Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I is incorrect. The atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial radiation (longwave radiation) emitted from the Earth's surface than by incoming solar radiation (shortwave radiation). Greenhouse gases, like carbon dioxide, allow most of the incoming solar radiation to pass through but absorb and re-emit a significant portion of the outgoing longwave terrestrial radiation, thereby warming the atmosphere. This process is crucial for maintaining Earth's temperature. Statement-II is correct. Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases (such as methane, nitrous oxide, and water vapor) are indeed very effective absorbers of longwave terrestrial radiation. This property is fundamental to the greenhouse effect, which keeps the Earth habitable. Without these gases, the Earth's surface would be much colder. Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I is correct. The thickness of the troposphere, the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere where most weather phenomena occur, varies with latitude. It is thickest at the equator (around 18 km) and thinnest at the poles (around 8-9 km). This variation is primarily due to the intense heating at the equator, which causes air to expand and rise. Statement-II is correct. At the equator, there is significant solar insolation, leading to high temperatures. This intense heating causes the air to become less dense and rise rapidly through strong convectional currents. These rising air currents carry heat to greater heights, pushing the tropopause (the boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere) higher up. Conversely, at the poles, the air is cold and dense, leading to subsidence and a lower tropopause. This direct relationship means Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I. Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

All four listed items are products of volcanic eruptions: 1. **Pyroclastic debris**: This refers to fragmented material ejected from a volcano during an explosive eruption, including rock fragments, ash, pumice, and volcanic bombs. 2. **Ash and dust**: Volcanic ash consists of tiny particles of pulverized rock, minerals, and volcanic glass, often ejected in large quantities during eruptions. Volcanic dust is even finer. 3. **Nitrogen compounds**: Volcanic gases include various compounds, and while water vapor and carbon dioxide are the most abundant, nitrogen (N₂) and minor nitrogen compounds (like NO, NO₂, NH₃) are also released. Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere, and it is a constituent of the magmatic gases. 4. **Sulphur compounds**: Sulphur dioxide (SO₂), hydrogen sulfide (H₂S), and other sulphur compounds are significant components of volcanic gases. SO₂ is particularly known for its atmospheric effects, contributing to acid rain and influencing climate. Therefore, all four are products of volcanic eruptions.

Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. Select the answer using the code given below :

1. **Statement 1 is correct.** In January, it's winter in the Northern Hemisphere. Landmasses cool down more rapidly and to a greater extent than oceans. Therefore, isotherms (lines connecting points of equal temperature) tend to bend equatorward (southward) over continents, indicating colder temperatures, and poleward (northward) over oceans, indicating relatively warmer temperatures. So, they deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. **Statement 2 is incorrect.** The presence of the warm **Gulf Stream** and **North Atlantic Drift** makes the North Atlantic Ocean significantly *warmer* than comparable latitudes on land, especially in winter. This warming effect causes the isotherms to bend *poleward* (northward) over this region, not make the ocean colder. Cold ocean currents (like the Labrador Current) would make an area colder, but the primary influence here is the warm currents mentioned, which lead to a northward bending of isotherms due to higher temperatures. The statement incorrectly attributes a cooling effect to warm currents and misrepresents the bending direction under such conditions.

Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world? (a) Algeria and Morocco (b) Botswana and Namibia (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana (d) Madagascar and Mozambique

The correct answer is Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana. These two West African nations consistently dominate global cocoa production. Côte d'Ivoire is the world's largest producer, followed closely by Ghana. Together, they account for over 60% of the world's cocoa beans, which are the primary ingredient in chocolate. The other options consist of countries known for other resources or different agricultural products, not significant cocoa production.

With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct? (a) Ghaghara – Gomati - Gandak – Kosi (b) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak – Kosi (c) Ghaghara - Gomati - Kosi - Gandak (d) Gomati – Ghaghara - Kosi – Gandak

The correct sequence of these rivers from West to East, joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj, is: 1. **Gomati:** Joins the Ganga near Saidpur, Ghazipur district, Uttar Pradesh. 2. **Ghaghara (or Saryu/Sharada):** Joins the Ganga near Chhapra, Bihar. 3. **Gandak:** Joins the Ganga near Hajipur, Bihar. 4. **Kosi:** Joins the Ganga near Kursela, Katihar district, Bihar. Therefore, the correct sequence from West to East is Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi.

Ghaghara – Gomati - Gandak – Kosi

Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak – Kosi

Ghaghara - Gomati - Kosi - Gandak

Gomati – Ghaghara - Kosi – Gandak

Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II : Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III : Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I is correct. Rainfall plays a significant role in various types of weathering, both physical and chemical. For example, direct impact can cause physical weathering, and the presence of dissolved gases in rainwater facilitates chemical weathering. Statement-II is correct. Rainwater naturally dissolves atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO₂) to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), making it slightly acidic. This acidic rainwater is a primary agent of chemical weathering, particularly carbonation, which dissolves carbonate rocks like limestone. Statement-III is correct. Rainwater also dissolves atmospheric oxygen (O₂). Dissolved oxygen is crucial for the chemical weathering process of oxidation, which is particularly effective in breaking down iron-rich minerals in rocks. Both Statement-II and Statement-III describe the composition of rainwater (containing dissolved CO₂ and O₂) which contribute to chemical weathering (Statement-I). For instance, carbonic acid from dissolved CO₂ leads to carbonation, and dissolved O₂ leads to oxidation. Both are forms of chemical weathering directly linked to rainfall. Therefore, both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and collectively explain Statement-I. Thus, option A is the most appropriate choice.

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I

Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Consider the following countries : 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

Let's check which of the listed countries border the North Sea: 1. **Finland:** Finland is located in Northern Europe and borders the Baltic Sea, not the North Sea. 2. **Germany:** Germany has a significant coastline along the North Sea in its northwestern part. 3. **Norway:** Norway has an extensive coastline along the North Sea in its southern and southwestern parts. 4. **Russia:** Russia has a vast coastline but it primarily borders the Baltic Sea, Arctic Ocean, and Pacific Ocean, not the North Sea. The closest Russian territory to the North Sea would be the exclave of Kaliningrad, which borders the Baltic Sea. Therefore, only Germany and Norway have a border with the North Sea. That's two countries.

