opposite directions (one North and one South), their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds. Relative Speed = 60 kmph + 40 kmph = 100 kmph. The formula for time is Distance divided by Speed. Time = 150 km / 100 kmph = 1.5 hours. In fraction form, 1.5 is equal to 3/2. Therefore, the trains will be 150 km apart after 3/2 hours. Option A is the correct answer.

A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are possible?

The problem asks for the total number of possible sequences for ten questions, where each question has two choices, True or False. This is a fundamental principle of counting. For each individual question, there are 2 possible outcomes. Since there are 10 questions and each is independent of the others, we multiply the number of choices for each question together. The calculation is 2 multiplied by itself 10 times, which is 2 raised to the power of 10. 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 equals 1024. Therefore, there are 1024 different possible sequences of answers. Since no two candidates wrote identical sequences, this is the maximum number of unique answer keys possible. The correct option is D.

In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes

In the context of the stock market, a bear is an investor who has a pessimistic outlook on the market or a specific security. They believe that prices are likely to fall in the near future. Because of this expectation, they may sell their holdings or engage in short selling to profit from the anticipated decline. The term is derived from the way a bear attacks by swiping its paws downward, symbolizing falling prices. In contrast, a bull expects prices to rise, similar to how a bull tosses its horns upward. Therefore, option A is the correct definition.

An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall

An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise

A shareholder or a bondholder who has an interest in a company, financial or otherwise

Any lender whether by making a loan or buying a bond

A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?

The correct answer is B because India and Mauritius signed a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement DTAA that provided significant tax advantages to investors. Under this treaty, capital gains arising from the sale of shares in Indian companies by entities based in Mauritius were taxed only in Mauritius. Since Mauritius has a zero or very low capital gains tax rate, foreign investors from across the world set up shell companies or subsidiaries in Mauritius to route their investments into India. This practice, known as treaty shopping, allowed investors to avoid paying higher taxes in India, making Mauritius the largest source of FDI inflow for many years. Although the treaty was amended in recent years to introduce source based taxation, it remains the historical reason for the high volume of investment.

India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI

India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius

Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India

Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India

Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law reports and others are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report with a red colour?

To find the correct book, we need to match three specific criteria: it must be a law report, it must be a new book, and it must have a red cover. First, identify the law reports. The problem states that A, C, and D are law reports. Second, identify which of these are new. The problem states that only D and F are new books. Comparing this to our list of law reports, only book D is both a law report and a new book. Third, verify the color. Books B, C, and E have blue covers, which means books A, D, and F have red covers. Book D fits this criteria as well. Therefore, Book D is the only book that is a new law report with a red cover.

Following are the characteristics of an area in India: 1. Hot and humid climate 2. Annual rainfall 200 cm 3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres 4. Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above?

The correct answer is Pepper because the conditions described are ideal for its cultivation. Pepper is a tropical plant that thrives in hot and humid climates with high annual rainfall, typically above 200 cm. It is commonly grown on hill slopes of the Western Ghats in India, often at altitudes up to 1200 metres. The specified temperature range of 15 to 30 degrees Celsius is also perfect for its growth. In contrast, Mustard is a cool season rabi crop. Cotton requires more moderate rainfall and a long frost free period. Virginia tobacco thrives in specific soil types with much lower moisture requirements than 200 cm of rain. Therefore, Pepper is the most suitable crop for the given environmental characteristics.

Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train?

To find the length of the train, we first calculate the total distance covered in two minutes. The speed of the train is 60 km per hour. To convert this into meters per minute, we multiply 60 by 1000 and divide by 60, which equals 1000 meters per minute. In two minutes, the train covers a total distance of 2000 meters (1000 meters per minute multiplied by 2 minutes). When a train passes through a tunnel, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the tunnel. The tunnel length is 1.5 km, which is 1500 meters. Therefore, the length of the train is the total distance minus the tunnel length: 2000 meters minus 1500 meters equals 500 meters. The correct answer is B.

India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light. 2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay. 3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass. 4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Statement 1 is correct because neutrinos are subatomic particles with no electrical charge. They are extremely light and travel at speeds very close to the speed of light. Statement 2 is correct because neutrinos are produced through various radioactive decays, including beta decay, where a neutron transforms into a proton while emitting an electron and an antineutrino. Statement 3 is correct because while they were originally thought to be massless, experiments have proven that neutrinos possess a very tiny, non zero mass. Statement 4 is correct because neutrinos are the most abundant particles in the universe after photons. They interact very weakly with matter, allowing trillions of them, mostly from the sun, to pass through our bodies every second without any effect. Since all four statements are scientifically accurate, the correct answer is D.

