"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

The "Rapid Financing Instrument" (RFI) and "Rapid Credit Facility" (RCF) are indeed lending facilities provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The RFI provides rapid financial assistance to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need, including those arising from commodity price shocks, natural disasters, and conflicts. It is available to all member countries, and there is no ex-post conditionality or reviews. The RCF provides rapid financial assistance, with limited conditionality, to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments need. Both instruments are designed to provide quick disbursements to help countries address immediate financial challenges without the need for a full-fledged IMF program, which typically involves more extensive policy commitments and reviews.

United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a weighted average of a country's currency in relation to a basket of other major currencies, adjusted for inflation. Statement 2 is incorrect. An increase in REER indicates that the domestic currency has become more expensive relative to trading partners in real terms, which means a loss of trade competitiveness, not an improvement. Statement 3 is correct. REER is used as an indicator of whether the currency is overvalued or undervalued relative to its trading partners. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's evaluate each statement: 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities: To control high inflation, RBI typically aims to reduce the money supply in the economy. Buying government securities (Open Market Operations - OMOs) injects liquidity into the system, which would worsen inflation. Instead, RBI would sell government securities to absorb liquidity. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market: When the rupee depreciates rapidly, it means the rupee is losing value against the dollar. To arrest this depreciation and strengthen the rupee, RBI can intervene in the foreign exchange market by selling dollars from its foreign exchange reserves. This increases the supply of dollars and reduces the supply of rupees, thereby supporting the rupee's value. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars: A fall in interest rates in the USA or EU would make investments in those regions less attractive for global investors. This could lead to capital (dollars) flowing out of those economies and into economies like India, where returns might be relatively higher. An increased inflow of dollars into India would put upward pressure on the rupee (rupee appreciation). To prevent a sharp appreciation of the rupee, which could hurt exports, RBI might intervene by buying dollars from the market, thus injecting rupees and maintaining exchange rate stability. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements: 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's examine each statement regarding the "G20 Common Framework": 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club: The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI) was indeed endorsed by the G20 and the Paris Club in November 2020. Its purpose was to facilitate timely and orderly debt treatment for low-income countries with unsustainable debt. This statement is correct. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt: The primary objective of the Common Framework is to provide a structured approach for debt restructuring for eligible low-income countries (LICs) that are experiencing or at risk of debt distress. It goes beyond the DSSI by offering actual debt restructuring rather than just suspension. This statement is correct.

With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)": 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs: IIBs offer investors protection against inflation, as their principal and/or interest payments are adjusted for inflation. Because investors are insulated from inflation risk, they are often willing to accept a lower real interest rate (or coupon rate) compared to conventional bonds, which do not offer such protection. This allows the government to potentially reduce its borrowing costs. This statement is correct. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation: This is the primary advantage of IIBs. The principal value and/or interest payments of IIBs are indexed to a measure of inflation (e.g., CPI), ensuring that the real value of the investment is preserved, protecting investors from the erosive effects of unexpected inflation. This statement is correct. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable: In India, the interest received on IIBs is taxable as 'income from other sources,' and any capital gains arising from their sale are also subject to capital gains tax as per the applicable tax laws. They are not exempt from taxation. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. 2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under India's FDI policy, foreign-owned e-commerce entities operating under the marketplace model are not permitted to sell goods owned by them directly to consumers. They can only provide a platform for third-party sellers. Statement 2 is correct. FDI policy restricts the equity that a foreign e-commerce entity or its group companies can hold in seller entities on their platform, to prevent them from influencing pricing and inventory. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The "real sector" of an economy refers to the part of the economy that produces goods and services, as opposed to the "financial sector" which deals with financial assets and services. Let's analyze each activity: 1. Farmers harvesting their crops: This is a direct act of producing agricultural goods. It clearly belongs to the real sector (primary sector within the real economy). This statement is correct. 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics: This is a manufacturing activity, transforming raw materials into finished goods. It belongs to the real sector (secondary sector within the real economy). This statement is correct. 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company: This is a financial intermediation activity. Banks facilitate the flow of funds from savers to borrowers, which is part of the financial sector, not the real sector's production of goods and services. This statement is incorrect. 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas: This is a fundraising activity in the capital markets, involving financial instruments (bonds). This also belongs to the financial sector, as it facilitates capital flows, rather than directly producing goods or services. This statement is incorrect.

Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

"Indirect Transfers" in the Indian context became a prominent discussion point due to the Vodafone tax case. It refers to a situation where the ownership of assets located in India is transferred indirectly through the sale or transfer of shares of an overseas company. Specifically, if a foreign company holds shares in another foreign company, and these underlying shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India, then the transfer of shares of the *first* foreign company (outside India) is considered an "indirect transfer" of assets located in India. The Indian Income Tax Act was amended in 2012 (with retrospective effect) to tax such indirect transfers, aiming to assert India's right to tax capital gains arising from the transfer of Indian assets, even if the transaction takes place overseas between two foreign entities. Option D precisely describes this scenario: A foreign company transfers shares (e.g., of another foreign entity) and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India. This is the essence of an indirect transfer as defined and targeted by Indian tax laws.