Consider the following information (Waterfall — Region — River): 1. Dhuandhar — Malwa — Narmada 2. Hundru — Chota Nagpur — Subarnarekha 3. Gersoppa — Western Ghats — Netravati In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Let's check each pair: 1. **Dhuandhar:** Located in Bhedaghat, near Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh. It is formed by the Narmada River — the river is correct. However, Jabalpur lies in the Mahakoshal (Narmada valley) region, not the Malwa Plateau. The Malwa Plateau is centred around Indore, Bhopal, and Ujjain. So the region given (Malwa) is incorrect. 2. **Hundru:** Located on the Subarnarekha River in Ranchi, Jharkhand. Ranchi is indeed in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region. This pair is correctly matched. 3. **Gersoppa (Jog Falls):** Located on the Sharavathi River in the Western Ghats of Karnataka. The Netravati River is a different river associated with Mangaluru. So the river given (Netravati) is incorrect for Gersoppa/Jog Falls. Therefore, only one pair (Hundru) is correctly matched.

Consider the following information (Region — Name of the mountain range — Type of mountain): 1. Central Asia — Vosges — Fold mountain 2. Europe — Alps — Block mountain 3. North America — Appalachians — Fold mountain 4. South America — Andes — Fold mountain In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Let's evaluate each pair: 1. **Vosges (Central Asia):** The Vosges Mountains are located in France (Europe), not Central Asia. They are a block mountain range, not fold mountains. So this pair is incorrect on both region and type. 2. **Alps (Europe):** The Alps are located in Europe and are classic examples of young fold mountains, not block mountains. So this pair is incorrect on type. 3. **Appalachians (North America):** The Appalachian Mountains are located in eastern North America and are old fold mountains. This pair is correctly matched. 4. **Andes (South America):** The Andes are located along the western coast of South America and are young fold mountains. This pair is correctly matched. Therefore, only two pairs (Appalachians and Andes) are correctly matched.

Consider the following airports : 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

A Greenfield airport is a new airport built on an undeveloped site. 1. **Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh):** This was inaugurated in November 2022 and is indeed a Greenfield airport, being the first airport in Arunachal Pradesh with a full-fledged runway. 2. **Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh):** This airport was inaugurated in October 2021. It was developed as a Greenfield project to facilitate Buddhist pilgrimage. 3. **Vijayawada International Airport (Andhra Pradesh):** This airport has been operational for a long time, but it was upgraded from a domestic airport to an international one, and its infrastructure was expanded. It is not a Greenfield airport in the strict sense, as it was an existing brownfield site that underwent significant expansion and upgrading, not built from scratch on an undeveloped site. Therefore, only Donyi Polo Airport and Kushinagar International Airport have been constructed as Greenfield projects in the recent past.

With reference to "water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below :

1. **Statement 1 is correct.** Water vapour is a gaseous component of the atmosphere. Its concentration is highest near the Earth's surface and rapidly decreases with increasing altitude. This is because most of the atmospheric moisture is derived from evaporation from surface water bodies and is concentrated in the lower troposphere. 2. **Statement 2 is incorrect.** The percentage of water vapour is actually maximum in warm, humid tropical regions (near the equator) due to high rates of evaporation and warm air's ability to hold more moisture. It is lowest in cold, dry polar and desert regions, where the air is colder and thus holds less moisture. Therefore, stating it's maximum at the poles is fundamentally incorrect. Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following description : 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm 250 cm. What is this type of climate?

Let's analyze the characteristics described: 1. **Low annual and daily range of temperatures:** This is a hallmark of equatorial climates. Due to consistent high solar insolation throughout the year and significant cloud cover and humidity, temperatures remain relatively stable, leading to minimal diurnal and annual temperature fluctuations. 2. **Precipitation occurs throughout the year:** Equatorial regions experience convectional rainfall almost daily due to intense heating and rising moist air. There is no distinct dry season. 3. **Precipitation varies between 50 cm and 250 cm:** While equatorial regions are known for high rainfall, the range can be quite broad, with some areas receiving over 200 cm annually. A range of 50-250 cm accommodates various equatorial zones, from drier rainforest fringes to extremely wet areas. Comparing this with the options: * **Equatorial climate:** Matches all three descriptions perfectly. * **China type climate (Humid Subtropical, Cwa):** Has hot, wet summers and mild, dry winters. Temperature ranges are higher than equatorial, and precipitation is seasonal. * **Humid subtropical climate (Cfa/Cwa):** Similar to China type, experiences seasonal precipitation and more distinct temperature variations. * **Marine West Coast climate (Cfb/Cfc):** Characterized by mild temperatures, cool summers, and abundant precipitation throughout the year, but with higher annual temperature ranges than equatorial and distinct seasonality in temperature. The rainfall amounts can be significant, but the temperature characteristics don't fully align with 'very low range'. Therefore, the description best fits an Equatorial climate.

With reference to "Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Select the answer using the code given below :

1. **Statement 1 is correct.** The magnitude of the Coriolis force (F_c) is directly proportional to the velocity of the moving object (v). The formula for Coriolis force is F_c = 2mvΩsinφ, where m is mass, v is velocity, Ω is angular velocity of Earth's rotation, and φ is latitude. As 'v' (wind velocity in this context) increases, the Coriolis force increases. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** From the formula F_c = 2mvΩsinφ: * At the **poles**, latitude (φ) is 90° (or -90°), and sin(90°) = 1. This means the Coriolis force is at its maximum at the poles (F_c = 2mvΩ). * At the **equator**, latitude (φ) is 0°, and sin(0°) = 0. This means the Coriolis force is zero, or effectively absent, at the equator (F_c = 0). Therefore, both statements are correct.

On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle Select the correct answer using the code given below:

June 21 marks the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere. On this day: 1. **Equator:** The Equator always experiences approximately 12 hours of day and 12 hours of night throughout the year, regardless of the season or solstice. So, it does not experience *more* than 12 hours. 2. **Tropic of Cancer:** On June 21, the sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N). All locations in the Northern Hemisphere beyond the Equator experience increasingly longer days, reaching maximum day length at the Tropic of Cancer and further north. Thus, the Tropic of Cancer experiences significantly more than 12 hours of sunlight. 3. **Tropic of Capricorn:** The Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S) is in the Southern Hemisphere. On June 21, it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere, and locations there experience their shortest days, meaning less than 12 hours of sunlight. 4. **Arctic Circle:** On June 21, the entire region north of the Arctic Circle (66.5° N) experiences 24 hours of daylight (the 'midnight sun'). This definitely means more than 12 hours of sunlight. Therefore, the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle experience more than 12 hours of sunlight on June 21.

One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

The correct answer is the **Congo Basin**. The Cuvette Centrale peatlands in the Congo Basin, spanning the Republic of Congo and the Democratic Republic of Congo, are recognized as the world's largest tropical peatlands. They cover an area roughly the size of England and store an estimated 30 billion metric tons of carbon, which is indeed equivalent to about three years of global fossil fuel emissions. The preservation of these peatlands is critical for global climate stability, as their destruction would release vast amounts of stored carbon into the atmosphere. * **Amazon Basin** has significant carbon stores in rainforests, but not primarily in large tropical peatlands of this scale. * **Kikori Basin** is in Papua New Guinea, known for biodiversity but not for the world's largest peatland. * **Rio de la Plata Basin** is in South America (Argentina, Uruguay, Paraguay, Bolivia, Brazil), a major river basin but not known for vast tropical peatlands.