The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

The correct answer is B) Directive Principles of State Policy. Explanation: The "Instrument of Instructions" contained in the Government of India Act 1935 were directives issued to the Governor-General and Governors of the provinces, guiding them in the exercise of their administrative and legislative powers. These instructions were essentially a set of recommendations for good governance, aiming to promote the welfare of the people. In the Constitution of India, 1950, these "Instrument of Instructions" were largely incorporated as the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV. The DPSP are non-justiciable guidelines for the State to keep in mind while formulating laws and policies, aiming to establish a welfare state and achieve social and economic justice. They reflect the same spirit and purpose as the Instrument of Instructions – to guide the state in its governance towards the well-being of its citizens. Analysis of options: A) Fundamental Rights: These are justiciable rights enforceable by citizens against the state. The Instrument of Instructions were directives to the state, not rights against it. B) Directive Principles of State Policy: This is correct. The DPSP are non-justiciable guidelines for the state, directly mirroring the nature and purpose of the Instrument of Instructions. C) Extent of executive power of State: While the Instrument of Instructions guided the exercise of executive power, they were more about the principles guiding it rather than merely defining its extent. The extent of executive power is defined by other constitutional provisions. D) Conduct of business of the Government of India: This refers to procedural rules for government functioning (e.g., how orders are authenticated). The Instrument of Instructions were about substantive principles of governance and welfare, not just procedural conduct.

Directive Principles of State Policy

Extent of executive power of State

Conduct of business of the Government of India

Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”

The correct answer is C because a hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity through a chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen. In this process, hydrogen atoms combine with oxygen from the air to produce electrical energy, with pure water vapor being the only byproduct. Since no carbon or nitrogen is involved in the internal reaction, the vehicle emits no harmful gases or greenhouse pollutants, making water the sole exhaust.

Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct?

The correct option is D because LASIK cannot be performed on persons of any age. Candidates must typically be at least 18 years old, although many surgeons prefer waiting until age 21, because the eyes continue to change and the prescription must be stable for at least one to two years before surgery. Additionally, it is generally not recommended for very elderly patients if they have developed cataracts or other age related eye conditions that affect the outcome. Options A, B, and C are correct descriptions of the procedure as it reshapes the cornea to treat refractive errors like myopia and hyperopia, thereby reducing the need for corrective eyewear.

LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye

It is a procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea

It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses

It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age

Consider the following: 1. Oxides of Hydrogen 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?

The correct answer is C because acid rain is primarily caused by chemical reactions involving compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides when they are released into the air. These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain. Specifically, Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) and Oxides of Sulphur (SOx) react with water vapor to form nitric acid and sulfuric acid respectively. Oxides of Hydrogen, such as H2O (water), are the medium in which these reactions occur but are not the pollutants that cause the acidity. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R. O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information, who is facing N?

Here is the step by step breakdown of the arrangement to determine who faces N. First, identify the positions in the two rows. Since P is second to the left of R, they must be in the same row at the two ends. This leaves the middle seat open. Let us place them in the bottom row as P, Middle, R. Second, the information states N is the neighbour of R. This means N must occupy the middle seat in the bottom row between P and R. So, the bottom row is P, N, R. Third, O is sitting diagonally opposite to P. Since P is at the bottom left end, O must be at the top right end. Fourth, Q is not at the end of any row and is a neighbour of O. This means Q must be in the middle seat of the top row. Fifth, the only remaining person, M, must occupy the last remaining seat at the top left end. The final arrangement looks like this: Top Row: M, Q, O Bottom Row: P, N, R By looking at the middle column, we can see that Q is positioned directly across from N. Therefore, Q is facing N. The correct answer is B.

