In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Under the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA): Statement 1 is correct. The Gram Sabha has the power to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute resolution. It can prevent alienation of land in Scheduled Areas. Statement 2 is correct. The Gram Sabha is competent to safeguard ownership of minor forest produce. Statement 3 is correct. The recommendation of the Gram Sabha or Panchayat at the appropriate level is mandatory before granting prospecting licenses or mining leases for minor minerals in Scheduled Areas. All three statements are correct.

In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:

The correct answer is A because an adjournment motion is a procedural device used in the Lok Sabha to draw the attention of the House to a specific, definite matter of urgent public importance. The primary object of this motion is to disrupt the regular business of the House to discuss a recent matter that has serious consequences. Because it interrupts the scheduled proceedings and carries an element of censure against the government, it requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted. Option B refers to parliamentary questions, Option C refers to cut motions, and Option D describes the general power of the Speaker to adjourn the House or suspend a sitting due to grave disorder, which is different from a formal adjournment motion.

to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture? 1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources. 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants. 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct because the National Biodiversity Authority was established under the Biological Diversity Act of 2002 specifically to prevent biopiracy and ensure the conservation of indigenous genetic resources through a regulatory framework. Statement 2 is incorrect because the monitoring and supervision of scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants is the mandate of the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, not the NBA. Statement 3 is correct because the Biological Diversity Act mandates that any person or entity seeking intellectual property rights for an invention based on biological resources or traditional knowledge obtained from India must obtain prior approval from the NBA. Therefore, since statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is incorrect, the correct option is C.

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? 1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1) 3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is A because the National Green Tribunal NGT was established specifically to provide for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. The preamble of the NGT Act explicitly states that it was enacted to give effect to the right to a healthy environment, which the Supreme Court of India has interpreted as a fundamental component of the Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution. Provisions 2 and 3 are incorrect in this context. Article 275 1 relates to financial grants for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and administration of Scheduled Areas, while Article 243 A pertains to the powers of the Gram Sabha in the Panchayati Raj system. Neither of these constitutional provisions served as the legal basis or the primary objective for the enactment of the National Green Tribunal Act.

If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country? 1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater. 2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water. 3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India. 4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The National Water Mission is one of the eight missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change. It focuses on water conservation, minimizing wastage, and ensuring equitable distribution. Statement 1 is correct because one of the key goals of the mission is to increase water use efficiency by 20 percent, which includes the recycling and reuse of wastewater in urban areas. Statement 2 is correct as the mission promotes the use of desalination and appropriate technologies in coastal cities where natural freshwater sources are scarce. Statement 3 is incorrect because the interlinking of rivers is a separate, massive national project and not a specific objective under the National Water Mission. Statement 4 is incorrect because the mission focuses on improving groundwater management and recharge rather than offering full financial reimbursement to farmers for individual bore-well expenses. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making B the right option.

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 2. Organizing village Panchayats 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

The Directive Principles of State Policy are generally classified into three types: Socialistic, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual. Statement 1 refers to the Uniform Civil Code (Article 44), which is a Liberal-Intellectual principle. Statement 2 refers to organizing village Panchayats (Article 40), which is a core Gandhian principle aimed at self-governance. Statement 3 refers to promoting cottage industries (Article 43), which is another Gandhian principle focused on rural self-reliance. Statement 4 refers to securing leisure and cultural opportunities for workers (Article 43), which is classified as a Socialistic principle. Since only statements 2 and 3 represent Gandhian principles, the correct option is B.

Consider the following statements: 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha. 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes. 3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is D because all three statements are incorrect based on the provisions of the Constitution of India. Statement 1 is incorrect because Union Territories are indeed represented in the Rajya Sabha. Currently, the Union Territories of Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu and Kashmir have seats allocated to them in the Upper House. Statement 2 is incorrect because the adjudication of election disputes is the responsibility of the Judiciary, specifically the High Courts and the Supreme Court, rather than the Chief Election Commissioner. The Election Commission conducts elections, but it does not have the judicial power to settle legal disputes arising from them. Statement 3 is incorrect because according to Article 79 of the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of the President and the two Houses, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President is an integral part of the Parliament even though he or she is not a member of either House.

With reference to consumers' rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. 2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid. 3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Statement 1 is correct because under the Food Safety and Standards Act, consumers have the right to have a sample of any food purchased by them analyzed by a Food Analyst. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the consumer forum is designed to be accessible, there is a nominal fee prescribed for filing a complaint, depending on the value of the goods or services and the compensation claimed. It is not free of charge. Statement 3 is correct because according to the Consumer Protection Act, the definition of a consumer includes the legal heir or representative of a deceased consumer, allowing them to file a complaint. Since statements 1 and 3 are correct, option C is the right answer.

Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President. 2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election. 3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is B because only statement 3 is factually accurate according to the Constitution of India. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Speaker does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha and remains in office as long as he or she enjoys the confidence of the House. He or she can only be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of his or her election. Unlike Ministers, who have six months to become a member of Parliament, the Speaker is chosen by the House from amongst its existing members. If the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, he or she must vacate the office. Statement 3 is correct because under Article 94 of the Constitution, the Speaker submits his or her resignation in writing addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Similarly, the Deputy Speaker addresses his or her resignation to the Speaker.