With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements : 1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct?

All three statements regarding Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS), often called 'forever chemicals', are correct. 1. **Statement 1 is correct.** PFAS are widely used in various consumer products due to their water and oil-repellent properties (e.g., non-stick cookware, waterproof clothing, food packaging). This widespread use has led to their presence in drinking water, food, and food packaging materials globally. They can leach from products into the environment and food chain. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** PFAS are synthetic chemicals with extremely strong carbon-fluorine bonds, making them highly resistant to degradation in the environment (water, soil, air). This is why they are called 'forever chemicals' and persist for very long periods. 3. **Statement 3 is correct.** Due to their persistence and chemical properties, PFAS can accumulate in the tissues of living organisms, including animals and humans, over time. This process is known as bioaccumulation. Persistent exposure, even at low levels, can lead to their build-up in the body, potentially causing adverse health effects. Therefore, all statements are correct.

Consider the following : 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

A parasitoid is an organism that lives in or on its host and eventually kills the host. This differs from a parasite, which typically does not kill its host. 1. **Carabid beetles:** Many species of ground beetles (Carabidae) are predatory, but some genera (e.g., Brachinus) have larvae that are parasitoids of other insects. So, **Yes**. 2. **Centipedes:** Centipedes are predators, feeding on insects and other small animals. They are not known to be parasitoids. So, **No**. 3. **Flies:** Many families of flies (e.g., Tachinidae, Sarcophagidae, Phoridae) are well-known for their parasitoid habits, with larvae developing inside or on other insects. So, **Yes**. 4. **Termites:** Termites are social insects that primarily feed on dead plant material (wood, soil, etc.). They are not parasitoids. So, **No**. 5. **Wasps:** Wasps, particularly Ichneumonid and Braconid wasps, are classic examples of parasitoids. Their larvae develop inside or on the larvae/pupae of other insects, eventually killing them. So, **Yes**. Therefore, parasitoid species are found among Carabid beetles, Flies, and Wasps. That is three organisms.

Consider the following plants : 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family?

All three listed plants – Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean – belong to the pea family, also known as Leguminosae or Fabaceae. * **Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea):** A member of the Fabaceae family, cultivated for its edible seeds, which grow in pods underground. * **Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum):** A pulse crop widely grown in India, it is also a legume and thus belongs to the Fabaceae family. * **Soybean (Glycine max):** One of the most important leguminous crops globally, providing edible oil and protein, and is a key member of the Fabaceae family. The pea family (Fabaceae) is one of the largest plant families, characterized by their fruit being a legume (pod) and often having nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their root nodules. Many important food crops, including beans, peas, lentils, and chickpeas, also belong to this family. Therefore, all three belong to the pea family.

Consider the following statements : Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-II : The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

Statement-I is correct. The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) was listed under Schedule V ("vermin") of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 as originally enacted. Since the question refers to the Act itself (not subsequent amendments), Statement-I is treated as correct for this question. Statement-II is incorrect. The Indian Flying Fox is frugivorous — it feeds on fruits, nectar, and pollen, not on blood. Blood-feeding bats (vampire bats) are found only in Central and South America, not in India. Therefore, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:

All three organisms - Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater - are classified as insects. * **Cicada:** These are large, winged insects known for their loud buzzing sounds, typically found in temperate to tropical climates. They belong to the order Hemiptera. * **Froghopper:** These small insects, also from the order Hemiptera, are known for their ability to jump long distances and for the 'spittlebug' foam produced by their nymphs. * **Pond skater (Water Strider):** These are aquatic insects from the family Gerridae, also in the order Hemiptera, famous for their ability to walk on the surface of water due to surface tension. None of them are birds, fish, or reptiles. They all fall under the class Insecta.

Consider the following statements : Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II : Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I is correct. Many chewing gums are indeed considered a source of environmental pollution. Improper disposal of chewing gum leads to sticky waste on pavements, public spaces, and natural environments. Its persistence and non-biodegradable nature contribute to litter and can be costly to remove. Recent research highlights that chewing gum can also be a source of microplastic pollution. Statement-II is correct. The gum base in most modern chewing gums is made from synthetic polymers, which are essentially plastics. These polymers are derived from petroleum and are non-biodegradable, meaning they do not break down naturally in the environment. This plastic content is precisely why chewing gum persists as litter and contributes to environmental pollution, especially microplastic pollution. Therefore, Statement-II directly explains why Statement-I is true. The plastic content in chewing gum's gum base is the primary reason it is a source of environmental pollution.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following pairs (Country — Animal found in its natural habitat): 1. Brazil — Indri 2. Indonesia — Elk 3. Madagascar — Bonobo How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Let's check each pair: 1. **Brazil - Indri:** Incorrect. The Indri (Indri indri) is the largest living lemur and is endemic to Madagascar, not Brazil. Brazil is known for its diverse wildlife, including monkeys and jaguars, but not indris. 2. **Indonesia - Elk:** Incorrect. Elk (Cervus canadensis) are large deer species primarily found in North America and East Asia (e.g., China, Mongolia). While Indonesia has deer species, the Elk is not native to its natural habitat. Indonesia is known for unique species like Orangutans and Komodo dragons. 3. **Madagascar - Bonobo:** Incorrect. Bonobos (Pan paniscus) are a species of great ape found only in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) in Central Africa. Madagascar is famous for its unique lemur species, but not bonobos. Therefore, none of the pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization : 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. **Statement 1 is incorrect.** The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit organization dedicated to improving toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide. It was founded in 2001 by Jack Sim and is NOT an agency of the United Nations. While it collaborates with the UN (e.g., UN-Water, which later officially adopted World Toilet Day), it is an independent entity. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** The WTO indeed initiated and champions the World Toilet Summit, promotes World Toilet Day (which the UN later adopted as an official UN observance), and established the World Toilet College. These initiatives are central to its mission of inspiring action and tackling the global sanitation crisis. 3. **Statement 3 is incorrect.** The World Toilet Organization is primarily an advocacy and networking body. Its main function is to raise awareness, share best practices, and facilitate partnerships to address sanitation issues. It does not primarily grant funds to countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Funding for sanitation projects usually comes from governments, international development banks, and other large aid organizations. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. **Statement 1 is correct.** Lions, unlike many other seasonal breeders, do not have a specific breeding season. Mating and births can occur throughout the year, although there might be peaks in certain regions depending on prey availability. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** Cheetahs are unique among the larger felines. While they are often grouped with 'big cats', they belong to a different genus (Acinonyx) than roaring cats like lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars (Panthera). Cheetahs purr like domestic cats but do not have the specialized larynx and hyoid apparatus required for roaring. 3. **Statement 3 is incorrect.** Male leopards, like male lions and other large felids, *do* proclaim their territory through scent marking (e.g., urine spraying, rubbing against trees, leaving claw marks). This is a common territorial behavior among many solitary and social carnivores. The statement implies they don't, which is false. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?