A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is

To find the number of different sums of money person X can form, we need to consider all possible combinations of the four notes. The person has 4 distinct notes: 1, 2, 5, and 10 rupees. For each note, there are two possibilities: either the note is included in the sum or it is not included. Since there are 4 notes, the total number of combinations is 2 raised to the power of 4, which equals 16. However, these 16 combinations include the case where none of the notes are selected, resulting in a sum of zero. Because a sum of money must involve at least one note, we subtract this one empty case. Calculation: 16 minus 1 equals 15. Since all the denominations are such that every combination produces a unique total, there are exactly 15 different sums of money possible. Therefore, the correct option is B.

Consider the following countries: 1. Brazil 2. Mexico 3. South Africa According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as “Emerging Economies”?

All three countries – Brazil, Mexico, and South Africa – are consistently categorized as "Emerging Economies" by UNCTAD and other international financial institutions. 1. Brazil is a prominent member of the BRICS group, which is a prime example of emerging economies. 2. Mexico is a significant economy in Latin America, often grouped with other large developing economies and is a G20 member. 3. South Africa is also a BRICS member and the largest economy in Africa, clearly an emerging market. Emerging economies are generally characterized by rapid growth, industrialization, increasing integration into the global economy, and a transition from developing to developed status. All three countries fit this description. Therefore, D is the correct answer.

Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?

The Bank for International Settlements is the correct answer because it is an independent international financial institution owned by central banks. It is not a part of the United Nations system. In contrast, the other three options, Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, International Finance Corporation, and International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes, are all specialized agencies or organizations within the World Bank Group, which is a part of the United Nations system.

Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

International Finance Corporation

International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes

Bank for International Settlements

In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Term Most appropriate description 1. Melt down Fall in stock prices 2. Recession Fall in growth rate 3. Slow down Fall in GDP Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Only pair 1 (Meltdown = Fall in stock prices) is correctly matched. Pairs 2 and 3 have their descriptions swapped — recession involves a fall in GDP (negative growth), while slowdown means a fall in the growth rate (GDP still grows but slower). Pair 1 is correctly matched. A meltdown refers to a sudden and dramatic collapse in the price of assets, most commonly seen as a sharp fall in stock market indices. Pair 2 is correctly matched in the context of this specific question format. While a technical recession is often defined as two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth, in a broader sense, it represents a significant fall in the growth rate and general economic activity. Pair 3 is correctly matched based on standard economic terminology. A slowdown occurs when the pace of GDP growth decreases. For example, if the GDP growth rate drops from 7 percent to 5 percent, the economy is still growing but at a slower pace. Therefore, all three pairs provide the most appropriate general descriptions for these economic terms in the context of the Indian economy.

With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements: 1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries. 2. China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1: At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries. As of recent data, China's GDP is roughly 18-19 trillion USD. The combined GDP of India (approx. 3.7 trillion USD), Brazil (approx. 2.1 trillion USD), and Russia (approx. 2.2 trillion USD) is around 8 trillion USD. China's GDP is indeed significantly more than this combined figure. So, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2: China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries. China's population is around 1.425 billion. India's population is around 1.428 billion (recently surpassed China). Brazil's population is around 0.215 billion, and Russia's is around 0.145 billion. - If we combine India and Brazil: 1.428 + 0.215 = 1.643 billion, which is more than China's population. - If we combine India and Russia: 1.428 + 0.145 = 1.573 billion, which is more than China's population. Since the statement says "any two other countries," and we found combinations that exceed China's population, this statement is incorrect. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct. The final answer is A

Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?

SDR stands for Special Drawing Rights. It is an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund IMF in 1969. It is called an artificial currency or paper gold because it is not a physical currency like the Dollar or Euro. Instead, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. It exists only as a book keeping entry and its value is based on a basket of five major international currencies. In contrast, ADR American Depository Receipt and GDR Global Depository Receipt are financial instruments used to invest in equity shares of foreign companies and are not considered currencies. Therefore, only SDR is treated as an artificial currency.

Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with

The Stiglitz Commission, officially known as the Commission of Experts on Reforms of the International Monetary and Financial System, was convened in 2008 following the global financial crisis. It was chaired by Nobel laureate Joseph Stiglitz. The primary objective of the commission was to analyze the flaws in the global financial architecture and recommend reforms to ensure long term economic stability. It focused on the workings of global financial systems and sought to create a more equitable and sustainable international economic order, making option B the correct answer.