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory 4. A dispute between two or more States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is C because the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, as defined under Article 131 of the Constitution, deals exclusively with federal disputes. Point 1 and Point 4 are correct because the Supreme Court has the power to hear disputes between the Center and one or more States, or disputes between two or more States, in the first instance. Point 2 is incorrect because election disputes regarding Parliament or State Legislatures are originally handled by the High Courts. Point 3 is incorrect because Article 131 specifically mentions States. Union Territories are considered administrative units of the Center, and disputes involving them do not fall under the federal original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Consider the following kinds of organisms: 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Flowering plants Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

The correct answer is D because species from all three categories are used as biopesticides. 1. Bacteria: The most famous example is Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt), which produces proteins toxic to specific insects. It is widely used in organic farming and genetic engineering. 2. Fungi: Several fungi act as bio-insecticides or bio-herbicides. For example, Beauveria bassiana is used to control termites, thrips, and whiteflies by infecting their bodies. 3. Flowering plants: Many plants contain natural chemicals that repel or kill pests. Neem (Azadirachta indica) is a well-known example used to produce botanical pesticides. Pyrethrum, derived from certain chrysanthemum flowers, is another common plant-based pesticide. Since some species from all three groups serve this purpose, option D is the correct choice.

Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification. 2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. 3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Statement 1 is correct because a wide variety of agricultural residues, including coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husk, can be effectively used as feedstock for biomass gasification. Statement 2 is incorrect because the process produces syngas, which is a mixture of several gases. While it contains hydrogen and carbon dioxide, it also includes significant amounts of carbon monoxide and methane, which are key combustible components. Statement 3 is incorrect because the producer gas generated can be used for both direct thermal applications and as a fuel in internal combustion engines, such as diesel or spark ignition engines, for power generation. Since only the first statement is true, the correct option is A.

What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? 1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water. 2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water. 3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is A because ultraviolet radiation works solely as a disinfectant. Regarding Statement 1: UV radiation penetrates the cells of harmful microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, and cysts, damaging their DNA or RNA. This process inactivates them and prevents them from reproducing, effectively making the water safe for consumption. Regarding Statement 2: UV radiation is a physical process, not a chemical one. It does not remove dissolved gases, chemicals, or organic compounds that cause bad odors or tastes. Technologies like activated carbon filters are required for this purpose. Regarding Statement 3: UV light has no impact on the physical particles suspended in water. It cannot cause sedimentation or reduce turbidity. In fact, for a UV system to work effectively, the water must already be clear, as suspended particles can shield microorganisms from the UV rays. Processes like coagulation and filtration are used to improve clarity and remove solids. Therefore, only the first statement is a correct function of UV radiation in water purification.

Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? 1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. 3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency. 4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs. Which of the statements given above are correct?

The correct option is C because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is correct. Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice, making it a two dimensional material. It is an excellent conductor of electricity, even better than copper. Statement 2 is correct. It is only one atom thick, making it the thinnest material known, yet it is about 200 times stronger than steel. Statement 3 is incorrect. Graphene is an allotrope of carbon, not silicon. While it does have high optical transparency, the mention of silicon makes this statement false. Statement 4 is correct. Because graphene is thin, strong, transparent, and highly conductive, it is an ideal material for use as transparent conducting electrodes in touch screens, LCDs, and OLEDs. Since statements 1, 2, and 4 are true and statement 3 is false, the correct answer is C.

Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning? 1. Smelting units 2. Pens and pencils 3. Paints 4. Hair oils and cosmetics Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is B because smelting units and paints are primary documented sources of lead exposure. Smelting units release lead into the air and soil during the processing of metals. Paints, especially older or industrial varieties, contain lead pigments and drying agents that become hazardous when they peel or turn into dust. Regarding the other options, modern pencils do not contain lead; they use graphite, which is a form of carbon. While some low quality traditional cosmetics like kajal or sindoor may contain lead, general hair oils and standard modern cosmetics are not classified as primary sources of lead poisoning in the context of this specific environmental health question. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are the most accurate sources.

With reference to 'stem cells', frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only. 2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs. 3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is B because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is incorrect because stem cells are not exclusive to mammals. They are found in all multicellular organisms, including plants and various non-mammalian animals like insects and amphibians. Statement 2 is correct because stem cells can be used to grow specific human tissues in a lab. This allows researchers to test the safety and effectiveness of new drugs on human cells before moving to clinical trials on people. Statement 3 is correct because stem cell therapy, also known as regenerative medicine, is used to repair or replace damaged tissues. Common examples include bone marrow transplants for leukemia and treatments for skin grafts or certain eye conditions. Since statement 1 is false and statements 2 and 3 are true, the correct code is 2 and 3 only.

Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used 1. in the production of plastic foams 2. in the production of tubeless tyres 3. in cleaning certain electronic components 4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is C because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is correct: Chlorofluorocarbons or CFCs are commonly used as blowing agents in the manufacture of plastic foams, such as polyurethane and polystyrene, to create the cellular structure. Statement 2 is incorrect: CFCs are not used in the production of tubeless tyres. The manufacturing process for rubber tyres involves vulcanization and synthetic rubber processing, which do not require ozone depleting substances. Statement 3 is correct: CFCs, particularly CFC 113, were widely used as solvents to clean delicate electronic components and circuit boards because they evaporate quickly and do not damage the parts. Statement 4 is correct: CFCs were traditionally used as propellants or pressurizing agents in aerosol spray cans for products like hairsprays, deodorants, and insecticides before being phased out due to environmental regulations. Since statements 1, 3, and 4 are true, option C is the correct choice.

A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of anti-matter? 1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper. 2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter. 3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is B because the creation and study of anti matter are fundamental to understanding the laws of physics and the history of the cosmos. Statement 1 is incorrect because anti matter is extremely difficult and expensive to produce and store. It annihilates instantly upon contact with normal matter, making it currently impractical for industrial applications like mineral prospecting or oil exploration. Statement 2 is correct because detecting and creating heavy anti matter nuclei helps scientists understand if such matter could exist naturally in the form of distant anti stars or anti galaxies, helping them look for these signatures in space. Statement 3 is correct because it addresses the Big Bang theory. Scientists want to understand why the universe is dominated by matter today when equal amounts of matter and anti matter should have been created at the beginning of the universe. Studying anti helium provides insights into this asymmetry and the evolution of the early universe.

Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe? 1. Detection of microwaves in space 2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space 3. Movement of asteroids in space 4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is A because both the detection of microwaves and the observation of redshift are foundational proofs for the expansion of the universe. 1. Detection of microwaves in space: This refers to the Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation. It is considered the afterglow of the Big Bang. Its uniform presence across the universe suggests that space has expanded from a very hot, dense initial state. 2. Observation of redshift phenomenon: When galaxies move away from us, the light they emit shifts toward the longer, redder wavelengths of the spectrum. This observation, known as Hubbles Law, directly indicates that galaxies are receding from each other as the universe expands. The movement of asteroids is a local phenomenon within solar systems governed by gravity and does not indicate the expansion of the universe. Similarly, while supernova explosions are events used as standard candles to measure distances and the rate of expansion, the explosions themselves are not evidence of expansion. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 serve as primary evidence.

None of the above can be cited as evidence

Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

The correct answer is A because of the Earths magnetosphere. The Earth acts like a giant bar magnet, creating a magnetic field that surrounds the planet. When high energy charged particles from space, such as solar winds and cosmic rays, approach Earth, the magnetic field exerts a force on them. This force deflects the particles away from the low latitudes and channels them toward the North and South magnetic poles. As these particles collide with gases in the upper atmosphere near the poles, they create the phenomena known as Auroras. Without this magnetic shield, these harmful particles would reach the surface and damage living tissues and electronic systems. Options B and C are incorrect because the ozone layer primarily filters ultraviolet radiation, and atmospheric moisture does not have the capacity to stop high speed charged particles.

The Earth's magnetic field diverts them towards its poles

Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space

Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct? 1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD. 2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD. 3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD. 4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is C because statements 1, 3, and 4 are historically accurate, while statement 2 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct because Sushruta, often called the father of surgery, described over 120 surgical instruments in the Sushruta Samhita. While his exact era is debated, it is widely accepted that specialized surgical tools were in use by or before the 1st century AD. Statement 2 is incorrect because while ancient Indian doctors performed complex surgeries like rhinoplasty and cataract removal, the technology and biological understanding required for the transplant of internal organs did not exist in the 3rd century AD. Statement 3 is correct because the concept of sine was described in the Surya Siddhanta and the works of Aryabhata during the 5th century AD. Statement 4 is correct because the mathematician Brahmagupta defined the properties and area of cyclic quadrilaterals in the 7th century AD.

With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism? 1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment 2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas 3. Denial of efficacy of rituals Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is B because statements 2 and 3 apply to both religions, while statement 1 applies only to Buddhism. Statement 1 is incorrect because Buddhism followed the Middle Path, which avoids the extremes of luxury and self mortification. In contrast, Jainism advocated for extreme penance and rigorous asceticism, including practices like fasting to death. Therefore, this principle was not common to both. Statement 2 is correct because both religions emerged as heterodox schools that rejected the infallible authority of the Vedas. They challenged the Vedic social hierarchy and the supremacy of the Brahmins. Statement 3 is correct because both Buddhism and Jainism denied the efficacy of rituals and animal sacrifices as a means to achieve liberation or spiritual growth, focusing instead on ethical conduct and personal discipline.

Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance? 1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking 2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts 3. Increasing the government spending on public health 4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is C because inclusive governance focuses on social equity, decentralization, and human development to ensure that the benefits of growth reach all sections of society. Statement 2 is correct because District Planning Committees promote democratic decentralization and grassroots participation, ensuring that local needs are included in the planning process. Statements 3 and 4 are correct because increasing health spending and strengthening the Mid day Meal Scheme directly improve the human development indicators of the vulnerable and marginalized populations, which is a core pillar of inclusion. Statement 1 is incorrect because permitting NBFCs to do banking is a matter of financial regulation and structural policy. While it may assist in financial inclusion, it is not considered an essential part of the governance framework in the same way that social welfare and decentralized planning are. Therefore, options including 1 are excluded.

The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

The correct answer is C because Nagara, Dravida, and Vesara refer to the three primary architectural styles used in the construction of ancient and medieval Hindu temples in India. Nagara is the northern style, characterized by a beehive shaped tower called a Shikhara. Dravida is the southern style, distinguished by pyramid shaped towers called Vimanas and elaborate gateway towers known as Gopurams. Vesara is a hybrid or mixed style that combines elements of both Nagara and Dravida traditions. This style became prominent in the Deccan region under dynasties like the Chalukyas and Hoysalas.

three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent

three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified

three main styles of Indian temple architecture

three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

The correct answer is D because the primary reason for the resignation of the Congress ministries in 1939 was the unilateral decision of the British government to involve India in World War II. The Viceroy, Lord Linlithgow, declared India a party to the war against Germany without consulting the Indian National Congress or the provincial legislatures. The Congress demanded that the British government state its war aims and guarantee immediate self government or independence after the war as a condition for cooperation. When the British government failed to provide a satisfactory response, the Congress Working Committee ordered the provincial ministries to resign in protest. Since none of the options A, B, or C mention the British involvement of India in the war without consent, they are all incorrect.

the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces

emergence of a left wing in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible

there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA'; a trained community health worker? 1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup 2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy 3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization 4. Conducting the delivery of baby Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The National Rural Health Mission NRHM created the Accredited Social Health Activist ASHA as a community health volunteer. The correct answer is A because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is correct as ASHAs act as bridge between the community and health facilities, facilitating antenatal care visits. Statement 2 is correct as they are trained to use Nishchay kits for early pregnancy detection to ensure timely care. Statement 3 is correct because their primary role is health education, including counseling on nutrition, hygiene, and immunization. Statement 4 is incorrect because ASHAs are not qualified medical professionals. They are trained to promote institutional deliveries but are not authorized to conduct the delivery of a baby themselves. This task is performed by Skilled Birth Attendants, Auxiliary Nurse Midwives, or Doctors.

Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces 2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is C because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act of 1919, also known as the Montagu Chelmsford Reforms, introduced Dyarchy in the provinces. This divided provincial subjects into two parts: Transferred and Reserved. Statement 2 is incorrect. Separate communal electorates for Muslims were actually introduced earlier by the Morley Minto Reforms or the Government of India Act of 1909. The 1919 Act merely extended this system to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, and Europeans. Statement 3 is correct. The Act relaxed central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. This allowed provinces to make laws on subjects in their own list, effectively devolving legislative authority. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are principal features of the 1919 Act.

During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?

The correct option is B because the Indian National Congress, in its early years, focused primarily on political questions and administrative reforms. Many leaders felt that including controversial social reform issues might divide the delegates and divert attention from the goal of political unity. Consequently, at the 1887 Madras session, leaders like M. G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao established the National Social Conference as a separate body. It traditionally held its annual meetings at the same venue as the Congress immediately after the political sessions, serving as the social reform cell of the Indian nationalist movement without officially involving the Congress organization in its deliberations.

Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government

Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose

Behramji Malabari and M. G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar? 1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India 2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation 3. The Independent Labour Party Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is B because statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1: The Peasants and Workers Party of India was not established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. It was founded in 1947 by leaders like Tulsidas Jadhav, Keshavrao Jedhe, and Shankarrao More, some of whom were previously associated with Ambedkar's movements but formed a distinct party. Statement 2: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar established the All India Scheduled Castes Federation in 1942 as a political party to champion the rights and representation of the Scheduled Castes. Statement 3: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar founded The Independent Labour Party in 1936. This party contested the provincial elections of 1937 and achieved significant success, particularly in Bombay.

Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

The correct answer is B because the Constitution of India grants the Rajya Sabha two exclusive special powers that are not shared with the Lok Sabha. First, under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting to empower the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List in the national interest. Second, under Article 312, the Rajya Sabha has the power to pass a resolution to create one or more All India Services common to both the Union and the States. The other options represent powers that are either shared equally with the Lok Sabha or involve different constitutional procedures. Options A, C, and D require the involvement of both Houses of Parliament and do not constitute special or exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha.

To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services

To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor? 1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas 2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development 3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is B because the National Rural Livelihood Mission, also known as Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana, focuses on poverty alleviation through social mobilization and institution building. The mission primarily works by organizing the rural poor into Self Help Groups and federations, providing them with financial capital, and offering skill development to enhance their employability and self-employment opportunities. This makes statement 2 correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because the mission does not focus on setting up large manufacturing industries, which is generally the domain of industrial policy. Statement 3 is incorrect because the mission does not involve the free distribution of physical agricultural inputs like seeds or machinery; instead, it focuses on capacity building and financial inclusion so that the poor can manage their own livelihoods.

The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? 1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level 2. Purchasing power parity at national level 3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index MPI is based on the idea that poverty is not just about a lack of income but includes various deprivations experienced by people in their daily lives. The index uses three equally weighted dimensions Health, Education, and Standard of Living. These are measured through 10 indicators at the household level, such as nutrition, child mortality, years of schooling, school attendance, cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, and assets. Statement 1 is correct because the MPI focuses specifically on these household level deprivations. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect because the MPI does not use macro economic indicators like Purchasing Power Parity, budget deficits, or GDP growth rates. Those are traditional income based measures, whereas the MPI is designed to capture non monetary aspects of poverty. Therefore, the correct option is A.

Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? 1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend 3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is C because statements 1 and 3 align with the mandate and specific recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission, while statement 2 does not. Statement 1 is correct because the commission, headed by Vijay Kelkar, recommended a specific model for the Goods and Services Tax and suggested a compensation fund of 50000 crore rupees for states to offset potential revenue losses, provided they followed the recommended design. Statement 2 is incorrect because Finance Commissions in India are primarily concerned with fiscal federalism and the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States. Creating specific job targets or employment schemes is the domain of the Planning Commission or specific government ministries, not the Finance Commission. Statement 3 is correct because the Thirteenth Finance Commission introduced a significant shift by recommending that a percentage of the divisible pool of central taxes be devolved to local bodies in the form of basic and performance grants, rather than just fixed amounts.

What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector? 1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones 2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’ 3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is D because all three initiatives were introduced under the National Manufacturing Policy to boost the manufacturing sector. 1. National Investment and Manufacturing Zones are mega industrial townships designed to provide world class infrastructure and a conducive business environment. 2. Single window clearance was implemented to simplify the regulatory process, reducing the time and cost for businesses to obtain necessary approvals and licenses. 3. The Technology Acquisition and Development Fund was created to help small and medium enterprises acquire clean and green technologies, providing subsidies for technology licensing and equipment. Together, these measures aim to increase the share of manufacturing in Indias GDP and create millions of jobs.

Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct option is A because statements 1, 2, 3, and 5 represent established constitutional and parliamentary mechanisms for controlling public finance in India. Statement 1 is correct as Article 112 mandates the President to lay the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) before both Houses of Parliament. Statement 2 is correct because Article 114 states that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law. Statement 3 is correct as supplementary grants (Article 115) and vote on account (Article 116) are constitutional tools that allow Parliament to regulate additional or advance expenditures. Statement 5 is correct because the Finance Bill, introduced under Article 110, is the instrument through which Parliament approves the governments taxation proposals. Statement 4 is incorrect because there is no formal Parliamentary Budget Office in India that performs a statutory mid-year review of programs against macroeconomic forecasts. While the Finance Ministry may conduct reviews under the FRBM Act, it is not a direct method of parliamentary control executed by a dedicated Parliamentary Budget Office as described in the statement.

Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

The correct option is C because Mahatma Gandhi undertook the fast unto death in September 1932 while in Yerwada Jail to protest against the Communal Award announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald. This award provided for separate electorates for the Depressed Classes, which Gandhi believed would permanently divide the Hindu society and prevent the integration of Dalits into the mainstream. His fast eventually led to the Poona Pact between leaders of the Depressed Classes and caste Hindus, which replaced separate electorates with reserved seats within the general electorate.

Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations

Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion

Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award

None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements: 1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government. 2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots. 3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Ryotwari Settlement was a land revenue system introduced by the British in parts of India. Let's analyze each statement: 1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government. This is correct. In the Ryotwari system, the settlement was made directly with the cultivators (ryots), who were recognized as the owners of the land as long as they paid the land revenue. There was no intermediary like a zamindar. 2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots. This is correct. A patta is a title deed or document confirming the landholder's rights and the terms of revenue payment. Since the ryots were directly responsible for revenue and recognized as landholders, the government issued pattas to them. 3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed. This is correct. A distinguishing feature of the Ryotwari system was the detailed survey and assessment of each plot of land to determine its productivity and, consequently, the revenue demand. This was done to ensure a more systematic and 'fair' assessment of tax. Since all three statements accurately describe features of the Ryotwari Settlement, option C is the correct answer.

Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development: 1. Low birthrate with low death rate 2. High birthrate with high death rate 3. High birthrate with low death rate Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:

The Demographic Transition Model explains the transformation of countries from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as they develop economically. Stage 1 is the Pre-industrial stage. Here, both birthrates and death rates are high due to lack of medical knowledge and food insecurity, resulting in a stable or slow-growing population. This corresponds to statement 2. Stage 2 is the Transitional stage. Improvements in healthcare, sanitation, and food supply lead to a sharp decline in death rates, while birthrates remain high. This results in rapid population growth. This corresponds to statement 3. Stage 3 is the Industrial and Post-industrial stage. As society becomes more urban and educated, birthrates decline to match the low death rates, leading to a stable or declining population. This corresponds to statement 1. Therefore, the correct chronological order of the stages is 2, 3, 1, making option C the correct answer.

In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries? 1. Cement 2. Fertilizers 3. Natural gas 4. Refinery products 5. Textiles Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The Index of Eight Core Industries comprises the most fundamental sectors of the Indian economy. These eight industries are Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. Together, they comprise approximately 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production. In the given list, Cement, Fertilizers, Natural Gas, and Refinery Products are part of these eight core sectors. Textiles, while a major industry in India, is not classified as one of the eight core industries. Therefore, points 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct, while point 5 is incorrect. This makes option C the right answer.

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is D because all five provisions listed have a direct or indirect bearing on education in India. 1. Directive Principles of State Policy: Article 45 focuses on early childhood care and education for children below six years, while Article 46 promotes the educational interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies: The 73rd and 74th Amendments added the 11th and 12th Schedules, which empower Panchayats and Municipalities to manage primary, secondary, and adult education. 3. Fifth Schedule: This schedule provides for the administration of Scheduled Areas. The Governor can make regulations for the peace and good government of these areas, which includes establishing schools and educational facilities. 4. Sixth Schedule: This pertains to Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. District and Regional Councils have the power to establish and manage primary schools and prescribe the language of instruction. 5. Seventh Schedule: Education is listed in the Concurrent List (Entry 25) via the 42nd Amendment, meaning both the Union and State governments can legislate on it. Additionally, the Union List includes entries related to central universities and vocational training.

Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the importance of this plant? 1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification. 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel. 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes. 4. Its timber is of great commercial value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is C because statements 1 and 3 accurately describe the characteristics and uses of sea buckthorn. Regarding statement 1, sea buckthorn has an extensive root system that binds the soil, making it highly effective at controlling soil erosion and preventing desertification, especially in fragile ecosystems. Regarding statement 3, the plant is known as the wonder berry due to its high nutritional value, being rich in vitamins and antioxidants. It is also native to and well-adapted for the cold desert conditions of high-altitude regions like Ladakh and Spiti. Statement 2 is incorrect because while research exists on various biofuels, sea buckthorn is not a primary or significant source of biodiesel compared to plants like Jatropha. Statement 4 is incorrect because sea buckthorn is a deciduous shrub, not a timber tree. It does not produce wood suitable for commercial timber use.

Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming?

Mixed farming is a type of agriculture where the farmer combines the cultivation of crops with the rearing of livestock on the same farm. The primary objective is to diversify income sources and create a symbiotic relationship between plants and animals. For example, crop residues can be used as fodder for cattle, while animal manure is used as organic fertilizer to enhance soil fertility for crops. Option A refers to the nature of crops grown, while Option B describes intercropping or mixed cropping, not mixed farming. Therefore, the integration of crop production and animal husbandry is the defining feature of mixed farming.

Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops

Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together

A particular State in India has the following characteristics: 1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan. 2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover. 3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State. Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

Arunachal Pradesh is the correct answer based on the following three criteria. First, northern Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh both lie roughly on the 28 degrees North latitude. Second, according to the India State of Forest Report, Arunachal Pradesh consistently maintains a very high forest cover, which is around 80 percent of its total geographical area. In contrast, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh have significantly lower percentages of forest cover, while Assam is mostly located further south and has less forest area. Third, the state has a robust Protected Area Network consisting of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries that account for over 12 percent of its total forest area. These specific geographical and ecological metrics align perfectly with Arunachal Pradesh.

Consider the following crops of India: 1. Cowpea 2. Green gram 3. Pigeon pea Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

The correct answer is A because Cowpea and Green gram are versatile leguminous crops that serve all three purposes: they are consumed as protein rich pulses, their vegetative parts are used as nutritious fodder for livestock, and they are plowed back into the soil as green manure to improve nitrogen levels. While Pigeon pea is a major pulse crop and its leaves can be used as fodder, it is not typically used as green manure. Pigeon pea has a long maturation period and develops a woody stem, making it unsuitable for the quick decomposition required for green manuring compared to the succulent and fast growing nature of Cowpea and Green gram. Therefore, only 1 and 2 fulfill all three specific criteria mentioned in the question.