The term "100 Million Farmers" is often associated with initiatives promoting sustainable and resilient agriculture on a large scale. Option A accurately reflects a common set of goals for such large-scale agricultural transformation initiatives in the context of climate change and environmental sustainability. While the exact phrasing "100 Million Farmers" might not refer to one single, universally recognized specific organization or platform with that precise name, among the given options, option A describes the ambitious and multifaceted goals commonly found in contemporary global agricultural development initiatives aimed at sustainability, climate action, and farmer empowerment. These goals include: achieving net-zero carbon footprints, promoting nature-positive practices (regenerative agriculture, biodiversity conservation), and enhancing the resilience of farmers to climate shocks. Options B, C, and D describe more specific, narrower mandates (organic animal husbandry, blockchain for fertilizers, FPOs for market access), which might be components of larger initiatives but do not capture the holistic and ambitious scope implied by '100 Million Farmers' in the context of broader sustainable food system transformation discussions, as option A does. Option A aligns with broader international and national policy dialogues around climate-smart agriculture and sustainable food systems.

It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.

It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?

All four listed technologies are considered "Distributed Energy Resources" (DERs). Distributed Energy Resources are small-scale, modular electricity generation or storage technologies located close to the load they serve, typically ranging from a few kilowatts to 50 megawatts. They can be connected to the grid at the distribution level or operate independently. 1. **Battery storage:** Allows for electricity generated from various sources (including renewables) to be stored and dispatched when needed, often located at homes, businesses, or grid substations. 2. **Biomass generators:** Small-scale power plants that convert organic matter into electricity, often located near the source of biomass or users. 3. **Fuel cells:** Devices that convert the chemical energy of a fuel (like hydrogen) into electricity through a chemical reaction, often used in smaller, localized applications or vehicles. 4. **Rooftop solar photovoltaic (PV) units:** Solar panels installed on individual buildings to generate electricity for local consumption or to feed back into the grid, a classic example of distributed generation. All these technologies fit the definition of DERs as they are decentralized, relatively small, and can be integrated into the distribution network or directly serve a local load.

Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree ?

The correct answer is **Fig**. Fig trees (Ficus species) have a highly specialized and unique mutualistic relationship with fig wasps (family Agaonidae). Each fig species typically has its own specific fig wasp species that is its sole pollinator. The fig fruit is actually a syconium, an inverted flower cluster, with tiny flowers lining its inner surface. The fig wasp enters the syconium through a small opening (ostiole) to lay its eggs and, in doing so, pollinates the flowers. This intricate coevolution means that neither the fig tree nor the fig wasp can reproduce without the other. * **Mahua (Madhuca longifolia):** Primarily pollinated by bats and birds, and also insects. * **Sandalwood (Santalum album):** Primarily wind-pollinated, though some insect activity might occur. * **Silk Cotton (Bombax ceiba):** Primarily pollinated by birds and bats. The fig-fig wasp relationship is a classic example of obligate mutualism and extreme coevolution in biology.

Consider the following : 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

All three categories of organisms (Butterflies, Fish, and Frogs) have poisonous species among them. 1. **Butterflies:** Many butterfly species are poisonous or toxic, often due to sequestering toxins from the plants they feed on during their larval stage (e.g., Monarch butterflies accumulating cardenolides from milkweed). These toxins make them unpalatable to predators, and they often display warning coloration (aposematism). 2. **Fish:** There are numerous poisonous fish species. Some produce toxins in their flesh (e.g., pufferfish with tetrodotoxin), while others have venomous spines or glands (e.g., stonefish, lionfish). Consumption or contact with these fish can be harmful or even fatal. 3. **Frogs:** Many frog species, particularly those in tropical regions (e.g., poison dart frogs), produce potent toxins in their skin glands as a defense mechanism against predators. These toxins can be highly dangerous to touch or ingest. Therefore, all three categories contain species that are poisonous.

Consider the following : 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

Let's examine the origin of each tree: 1. **Cashew (Anacardium occidentale):** The cashew tree is native to northeastern Brazil and parts of the Caribbean. It was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century, primarily to prevent soil erosion along the coast. It has since become widely cultivated in India. 2. **Papaya (Carica papaya):** Papaya is native to Mesoamerica (southern Mexico and Central America). It was also introduced to India, likely by the Portuguese, and is now widely cultivated in tropical and subtropical regions worldwide, including India. 3. **Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus):** Red Sanders is indeed endemic to a small region of the Eastern Ghats in South India, specifically parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. It is highly valued for its distinctive timber and medicinal properties and is a protected species due to its rarity and high demand. Therefore, only Red Sanders is native to India among the given options.

With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs): 1. **Statement 1 is incorrect.** RTGs are *not* miniature fission reactors. Fission reactors generate power through controlled nuclear chain reactions. RTGs, on the other hand, produce electricity by converting the heat generated from the *radioactive decay* of a suitable radioactive material (like Plutonium-238) into electricity using thermocouples. There is no controlled chain reaction involved. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** RTGs are indeed widely used to power spacecraft, particularly those operating in deep space where solar power is insufficient (e.g., Voyager, Cassini, Perseverance rover). They provide a reliable, long-lasting power source for onboard systems, instruments, and communications. 3. **Statement 3 is correct.** RTGs typically use Plutonium-238 (²³⁸Pu) as their heat source. Plutonium-238 is a specific isotope of plutonium, which is *not* fissile and therefore not directly used in nuclear weapons (weapons primarily use Plutonium-239). However, ²³⁸Pu can be produced in nuclear reactors by irradiating Neptunium-237. The production of plutonium isotopes, in general, is related to nuclear programs, including those for weapons development or nuclear power, and thus ²³⁸Pu can be considered a by-product or associated with such programs, though it's distinct from weapons-grade material itself. The U.S., for instance, has restarted production of Pu-238 at national laboratories for RTG needs, using processes related to nuclear material handling. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I is incorrect. Giant stars (which are typically more massive than dwarf stars like our Sun) actually live *much shorter* lives than dwarf stars. This is because more massive stars burn through their nuclear fuel (hydrogen) at a much faster rate due to higher core temperatures and pressures. Statement-II is correct. Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a significantly greater rate of nuclear reactions in their cores. Their immense mass creates greater gravitational pressure, leading to higher core temperatures and densities. This accelerates the rate of nuclear fusion, causing them to consume their fuel more rapidly and emit far more energy, thus leading to their short but brilliant lives. Since Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct, option D is the answer. Statement-II (higher rate of nuclear reactions) is actually the *reason* why giant stars have *shorter* lifespans, not longer.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