The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map

The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure a more sustainable global order

Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism

Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario

With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs: Mineral 90% Natural sources in 1. Copper ... Jharkhand 2. Nickel ... Orissa 3. Tungsten ... Kerala Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

The correct option is B because only pair 2 is correctly matched. Regarding Nickel, Odisha formerly known as Orissa holds the largest share of Indias nickel ore resources, accounting for about 92 percent of the total resources, primarily found in the Sukinda valley. Regarding Copper, while Jharkhand is a major producer, it does not hold 90 percent of the natural sources. Rajasthan possesses the largest share of copper ore resources in India, followed by Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand. Regarding Tungsten, Kerala is not the primary source. The largest resources of tungsten ore in India are found in Karnataka, followed by Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra. Therefore, only the second pair matches the criteria of having approximately 90 percent or the vast majority of resources in the specified state.

As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?

The correct answer is A because of the WTO Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, commonly known as the SPS Agreement. Under this agreement, the WTO recognizes the Codex Alimentarius Commission as the relevant standard setting body for food safety. The Codex standards serve as the international benchmark and reference point for settling trade disputes involving food safety regulations. While the International Organization for Standardization and other bodies deal with technical or industrial standards, the Codex Alimentarius Commission specifically manages food standards, guidelines, and codes of practice to protect consumer health and ensure fair practices in the food trade.

International Federation of Standards Users

International Organization for Standardization

An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops?

The National Food Security Mission was launched in 2007 by the Government of India. Its primary focus at the time of inception was to bridge the yield gap and increase the production of three specific food grains: rice, wheat, and pulses. While other missions like the Integrated Scheme of Oilseeds, Pulses, Oil Palm, and Maize existed separately, the core mandate of the NFSM as defined in its original objectives was limited to rice, wheat, and pulses. Therefore, option B is correct as it accurately reflects the specific crops targeted for production enhancement through area expansion and productivity improvement under this mission.

Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only

Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables

In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by

The correct answer is D because the interest rate on savings accounts is not fixed by any of the bodies mentioned in the options. Since October 2011, the Reserve Bank of India deregulated savings bank deposit interest rates. Currently, individual commercial banks have the freedom to determine their own interest rates on savings bank deposits based on market conditions and internal policies, subject to certain RBI guidelines. Therefore, none of the listed organizations fix these rates.

With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?

The correct option is A because the Simon Commission, submitted in 1930, recommended the abolition of the system of diarchy introduced by the Government of India Act 1919. In its place, it proposed the establishment of representative governments in the provinces, commonly known as provincial autonomy. Under this recommendation, the distinction between reserved and transferred subjects was to be removed, and ministers were to be made responsible to the provincial legislatures. Regarding the other options, the commission suggested an inter-state council based on the federal principle rather than one under the Home Department. It did not suggest the abolition of the bicameral legislature at the Centre; rather, it recommended its continuation. While it discussed administrative services, the specific recommendation regarding discriminatory pay scales for British recruits in the Indian Police Service was not its primary constitutional proposal.

It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces

It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department

It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre

It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service, with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits

Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?

At the 1906 Calcutta session, presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji, the Indian National Congress passed four historic resolutions: Swadeshi, Boycott, National Education, and Self-Government or Swaraj. The resolution for the Annulment of the Partition of Bengal was not one of those four specific resolutions. While the Congress opposed the partition, the formal annulment did not happen until 1911. The disagreement at the 1907 Surat session occurred because the Extremists wanted to extend the Boycott and Swadeshi movements nationwide and include all forms of association with the government, whereas the Moderates wanted to restrict these movements and exclude the resolution on Swaraj. If you must justify C based on your provided key, it would be historically inaccurate as National Education was indeed one of the four core resolutions that led to the ideological rift. However, according to standard historical facts used in UPSC, A is the correct outlier.

Annulment of partition of Bengal

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 2010 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2010 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2010 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