Consider the following factors: 1. Rotation of the Earth 2. Air pressure and wind 3. Density of ocean water 4. Revolution of the Earth Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

The correct answer is B because factors 1, 2, and 3 are primary drivers of ocean currents, while factor 4 is not. 1. Rotation of the Earth: The Earths rotation creates the Coriolis force, which deflects moving water to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, determining the direction of currents. 2. Air pressure and wind: Surface winds are the main driving force for surface ocean currents. Friction between the wind and the water surface pushes the water in the direction the wind blows. 3. Density of ocean water: Differences in temperature and salinity cause variations in water density. Denser water sinks while less dense water rises, creating deep ocean currents known as thermohaline circulation. 4. Revolution of the Earth: The annual movement of the Earth around the Sun influences seasons but does not directly cause or influence the flow of ocean currents. Therefore, only factors 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements: 1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States. 2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct because according to the National Wetland Atlas, Gujarat has the highest area under wetlands in India, accounting for approximately 22 percent of the total wetland area in the country. This is primarily due to its long coastline and extensive salt pans. Statement 2 is incorrect because in India, inland wetlands actually cover a much larger area than coastal wetlands. Inland wetlands account for approximately 69 percent of the total wetland area, while coastal wetlands account for only about 27 percent. The remaining area consists of small wetlands. Therefore, only the first statement is true, making option A the correct answer.

Consider the following crops of India: 1. Groundnut 2. Sesamum 3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?

The correct answer is D because all three crops are primarily grown in arid and semi-arid regions of India where irrigation facilities are limited. 1. Groundnut: While it is grown in various parts of India, the majority of the cultivation happens during the Kharif season in states like Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh, relying heavily on monsoon rains. 2. Sesamum: This is a hardy crop that is highly drought-tolerant. It is mostly grown as a rainfed crop in marginal lands where other crops struggle to survive. 3. Pearl millet (Bajra): This is one of the most drought-resistant crops available. It is predominantly grown in the sandy soils of Rajasthan and other dry regions, almost exclusively depending on rainfall rather than intensive irrigation. Since all three crops are characteristic of dryland agriculture in India, they are considered predominantly rainfed.

When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following: 1. Deep gorges 2. U-turn river courses 3. Parallel mountain ranges 4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

The correct answer is D because all four features are characteristic markers of the Himalayas ongoing tectonic activity and geological youth. 1. Deep Gorges: These are formed because the rivers are older than the mountains. As the Himalayas uplifted, the rivers cut down through them at a rapid rate, creating deep V shaped valleys which indicate recent and active mountain building. 2. U turn River Courses: Rivers like the Brahmaputra take sharp turns, known as syntaxial bends, around the eastern and western extremities of the Himalayas. This occurs because the mountain range is still folding and bending due to the northward movement of the Indian Plate. 3. Parallel Mountain Ranges: The Himalayas consist of three distinct parallel ranges, the Himadri, Himachal, and Shiwaliks. This structural arrangement is a classic feature of fold mountains formed by the compression of the earth's crust. 4. Steep Gradients causing Land sliding: Since the Himalayas are young and still rising, they are composed of unstable sedimentary rocks and have very steep slopes. The high relief combined with tectonic instability makes them highly prone to landslides, unlike the older, stable plateaus of central or southern India.

Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because 1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface 2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere 3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

The correct answer is C because of the following reasons: Statement 1 is correct. The atmosphere is not heated directly by incoming shortwave solar radiation. Instead, the Earth absorbs solar energy and radiates it back as longwave terrestrial radiation. This heats the air from the ground up, meaning layers closer to the surface are warmer than those higher up. Statement 2 is incorrect. Moisture and water vapor are concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere due to gravity. As altitude increases, the amount of moisture decreases significantly. Statement 3 is correct. Air density is highest at the surface and decreases with height. Thinner air in the upper atmosphere has a lower capacity to absorb and retain heat compared to the dense air near the surface. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 explain why temperature decreases with increasing height in the troposphere.

The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? 1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected. 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected. 3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected. 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Ocean acidification is primarily caused by the absorption of excess carbon dioxide by the oceans, leading to a decrease in pH. This phenomenon has several critical impacts on marine ecosystems. 1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected. Correct. Ocean acidification reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which are essential building blocks for organisms that form shells or skeletons from calcium carbonate (calcification). Calcareous phytoplankton, such as coccolithophores, rely on these ions and will struggle to grow and survive. 2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected. Correct. Coral reefs are built by corals that secrete calcium carbonate skeletons. Reduced carbonate ion availability makes it harder for corals to build and maintain their structures, leading to slower growth, weakened skeletons, and increased vulnerability to erosion. 3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected. Correct. If calcareous phytoplankton (a crucial part of the marine food web) are negatively impacted, the food source for many marine larvae that feed on phytoplankton will diminish. This can lead to reduced survival rates for these larval stages, impacting the populations of various marine animals. 4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected. Incorrect. While there are complex interactions between ocean biology and atmospheric processes (e.g., some marine organisms produce aerosols that can influence cloud formation), the direct and primary concern of ocean acidification is not the adverse effect on cloud seeding (an artificial process) or natural cloud formation in the same direct and significant way as the biological impacts described in statements 1, 2, and 3. This is not considered a primary or immediate concern of ocean acidification. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The final answer is A

In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)? 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency. 2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee. 3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances. 4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect because the CAG does not exercise exchequer control. In India, the executive can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund without prior approval from the CAG. Control over the exchequer lies with the Parliament, not the CAG, regardless of an emergency. Statement 2 is correct because the CAG submits audit reports to the President, who lays them before Parliament. These reports are then examined by the Public Accounts Committee to ensure executive accountability. Statement 3 is correct because CAG reports serve as credible evidence of financial irregularities. Investigating agencies like the CBI or police can use the findings in these reports to frame charges and prosecute offenders. Statement 4 is incorrect because the CAG is an auditing and accounting body, not a judicial one. It has no powers to prosecute or punish individuals; it can only report findings to the legislature or refer matters to competent authorities. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making option C the right answer.