The correct answer is **Nitric oxide (NO)**. Nitric oxide is a crucial signaling molecule in the human body, playing a vital role in various physiological processes. One of its most important functions is its role as a vasodilator. It relaxes the smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, causing them to widen (dilate). This vasodilation leads to increased blood flow, which is essential for delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues and organs, and for regulating blood pressure. Nitric oxide is synthesized in the body by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS). * **Nitrous oxide (N₂O):** Known as 'laughing gas', used as an anesthetic, but not primarily for vasodilation in normal physiological processes. * **Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂):** A toxic gas, primarily an air pollutant. * **Nitrogen pentoxide (N₂O₅):** A chemical compound, not synthesized in the human body for physiological functions. Therefore, Nitric oxide is the correct answer.

Consider the following activities : 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

Radars can be used in the following activities: 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft: No. Airports use X-ray scanners, ion mobility spectrometry, and sniffer dogs for narcotics detection, not radar. 2. Monitoring of precipitation: Yes. Weather radar is the standard tool for monitoring precipitation. 3. Tracking the migration of animals: Yes. Radar ornithology is an established field for tracking bird and animal migration. Therefore, radars can be used in only two activities (2 and 3).

Consider the following aircraft : 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

Let's classify each aircraft by generation: 1. **Rafael (Rafale):** The Dassault Rafale is a French twin-engine, canard delta wing, multirole fighter aircraft. It is considered a **4.5 generation** fighter aircraft, known for its advanced avionics, stealth features (reduced radar cross-section), and highly integrated systems. It is not a fifth-generation fighter. 2. **MiG-29:** The Mikoyan MiG-29 is a Soviet-designed twin-engine jet fighter aircraft. It is typically classified as a **fourth-generation** fighter aircraft, having entered service in the 1980s. It lacks the advanced stealth and sensor fusion capabilities of 5th generation aircraft. 3. **Tejas MK-1:** The HAL Tejas is an Indian single-engine, delta wing, light multirole fighter. The Tejas MK-1 is classified as a **4th generation (or 4+ generation)** fighter aircraft. While efforts are on for an Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) which aims to be a 5th generation aircraft, Tejas MK-1 is not a 5th generation fighter. Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are characterized by key features such as all-aspect stealth, high maneuverability, advanced avionics, sensor fusion, and integrated avionics. Examples include the F-22 Raptor, F-35 Lightning II, Su-57, J-20, and KF-21 (partially). Therefore, none of the listed aircraft are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft.

In which of the following are hydrogels used? 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 3. Preparation of industrial lubricants Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Hydrogels are networks of polymer chains that are hydrophilic, meaning they are insoluble in water but can absorb large amounts of water (up to 99%) without dissolving. Their unique properties make them versatile for various applications: 1. **Controlled drug delivery in patients:** Correct. Hydrogels are extensively used in biomedicine as drug delivery systems. They can encapsulate drugs and release them gradually or in response to specific stimuli (e.g., pH, temperature), allowing for controlled and targeted drug delivery, minimizing side effects and improving therapeutic outcomes. 2. **Mobile air-conditioning systems:** Correct. Superabsorbent polymers, which are often hydrogels, can be used in desiccant-based air conditioning systems. These hydrogels absorb moisture from the air, thereby cooling it down. This application is particularly relevant for energy-efficient or mobile cooling solutions, including some experimental or niche air conditioning systems. 3. **Preparation of industrial lubricants:** Correct. Hydrogels can be incorporated into lubricants to modify their rheological properties (flow and deformation) and enhance their performance, especially in aqueous-based or specialized lubrication applications. Their water-absorbing and retaining properties can be beneficial in certain lubrication contexts, such as reducing friction and wear. Therefore, hydrogels can be used in all three listed applications.

Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ?

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen generate electricity through an electrochemical reaction between hydrogen (H₂) and oxygen (O₂) from the air. The chemical reaction that occurs in the fuel cell is: 2H₂ (hydrogen) + O₂ (oxygen) → 2H₂O (water) + electricity + heat The primary exhaust emission from the tailpipe of a hydrogen FCEV is **water vapour**. This makes FCEVs zero-emission vehicles at the point of use, as they only produce water. * **Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂):** A strong oxidizer, not a primary exhaust product. * **Hydronium (H₃O⁺):** An ion found in acidic solutions, not an exhaust gas. * **Oxygen (O₂):** A reactant in the fuel cell, taken from the air, not an emission. Therefore, water vapour is the correct answer.

Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

The term "pumped-storage hydropower" (PSH) is indeed discussed in the context of **long duration energy storage**. PSH systems involve two reservoirs at different elevations. When there's excess electricity (e.g., from intermittent renewable sources like solar or wind), water is pumped from the lower reservoir to the upper one, storing energy in the form of gravitational potential energy. When electricity demand is high, water is released from the upper reservoir, flows downhill through turbines, generating electricity, and returning to the lower reservoir. This technology is the largest-capacity form of grid energy storage available globally and is crucial for grid stability, load balancing, and integrating large amounts of variable renewable energy over long durations. While it involves water and potentially impacts water resources, its primary function is energy storage, not irrigation or rainwater harvesting directly.

Irrigation of terraced crop fields

Lift irrigation of cereal crops

"Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of:

"Membrane Bioreactors" (MBRs) are indeed most commonly discussed in the context of **wastewater treatment technologies**. An MBR system combines a conventional activated sludge biological treatment process with a membrane filtration process (like microfiltration or ultrafiltration). The membranes separate the treated water from the activated sludge, eliminating the need for conventional secondary clarifiers and tertiary filtration. This results in high-quality effluent, a smaller footprint for treatment plants, and the ability to handle higher concentrations of solids. While 'bioreactors' are used in other fields like biotechnology (e.g., for vaccine production or cell culture), the specific term "Membrane Bioreactors" when used in environmental discourse almost exclusively refers to their application in water and wastewater treatment.

Assisted reproductive technologies

Vaccine production technologies

Wastewater treatment technologies

With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of:

"Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are instruments primarily used in the **money market**. The money market deals with short-term borrowing and lending with maturities typically up to one year. Collateralized borrowing and lending refers to transactions where funds are borrowed or lent against the pledge of securities (like government bonds, treasury bills, or other debt instruments) as collateral. This reduces the risk for the lender. Examples include repo and reverse repo operations, collateralized lending under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) by the RBI, and interbank lending against collateral. * **Bond market:** Deals with long-term debt instruments (bonds). * **Forex market:** Deals with the exchange of currencies. * **Stock market:** Deals with the trading of equity (shares). While collateral can be used in other markets (e.g., for margin trading in stock markets), the specific phrase "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" typically refers to short-term, often overnight, transactions in the money market for liquidity management.