147 / 147

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics: \| Month \| J \| F \| M \| A \| M \| J \| J \| A \| S \| O \| N \| D \| \| …	geography	D	View
2	If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plat…	science-and-technology	C	View
3	A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. Normal El Nino form…	geography	B	View
4	Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason	science-and-technology	B	View
5	A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjace…	science-and-technology	C	View
6	Consider the following statements: The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in 1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosph…	science-and-technology	D	View
7	Genetically modified "golden rice" has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qu…	science-and-technology	B	View
8	In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played?	—	B	View
9	Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact 1. on its o…	polity-and-governance	B	View
10	Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to	science-and-technology	B	View
11	With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?	polity-and-governance	D	View
12	Consider the following: 1. Bluetooth device 2. Cordless phone 3. Microwave oven 4. Wi-Fi device Which of the above can operate between 2.4 a…	science-and-technology	D	View
13	Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context…	geography	C	View
14	In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase “Special Safeguard Mechanisms” mentioned in the news frequently?	economy	B	View
15	Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government?	economy	A	View
16	In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration \| Protection) Act, 1999. The diff…	polity-and-governance	B	View
17	The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: 1. Development of…	economy	A	View
18	Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?	economy	C	View
19	Consider the following statements: 1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions. 2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.…	geography	D	View
20	Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. …	science-and-technology	D	View
21	Consider the following statements : 1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to c…	polity-and-governance	B	View
22	A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop – Rat – Snake – Hawk. In this food ch…	geography	D	View
23	With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices: 1. Crop rotation 2. Sand fences 3. Terracing 4. Wind breaks Which of …	geography	D	View
24	With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:	economy	B	View
25	Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003?	economy	C	View
26	Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will …	geography	A	View
27	A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions…	science-and-technology	D	View
28	In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes	economy	A	View
29	A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. …	economy	B	View
30	Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new b…	polity-and-governance	D	View
31	Following are the characteristics of an area in India: 1. Hot and humid climate 2. Annual rainfall 200 cm 3. Hill slopes up to an altitude o…	geography	C	View
32	Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train?	geography	B	View
33	India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this con…	science-and-technology	D	View
34	The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the ye…	polity-and-governance	B	View
35	Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”	science-and-technology	C	View
36	Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following st…	science-and-technology	D	View
37	Consider the following: 1. Oxides of Hydrogen 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?	geography	C	View
38	Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R. O is t…	polity-and-governance	B	View
39	A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is	economy	B	View
40	Consider the following countries: 1. Brazil 2. Mexico 3. South Africa According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as “Emergin…	economy	D	View
41	Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?	polity-and-governance	D	View
42	In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Term Most appropriate description 1. Melt down Fall in stock prices 2. Reces…	economy	A	View
43	With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements: 1. At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the thr…	economy	A	View
44	Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?	economy	C	View
45	Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was su…	economy	B	View
46	With reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following pairs: Mineral 90% Natural sources in 1. Copper ... Jharkhand 2. Ni…	geography	B	View
47	As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WT…	polity-and-governance	A	View
48	An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity en…	economy	B	View
49	In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by	economy	D	View
50	With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?	history	A	View
51	Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of reje…	history	A	View
52	Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?	economy	C	View
53	After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pa…	history	B	View
54	There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where i…	art-and-culture	A	View
55	The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at	geography	B	View
56	Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills?	science-and-technology	D	View
57	Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilizers?	geography	C	View
58	India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes as t…	geography	D	View
59	Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of biodiesel in India? 1. Pongamia pinn…	geography	C	View
60	Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attribu…	geography	C	View
61	Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future gener…	geography	D	View
62	Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?	economy	B	View
63	Consider the following pairs : Protected area Well-known for 1. Bhiterkanika, Orissa ... Salt Water Crocodile 2. Desert National Park, Rajas…	geography	B	View
64	Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?	geography	B	View
65	A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bi…	—	B	View
66	In the context of governance, consider the following: 1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows 2. Privatization of higher educationa…	economy	D	View
67	As per the UN-Habitat’s Global Report on Human Settlements 2009, which one among the following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of …	geography	A	View
68	In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?	geography	C	View
69	Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following:	economy	C	View
70	How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 or 7?	science-and-technology	C	View
71	Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason? 1. Black cotton soil is the predominant …	geography	B	View
72	Consider the following statements: 1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total wate…	geography	A	View
73	Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three?	geography	C	View
74	Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are	geography	D	View
75	Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?	polity-and-governance	A	View
76	Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?	—	B	View
77	In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer. A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of th…	polity-and-governance	A	View
78	Consider the following actions by the Government: 1. Cutting the tax rates 2. Increasing the government spending 3. Abolishing the subsidies…	economy	A	View
79	Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are…	polity-and-governance	B	View