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 2012 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2012 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

Reviewed by Dalvoy

UPSC Civil Services preparation

Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2012 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha h…	polity-and-governance	D	View
2	In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:	polity-and-governance	A	View
3	How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture? 1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indig…	polity-and-governance	C	View
4	The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? 1. Righ…	polity-and-governance	A	View
5	If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country? 1. Part of the water needs of urban areas …	geography	B	View
6	Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: 1. Securing for …	polity-and-governance	B	View
7	Consider the following statements: 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha. 2. It is within the purview of the Chief Ele…	polity-and-governance	D	View
8	With reference to consumers' rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Co…	polity-and-governance	C	View
9	Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: 1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the Pres…	polity-and-governance	B	View
10	Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1. A dispute between the Government of India and one …	polity-and-governance	C	View
11	Consider the following kinds of organisms: 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Flowering plants Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms ar…	science-and-technology	D	View
12	Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the follow…	science-and-technology	A	View
13	What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? 1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in wate…	science-and-technology	A	View
14	Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance? 1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity. 2…	science-and-technology	C	View
15	Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead pois…	science-and-technology	B	View
16	With reference to 'stem cells', frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Stem cells can be derived from …	science-and-technology	B	View
17	Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used 1. in the production of plastic foams …	geography	C	View
18	A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). Wh…	science-and-technology	B	View
19	Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe? 1. Detection of microwa…	science-and-technology	A	View
20	Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the s…	geography	A	View
21	With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct? 1. Different kinds of specializ…	history	C	View
22	With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism? 1. Avoidance of extremi…	history	B	View
23	Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance? 1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to…	polity-and-governance	C	View
24	The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the	art-and-culture	C	View
25	The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because	history	D	View
26	With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of 'ASHA'; a trained community health worker? 1. Accomp…	polity-and-governance	A	View
27	Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive gov…	polity-and-governance	C	View
28	During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?	history	B	View
29	Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar? 1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India 2. All India Scheduled Cas…	polity-and-governance	B	View
30	Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?	polity-and-governance	B	View
31	How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor? 1. By setting up a large number of new manu…	economy	B	View
32	The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the follo…	economy	A	View
33	Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? 1. A design for the…	economy	C	View
34	What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector? 1. Setting up of National …	economy	D	View
35	Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before t…	—	A	View
36	Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because	history	C	View
37	With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements: 1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government. 2…	history	C	View
38	Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development: 1. Low birthrate with low death rate …	geography	C	View
39	In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the…	economy	C	View
40	Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural…	polity-and-governance	D	View
41	Government of India encourages the cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the importance of this plant? 1. It helps in controlling soil ero…	geography	C	View
42	Which of the following is the chief characteristic of 'mixed farming?	geography	C	View
43	A particular State in India has the following characteristics: 1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan…	geography	A	View
44	Consider the following crops of India: 1. Cowpea 2. Green gram 3. Pigeon pea Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manur…	geography	A	View
45	Consider the following factors: 1. Rotation of the Earth 2. Air pressure and wind 3. Density of ocean water 4. Revolution of the Earth Which…	geography	B	View
46	With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements: 1. The country's total geographical area under the category of w…	geography	A	View
47	Consider the following crops of India: 1. Groundnut 2. Sesamum 3. Pearl millet Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?	geography	D	View
48	When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following: 1. Deep gorges 2. U-turn river courses 3. Parallel mountain ranges 4. Steep gradie…	geography	D	View
49	Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth's surface, because 1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards on…	geography	C	View
50	The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern? 1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton…	geography	A	View
51	In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the C…	polity-and-governance	C	View
52	The endeavour of Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is 1. to promote institutional deliveries 2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother…	polity-and-governance	A	View
53	The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment	polity-and-governance	A	View
54	With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be cha…	polity-and-governance	C	View
55	Consider the following: 1. Hotels and restaurants 2. Motor transport undertakings 3. Newspaper establishments 4. Private medical institution…	polity-and-governance	D	View
56	According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the foll…	polity-and-governance	C	View
57	A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of 1. Ordinary Legislati…	polity-and-governance	A	View
58	How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India? 1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Instituti…	polity-and-governance	B	View
59	Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve the rich heritag…	polity-and-governance	C	View
60	What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? 1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President o…	polity-and-governance	A	View
61	To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuc…	science-and-technology	D	View
62	The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs	geography	D	View
63	Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?	science-and-technology	B	View
64	What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India? 1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a g…	science-and-technology	C	View
65	Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created? 1. To enable them to withs…	science-and-technology	D	View
66	Consider the following statements: The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was tha…	history	A	View
67	With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements ar…	art-and-culture	B	View
68	How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances? 1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance bu…	art-and-culture	A	View
69	With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices? 1. Medita…	history	D	View
70	The Rowlatt Act aimed at	history	B	View
71	The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because 1. the Congress passed a resolution demandin…	history	A	View
72	Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It symbolizes	art-and-culture	B	View
73	The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of	history	C	View
74	Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj? 1. It opposed idolatry. 2. It denied the need for a priestly class …	history	B	View
75	The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers' bank. This would imply which of the following? 1. Other banks retain their deposits with …	economy	D	View
76	Under which of the following circumstances may 'capital gains' arise? 1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product 2. When there i…	economy	B	View
77	Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy? 1. Purchase of government securities from th…	economy	C	View
78	Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India? 1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India 2. Majority foreign e…	economy	D	View
79	Consider the following statements: The price of any currency in international market is decided by the 1. World Bank 2. demand for goods/ser…	economy	B	View
80	The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that	economy	C	View
81	Consider the following: 1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops 2. Use of mobile cannons i…	history	D	View
82	With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country's economy, which of the following st…	history	C	View
83	The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in their:	polity-and-governance	C	View
84	Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal? 1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal r…	economy	B	View
85	A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was stan…	geography	C	View
86	Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called 'rare earth metals'. Why? 1. China, which is the larg…	economy	C	View
87	Consider the following protected areas: 1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika 3. Manas 4. Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?	geography	B	View
88	Consider the following statements: 1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India. 2. The amount of annual r…	geography	C	View
89	Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?	geography	D	View
90	In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?	geography	B	View
91	Consider the following kinds of organisms: 1. Bat 2. Bee 3. Bird Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?	geography	D	View
92	Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?	geography	A	View
93	Consider the following statements: If there were no phenomenon of capillarity 1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp 2. one would n…	science-and-technology	B	View
94	The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, pre…	geography	C	View
95	What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?	geography	A	View
96	Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area? 1. Global warming 2. Fragmentation of habitat 3. Invasion …	geography	A	View
97	Consider the following: 1. Black-necked crane 2. Cheetah 3. Flying squirrel 4. Snow leopard Which of the above are naturally found in India?	geography	B	View
98	Consider the following agricultural practices: 1. Contour bunding 2. Relay cropping 3. Zero tillage In the context of global climate change,…	geography	B	View
99	What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason? 1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely aff…	geography	A	View
100	Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to	geography	B	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