The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

The correct definition of the **Total Fertility Rate (TFR)** is **D) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.** Let's look at the other options: * **A) The number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year:** This describes the **Crude Birth Rate (CBR)**. * **B) The number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population:** This is a less precise definition and can be confused with TFR, but TFR specifically aggregates across all women in a population, assuming current age-specific fertility rates persist, and refers to a woman's lifetime. * **C) The birth rate minus death rate:** This calculates the **natural growth rate** of a population. TFR is a hypothetical measure that represents the average number of children that would be born to a woman over her lifetime if she were to experience the exact current age-specific fertility rates through her childbearing years, and she were to survive throughout her childbearing years. It's a standard demographic indicator used to assess fertility levels and future population trends.

the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

the birth rate minus death rate.

the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Consider the following statements : 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. **Statement 1 is incorrect.** In India, generally, only commercial banks and primary dealers (PDs) are allowed to access the Reserve Bank of India's (RBI) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) windows (repo and reverse repo) for short-term liquidity management. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) do not have direct access to the LAF. They meet their liquidity needs from banks or the money market. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), now primarily referred to as Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), are allowed to invest in Government Securities (G-Secs) in India, subject to certain limits and regulations set by the RBI and SEBI. This is a common channel for foreign investment into Indian debt markets. 3. **Statement 3 is correct.** Yes, in India, stock exchanges like the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) do offer separate trading platforms for debt instruments (e.g., corporate bonds, government securities, municipal bonds). These platforms facilitate the buying and selling of debt securities outside of the equity market. For instance, NSE has the 'Wholesale Debt Market' segment and BSE has the 'Debt Segment'. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below:

All three categories of entities can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities in India. 1. **Insurance Companies:** Insurance companies are significant institutional investors in India's debt markets. They invest a large portion of their policyholders' funds in stable, long-term instruments like corporate bonds and government securities to meet their long-term liabilities and regulatory requirements. They are major players in both primary and secondary debt markets. 2. **Pension Funds:** Pension funds (including the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation - EPFO, and those managed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority - PFRDA) are also major institutional investors. Their mandate is to generate long-term returns for pensioners, and they heavily invest in debt instruments, including G-Secs and corporate bonds, which offer stability and regular income. 3. **Retail Investors:** While institutional investors dominate the debt markets, retail investors can also trade in both government securities and corporate bonds. For G-Secs, the RBI has introduced initiatives like the 'RBI Retail Direct' scheme to allow individual investors direct access to buy and sell G-Secs. For corporate bonds, retail investors can invest through specific platforms on stock exchanges or through bond funds/ETFs. It's important to note that direct participation might be lower due to minimum investment sizes or complexity, but the option to trade exists. Therefore, all 1, 2, and 3 can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities.

Consider the following: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

Let's define and categorize each item: 1. **Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF):** Correct. ETFs are investment funds traded on stock exchanges, similar to stocks. They hold assets like stocks, bonds, or commodities and track an underlying index. They are definitely considered financial instruments. 2. **Motor vehicles:** Incorrect. Motor vehicles are physical assets, or capital goods, used for transportation. They are not financial instruments. A financial instrument is a monetary contract between parties, representing an asset for one party and a liability for another. 3. **Currency swap:** Correct. A currency swap is a financial derivative instrument where two parties exchange principal and/or interest payments on loans in different currencies. It is a type of over-the-counter (OTC) derivative. It is used for managing exchange rate risk or obtaining cheaper financing. Therefore, 1 and 3 are considered financial instruments.

With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Economic activity | Sector 1. Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary 2. Dairy farm | Primary 3. Mineral exploration | Tertiary 4. Weaving cloth | Secondary How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Three of the four pairs are correctly matched. 1. **Storage of agricultural produce — Secondary: Incorrect.** Storage/warehousing is a service activity and falls under the Tertiary sector, not Secondary (which covers manufacturing and processing). 2. **Dairy farm — Primary: Correct.** Dairy farming is part of animal husbandry, which is a primary-sector activity (direct use of natural resources). 3. **Mineral exploration — Tertiary: Correct.** Exploration (surveying, prospecting, geological assessment) is a service activity carried out before extraction, and is classified under the Tertiary sector. Actual mining/extraction would be Primary. 4. **Weaving cloth — Secondary: Correct.** Weaving transforms raw yarn into fabric and is a manufacturing activity under the Secondary sector. Hence, pairs 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched — Only three.

Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

All four listed materials can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). SAF is a biofuel used to power aircraft, designed to reduce aviation's carbon emissions, and can be produced from diverse biomass and waste streams. 1. **Agricultural residues:** Correct. Crop residues (corn stover, wheat straw, bagasse) are lignocellulosic biomass and a major SAF feedstock via Biomass-to-Liquid (BtL) or Alcohol-to-Jet (AtJ) pathways. 2. **Corn grain:** Correct. Sugar/starch crops can be converted to ethanol and then to SAF via the Alcohol-to-Jet (AtJ) pathway, despite the food-vs-fuel debate. 3. **Wastewater treatment sludge:** Correct. Sewage sludge and MSW can be converted to SAF through thermochemical routes such as gasification followed by Fischer-Tropsch synthesis. 4. **Wood mill waste:** Correct. Sawdust, wood chips and mill bark are lignocellulosic feedstocks suitable for SAF production through processes similar to those used for agricultural residues. Hence, all four are valid SAF feedstocks.

With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Items | Category 1. Farmer's plough | Working capital 2. Computer | Fixed capital 3. Yarn used by the weaver | Fixed capital 4. Petrol | Working capital How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Fixed capital refers to durable assets used in production over many cycles (machinery, tools, buildings). Working capital refers to inputs consumed in a single production cycle (raw materials, fuel). 1. **Farmer's plough — Working capital: Incorrect.** A plough is a durable implement used over many seasons; it is **Fixed capital**. 2. **Computer — Fixed capital: Correct.** Computers are durable equipment used over multiple production cycles. 3. **Yarn used by the weaver — Fixed capital: Incorrect.** Yarn is a raw material consumed when cloth is woven; it is **Working capital**. 4. **Petrol — Working capital: Correct.** Petrol is consumed in a single use; it is Working capital. Hence, only pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched — Only two.

Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote 'an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items'?