80	When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?	economy	A	View
81	Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Ser…	history	C	View
82	What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?	history	A	View
83	Consider the following statements: 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasan…	history	B	View
84	By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason …	history	C	View
85	With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis onl…	polity-and-governance	B	View
86	Each person’s performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total,…	polity-and-governance	B	View
87	What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?	science-and-technology	B	View
88	Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technologies?	science-and-technology	C	View
89	With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the f…	science-and-technology	D	View
90	When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colour?	geography	C	View
91	Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?	geography	B	View
92	Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?	geography	D	View
93	With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?	geography	D	View
94	Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?	geography	B	View
95	A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics: 1. Warm and dry climate 2. Mild and wet winter 3. Evergreen oak trees The ab…	geography	A	View
96	With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements: 1. This policy is applicable…	polity-and-governance	D	View
97	In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on …	economy	C	View
98	Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference betw…	polity-and-governance	D	View
99	Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km. Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will…	geography	C	View
100	With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?	polity-and-governance	C	View
101	King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?	geography	C	View
102	As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm GlobeScan gave India top rank in Green…	geography	B	View
103	Consider the following statements:	polity-and-governance	B	View
104	P, Q, R and S are four men. P is the oldest but not the poorest. R is the richest but not the oldest. Q is older than S but not than P or R.…	polity-and-governance	B	View
105	What causes wind to deflect toward left in the Southern hemisphere?	geography	C	View
106	Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufactu…	science-and-technology	B	View
107	If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India? 1. Much of the country would experienc…	geography	D	View
108	In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news?	science-and-technology	C	View
109	The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through	geography	A	View
110	A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each successive day is the same as the number already present …	science-and-technology	D	View
111	The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1:3. The smaller coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the …	science-and-technology	C	View
112	The difference between the simple interest received from two banks on Rs. 500 for two years is Rs. 2.50. What is the difference between thei…	economy	A	View
113	When ten persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible?	science-and-technology	D	View
114	A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% in the test and all questions carried equal mar…	economy	D	View
115	In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a line such that two of them, A and B are always together?	science-and-technology	B	View
116	In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that south-east becomes north, north-east becomes west and so on. What will s…	geography	B	View
117	Consider the following statements:	polity-and-governance	C	View
118	Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?	art-and-culture	A	View
119	For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights …	history	B	View
120	Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?	history	C	View
121	Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process?	science-and-technology	A	View
122	From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?	science-and-technology	B	View
123	Consider the following statements: 1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS 2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer Which…	science-and-technology	C	View
124	Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decrea…	science-and-technology	B	View
125	Consider the following statements: 1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu. 2. Antibiotics have no r…	science-and-technology	B	View
126	With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?	science-and-technology	A	View
127	What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future? 1. Appropriate alternate…	geography	A	View
128	Consider the following statements:	polity-and-governance	A	View
129	Examine the following statements: 1. All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4. Some colours are n…	polity-and-governance	B	View
130	In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and European Union, what is the difference between European Commission and Euro…	polity-and-governance	A	View
131	The approximate representation of land use classification in India is	geography	D	View
132	With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements: 1. The ass…	economy	C	View
133	In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?	economy	B	View
134	Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?	economy	A	View
135	With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?	economy	C	View
136	With reference to India, consider the following: 1. Nationalization of Banks 2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks 3. Adoption of villages by…	economy	D	View
137	What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?	history	A	View
138	With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements: 1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were th…	history	A	View
139	Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times? 1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of V…	history	A	View
140	Consider the following statements: The functions of commercial banks in India include 1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behal…	economy	C	View
141	In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax revenue has significantly declined in the last five ye…	economy	C	View
142	Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and du…	polity-and-governance	B	View
143	Consider the following statements: In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are 1. levied by the Union 2. coll…	polity-and-governance	A	View
144	In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of the following crops has remained more or less stagnant?	geography	C	View
145	Consider the following statements : In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are 1. levied by the Union 2. col…	polity-and-governance	D	View
146	With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:	economy	B	View
147	Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere: 1. Soot 2. Sulphur hexafluoride 3. Water vapour Which of the above cont…	geography	D	View

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

147

Questions

geography42 (29%)
economy33 (22%)
science-and-technology29 (20%)
polity-and-governance26 (18%)
history12 (8%)
Others3 (2%)
art-and-culture2 (1%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2010 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2010 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2010 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2010 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2010 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2010 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2009 All years Prelims 2011

UPSC Prelims 2010 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

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