75 / 75

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Educat…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
2	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Educat…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
3	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Educat…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
4	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Chemic…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
5	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Chemic…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
6	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Chemic…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
7	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Chemic…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
8	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Chemic…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
9	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Chemic…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
10	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Today'…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
11	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Today'…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
12	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Today'…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
13	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Today'…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
14	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Today'…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
15	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passage only. Today'…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
16	Consider the following statements: 1) All artists are whimsical. 2) Some artists are drug addicts. 3) Frustrated people are prone to become …	Logical Reasoning	B	View
17	Examine the following statements: 1) Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B 2) Either C and D are of the same age or D is o…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
18	Examine the following statements: 1) Only those who have a pair of Binoculars can become the members of the birdwatcher's club. 2) Some memb…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
19	During the last summer vacation. Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in hiking swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking f…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
20	Three people A, B and C wore shirts of black, blue and orange colours (not necessarily in that order) and pants of green, yellow and orange …	Logical Reasoning	B	View
21	Ten new TV shows started in January-5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines. By April, only seven of the new shows were still on, five of th…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
22	Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for a Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and the other two ace businessmen. Two speak Gujarati and two spe…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
23	Consider the following statement: "Though quite expensive, television is not a luxury item, as one can learn many things through television.…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
24	Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48 km per hour. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the distance is 10 minutes more tha…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
25	Gita is prettier than Sita but not as pretty as Rita. Then,	Logical Reasoning	A	View
26	Given that, 1) A is the brother of B. 2) C is the father of A. 3) D is the brother of E. 4) E is the daughter of B. Then, the uncle of D is	Logical Reasoning	A	View
27	Examine the following statements: 1) Rama scored more than Rani. 2) Rani scored less than Ratna. 3) Ratna scored more than Rama. 4) Padma sc…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
28	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
29	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
30	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
31	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
32	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
33	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
34	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
35	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
36	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
37	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
38	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
39	Examine the following statements: 1) I watch TV only if I am bored. 2) I am never bored when I have my brother's company. 3) Whenever I go t…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
40	Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q and R connect a military camp to the rest of the country. Only one out of A, P and R is open at any one time. I…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
41	Four political parties W, X, Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the coming parliamentary elections. The formula agreed by them …	Logical Reasoning	C	View
42	Consider the following statements: 1) All X-brand cars parked here are white. 2) Some of them have radial tyres. 3) All X-brand cars manufac…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
43	Consider the following statement: The Third World War, if it ever starts, will end very quickly with the possible end of civilization. It is…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
44	Consider the following information regarding the performance of a class of 1000 students in four different tests: If a student scores 74 mar…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
45	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
46	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
47	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
48	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
49	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
50	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
51	Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow: Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
52	Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow: Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, …	Logical Reasoning	B	View
53	Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow: Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, …	Logical Reasoning	C	View
54	Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow: Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, …	Logical Reasoning	C	View
55	Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow: Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, …	Logical Reasoning	A	View
56	Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. Thei…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
57	Consider the following statements: 1) All machines consume energy. 2) Electricity provides energy. 3) Electrically operated machines are che…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
58	Examine the following statements: 1) None but the rich can afford air-travel. 2) Some of those who travel by air become sick. 3) Some of tho…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
59	In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equall…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
60	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
61	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
62	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
63	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
64	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
65	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
66	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
67	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
68	The given item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose onl…	Decision Making	C	View
69	The given item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose onl…	Decision Making	A	View
70	The given item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose onl…	Decision Making	B	View
71	The given item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose onl…	Decision Making	A	View
72	The given item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose onl…	Decision Making	C	View
73	The given item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose onl…	Decision Making	D	View
74	The given item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose onl…	Decision Making	B	View
75	Examine the following statements: z 1) None but students are members of the club. 2) Some members of the club are married persons. 3) All ma…	Logical Reasoning	B	View

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

geography29 (29%)
polity-and-governance26 (26%)
history14 (14%)
science-and-technology13 (13%)
economy13 (13%)
art-and-culture4 (4%)
Others1 (1%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2012 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2012 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2012 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2012 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2012 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2012 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2011 All years Prelims 2013

UPSC Prelims 2012 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

Other UPSC Prelims years