The description matches the **Metaverse** — a persistent, interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds accessed concurrently by many users, in which users can own and trade virtual assets (often via blockchain-based tokens like NFTs that confer property-like rights over digital items). * **Big data analytics** is about processing very large datasets to extract insights — unrelated to 3D virtual worlds. * **Cryptography** concerns secure communication and data protection; it underlies the property-rights layer of the metaverse but is not the term for the virtual world itself. * **Virtual matrix** is not an established technical term in this context. Hence, Metaverse is the correct answer.

With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements: 1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Under the RBI's framework for setting up of Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) by foreign banks in India: 1. **Statement 1 is incorrect.** The RBI prescribes a minimum initial paid-up voting equity capital of ₹500 crore for a WOS of a foreign bank. So there is a clear minimum capital requirement. 2. **Statement 2 is correct.** The WOS framework requires that not less than 50% of the directors of the WOS should be Indian nationals resident in India, to ensure local representation on the board. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

CSR in India is governed by Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules, 2014. 1. **Statement 1 is correct.** The CSR Rules explicitly exclude from 'CSR activities' any activity that benefits only the employees of the company and their families, as well as activities undertaken in the normal course of business of the company. Spends that directly benefit the company or its employees do not qualify as CSR. 2. **Statement 2 is incorrect.** Section 135 prescribes a clear minimum: every eligible company must spend at least **2% of the average net profits** of the immediately preceding three financial years on CSR activities. So a minimum spend is specified. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements : Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I. Statement-II is correct. US Treasury securities are famously backed only by the 'full faith and credit' of the United States government — that is, by its sovereign promise to pay, supported by its powers to tax, borrow and issue currency. Unlike a secured corporate bond, US government debt is not collateralised by any hard asset such as gold reserves, land or physical property pledged to the bondholders. Statement-I is correct. Because there is no hard asset backing the debt (Statement-II), bondholders have no collateral to seize or attach if the United States were to default. The 'claim' to payment is essentially a claim against the sovereign's promise, not against any identifiable asset. In the event of an actual default, holders of US Treasury Bonds would therefore have no practical means of exercising their claims — there is nothing concrete to enforce the claim against. (This is precisely why a US default is considered catastrophic: there is no fallback collateral.) Statement-II is the reason Statement-I holds: it is the absence of hard-asset backing (II) that leaves bondholders unable to exercise their claims on default (I). Hence Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I, and the answer is option A.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

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UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2024 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Prelims 2024 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

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Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Sta…	geography	D	View
2	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statemen…	geography	A	View
3	Consider the following: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products …	geography	D	View
4	Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 1. The isotherms deviate to the nor…	geography	A	View
5	Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world? (a) Algeria and Morocco (b) Botswana and Na…	geography	C	View
6	With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is …	geography	B	View
7	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II : Rain water contains…	geography	A	View
8	Consider the following countries : 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Se…	geography	B	View
9	Consider the following information (Waterfall — Region — River): 1. Dhuandhar — Malwa — Narmada 2. Hundru — Chota Nagpur — Subarnarekha 3. G…	geography	A	View
10	Consider the following information (Region — Name of the mountain range — Type of mountain): 1. Central Asia — Vosges — Fold mountain 2. Eur…	geography	B	View
11	Consider the following airports : 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recen…	geography	A	View
12	With reference to "water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altit…	geography	A	View
13	Consider the following description : 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Preci…	geography	A	View
14	With reference to "Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It …	geography	C	View
15	On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. …	geography	D	View
16	One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from …	geography	B	View
17	With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the followin…	geography	D	View
18	Consider the following : 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the abov…	geography	B	View
19	Consider the following plants : 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family?	geography	C	View
20	Consider the following statements : Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) A…	geography	C	View
21	The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:	science-and-technology	C	View
22	Consider the following statements : Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. S…	—	A	View
23	Consider the following pairs (Country — Animal found in its natural habitat): 1. Brazil — Indri 2. Indonesia — Elk 3. Madagascar — Bonobo Ho…	geography	D	View
24	Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization : 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet …	polity-and-governance	A	View
25	Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3…	geography	A	View
26	Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?	economy	A	View
27	Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are…	science-and-technology	D	View
28	Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollin…	geography	A	View
29	Consider the following : 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them?	geography	C	View
30	Consider the following : 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India?	geography	A	View
31	With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. …	science-and-technology	B	View
32	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant…	science-and-technology	D	View
33	Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?	science-and-technology	A	View
34	Consider the following activities : 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3…	science-and-technology	B	View
35	Consider the following aircraft : 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?	science-and-technology	D	View
36	In which of the following are hydrogels used? 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 3. Preparation of i…	science-and-technology	D	View
37	Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ?	science-and-technology	D	View
38	Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?	economy	C	View
39	"Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of:	science-and-technology	D	View
40	With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of:	economy	C	View
41	The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:	economy	D	View
42	Consider the following statements : 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the …	economy	D	View
43	In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail I…	economy	D	View
44	Consider the following: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial ins…	economy	D	View
45	With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Economic activity \| Sector 1. Storage of agricultural pro…	economy	C	View
46	Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the abov…	science-and-technology	C	View
47	With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Items \| Category 1. Farmer's plough \| Working capital 2.…	economy	B	View
48	Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote 'an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be acc…	science-and-technology	C	View
49	With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements: 1. Th…	economy	B	View
50	With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 1. CSR rules specify that expendi…	economy	A	View
51	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury …	economy	A	View
52	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement…	economy	C	View
53	Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee : 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) …	economy	D	View
54	With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets? 1. Nayaputta 2. Shakyamuni 3. Tathag…	history	B	View
55	Consider the following information (Archaeological Site — State — Description): 1. Chandraketugarh — Odisha — Trading port town 2. Inamgaon …	history	B	View
56	Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?	history	A	View
57	With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements: 1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collectio…	history	B	View
58	Consider the following statements : 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. Which of t…	art-and-culture	B	View
59	Consider the following statements : 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 2. A country needs to be a member of the Inter…	economy	A	View
60	Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?	art-and-culture	C	View
61	Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?	polity-and-governance	D	View
62	With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements : 1. It provided for the establishment of an All Indi…	polity-and-governance	A	View
63	Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?	art-and-culture	C	View
64	Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:	history	C	View
65	Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO: 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensemble…	art-and-culture	B	View
66	As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of : 1. Addition 2. Varia…	polity-and-governance	D	View
67	Consider the following countries : 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeria 4. South Korea 5. South Africa Which of the above countries are frequently m…	geography	A	View
68	Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in res…	polity-and-governance	C	View
69	Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? (Army — Airforce…	polity-and-governance	D	View
70	The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the …	polity-and-governance	D	View
71	How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?	polity-and-governance	D	View
72	The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. K…	polity-and-governance	A	View
73	Consider the following pairs (Party — Its Leader): 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalac…	history	B	View
74	Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the…	polity-and-governance	D	View
75	Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?	polity-and-governance	C	View
76	Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ?	polity-and-governance	D	View
77	What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of St…	polity-and-governance	D	View
78	Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is c…	polity-and-governance	C	View
79	The longest border between any two countries in the world is between :	geography	A	View
80	Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only …	polity-and-governance	C	View
81	Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' : 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2.…	polity-and-governance	C	View
82	Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Ba…	polity-and-governance	D	View
83	A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :	polity-and-governance	C	View
84	Consider the following statements : 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Schedule…	polity-and-governance	B	View
85	With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements : 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the A…	—	B	View
86	Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters”?	polity-and-governance	D	View
87	Consider the following pairs (Country — Reason for being in the news): 1. Argentina — Worst economic crisis 2. Sudan — War between the count…	polity-and-governance	B	View
88	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Euro…	geography	A	View
89	Consider the following statements : 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from river…	geography	C	View
90	According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?	geography	D	View
91	Consider the following statements : Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II : T…	polity-and-governance	A	View
92	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II : In India, t…	economy	D	View
93	With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of t…	polity-and-governance	A	View
94	With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2.…	polity-and-governance	B	View
95	Consider the following statements: Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II: The Euro…	polity-and-governance	C	View
96	With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements : 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum p…	polity-and-governance	B	View
97	Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded i…	economy	D	View
98	With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements : 1. To implement the scheme, th…	polity-and-governance	D	View
99	With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. The entry age group for en…	economy	B	View
100	With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The scheme aims to open b…	economy	C	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

79 / 79

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Consider the sequence: ABC _ _ ABC _ DABBCD _ ABCD Which one of the following completes the sequence?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
2	According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is los…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
3	As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households. Higher interest rates…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
4	As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households. Higher interest rates…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
5	Which is the least possible number of cuts required to cut a cube into 64 identical pieces?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
6	The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the averag…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
7	What is the number of numbers of the form 0.xy, where x and y are distinct non-zero digits?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
8	The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
9	There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. I…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
10	One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to be used in forming passwords, such that each passw…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
11	What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
12	15 × 14 × 13 × … × 3 × 2 × 1 = 3 m × n 12. 15 × 14 × 13 × … × 3 × 2 × 1 = 3 m × n Where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maxi…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
13	How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient? In this conte…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
14	There are two containers X and Y. X contains 100 ml of milk and Y contains 100 ml of water. 20 ml of milk from X is transferred to Y. After …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
15	Consider the following statements: 1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide. 2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:5…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
16	Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a prime number and q is a composite number: 1. p …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
17	Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If p x q = 2430, then what is the differ…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
18	What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
19	Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
20	"The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must the…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
21	When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. When 60% of the number x is added to another nu…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
22	Consider the following statements in respect of a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 8 cm: 1. It is possible to cut the sheet exa…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
23	What is the remainder when 91x92x93x94x95x96x97x98x99 is divided by 1261?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
24	24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men and 24 women do the same piece of work?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
25	There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How many right-angled triangles can be drawn using these points as vertices and taking the d…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
26	There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN fro…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
27	Let A, B and C represent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetit…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
28	In an economic organization, allowing mankind to benefit by the productivity of machines should lead to a very good life of leisure, and muc…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
29	Six lectures A B C D E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 am, and 2:00 p.m. Consider the Question and two Statemen…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
30	Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Question: What is the age of Manisha? Statement- 1: Manisha is 24 years younger than h…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
31	Six Persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant form each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table). Consider t…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
32	A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A B C D E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three ti…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
33	A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
34	Five friends P. O, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below: 1. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did.…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
35	Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre of the table, not neces…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
36	Three Statements followed by three Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at varian…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
37	Two Statements followed by four Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
38	Consider the Question Statements given below in respect of and two three cities P, Q and R in a State: \ Question: How far is city P from ci…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
39	P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. R is the spouse of Q, U is the mother of T and S is the daughter of U. P's daughter is T an…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
40	D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between the digit at the h…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
41	If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E, and F are distinct non-zero digits such that ABC+ DEF= 1111, then what is t…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
42	What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242)^(9×7×5×3×1)?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
43	What is the remainder when 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 is divided by 100?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
44	There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one envelope with the correct address. If the lette…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
45	In how many ways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring s…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
46	Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by one (without replac…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
47	In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive capabilities to climate change, perhaps becau…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
48	More than half of Indian women and almost a quarter of Indian men of working age suffer from anaemia. According to studies, they are anywher…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
49	We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters. Of the 20 major river system, 14 are already water-stressed…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
50	A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. A alone works on Monday, B alone works on Tuesday, C…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
51	How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions a…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
52	125 identical cubes are arranged in the form of cubical block. How many cubes are surrounded by other cubes from each side?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
53	For any choices of values of X,Y and Z, the 6 digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by :	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
54	A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. What is the value of A+B+C?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
55	Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c 1. p + c / p - c can be even. 2. 2p + c can be odd. 3. pc can be …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
56	Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following: 1. p …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
57	Many people are not eating the right food. For some, it is simply a decision to stick with food they enjoy but which is not too healthy. Thi…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
58	Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea ap…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
59	The emissions humans put into the atmosphere now will affect the climate in the middle of the century and onwards. Technological change, mea…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
60	ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can b…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
61	What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
62	Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
63	A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
64	If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q)(r + s) ?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
65	Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x . How many values of x are possible?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
66	If 7 ⊕ 9 ⊕ 10 = 8, 9 ⊕ 11 ⊕ 30 = 5, 11 ⊕ 17 ⊕ 21 = 13 , what is the value of 23 ⊕ 4 ⊕ 15 ?	Logical Reasoning	A	View
67	Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
68	Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governanc…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
69	To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use of odd-even number scheme for vehi…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
70	Choose the group which is different from the others:	Logical Reasoning	D	View
71	Consider the following including the Question and the Statements: There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family. Question: What is the relat…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
72	Consider the following statements : 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
73	If 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR', then how is 'PLAYER' written ?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
74	A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following state…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
75	Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutr…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
76	There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still y…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
77	There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still y…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
78	In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three- fourths of th…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
79	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. …	Reading Comprehension	D	View

Official cutoff — 2024

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 87.98
EWS: 85.92
OBC: 87.28
SC: 79.03
ST: 74.23

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

geography30 (30%)
polity-and-governance27 (27%)
economy19 (19%)
science-and-technology12 (12%)
history6 (6%)
art-and-culture4 (4%)
Others2 (2%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2024 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2024?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2024 was 87.98 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2024 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2024 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2024 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2024 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2023 All years Prelims 2025

UPSC Prelims 2024 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

Official cutoff — 2024

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

Other UPSC Prelims years