An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment

A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment

An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India

A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Let's analyze the statements regarding expenditure made by an organization or a company: 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure: Capital expenditure (CapEx) refers to funds used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. New technology (e.g., specialized software, machinery, patents, R&D leading to new products) is an asset that provides benefits over a long period. Therefore, its acquisition is considered capital expenditure. This statement is correct. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure: Debt financing (borrowing money) and equity financing (raising money by issuing shares) are methods of *raising capital* (financing activities), not types of *expenditure* (spending money). Expenditure refers to the use of funds to acquire assets or incur costs. Capital expenditure involves spending on assets with long-term benefits, while revenue expenditure involves spending on day-to-day operations. Financing activities are distinct from expenditure. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding the Indian economy and government borrowings: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings: Households save a significant portion of their income through various financial instruments like bank deposits, small savings schemes (e.g., PPF, NSC), insurance, and mutual funds. These savings are then channeled by financial intermediaries (banks, insurance companies, provident funds) into investments, including government securities. Commercial banks, for instance, are mandated to hold a certain portion of their deposits in government securities (Statutory Liquidity Ratio - SLR), effectively using household savings to finance government debt. This statement is correct. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt: Dated securities are long-term government bonds that have a fixed maturity period. The Indian government raises a substantial portion of its internal debt by issuing these securities through auctions conducted by the RBI, where the interest rates are determined by market forces. These securities are indeed a very large and crucial component of the government's internal debt. This statement is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's evaluate each statement: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed: The H.N. Sanyal Committee was constituted in 1961 to examine the law relating to contempt of court. Based on its recommendations, the Contempt of Courts Act was enacted in 1971. This statement is correct. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves: Article 129 of the Constitution declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record and vests it with the power to punish for its contempt. Similarly, Article 215 states that every High Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court, including the power to punish for contempt of itself. This statement is correct. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt: The Constitution of India does not define civil contempt and criminal contempt. These definitions are provided in Section 2 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. This statement is incorrect. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court: Article 122 of the Constitution of India implicitly empowers Parliament to make laws for regulating the practice and procedure of the courts. Additionally, Entry 77 and Entry 78 of the Union List (List I of Seventh Schedule) give Parliament the power to make laws relating to the Supreme Court and High Courts, including their powers and jurisdiction. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, is an example of Parliament exercising this power. This statement is correct.

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's examine the statements regarding the legal profession in India: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates: The Advocates Act, 1961, governs the legal profession in India. It defines who is an 'advocate' and the process of enrolment with the Bar Council. An individual, upon obtaining a law degree and fulfilling the prescribed conditions (like passing the All India Bar Examination), can enroll as an advocate. This applies irrespective of whether they work as government law officers, in legal firms, as corporate lawyers, or as patent attorneys. If they are enrolled with a Bar Council, they are recognised as advocates. Therefore, the statement that corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are 'excluded' from recognition as advocates is incorrect. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges: Under the Advocates Act, 1961, the Bar Council of India (BCI) is the apex regulatory body for the legal profession and legal education in India. It is empowered to lay down standards of legal education and has the authority to recognise universities whose degrees in law shall be a qualification for enrolment as an advocate. State Bar Councils also have powers concerning enrolment and professional conduct. This statement is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding a bill amending the Constitution: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India: A Bill for the amendment of the Constitution (under Article 368) can be introduced in either House of Parliament without the prior recommendation of the President. This is a key distinction from certain other types of bills (e.g., Money Bills). Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent: The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill, meaning the President cannot withhold assent or return the bill for reconsideration. This statement is correct. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by each House of Parliament by a special majority (i.e., a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock over a Constitution Amendment Bill; if one House rejects the bill or proposes amendments not acceptable to the other, the bill fails. This statement is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's evaluate the statements regarding the Union Government: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into these specific ranks. The categorization of ministers into Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State (Independent Charge), Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers is based on parliamentary conventions, government rules of business, and administrative convenience, not explicit constitutional provisions. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 added Article 75(1A) which mandates that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This was done to limit the size of the Council of Ministers. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Let's examine which of the given powers are exclusive to the Lok Sabha: 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency: A proclamation of emergency (National, State, or Financial) must be approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). It is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers: Under Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Therefore, a motion of no-confidence can only be moved and passed in the Lok Sabha. If passed, the Council of Ministers must resign. This is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 3. To impeach the President of India: The impeachment process for the President can be initiated in either House of Parliament. The resolution for impeachment needs to be passed by a special majority in the House where it is initiated and then sent to the other House for investigation and passing by a special majority. It is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule), a nominated member of a House is allowed to join a political party within six months of taking their seat. If they join after six months, they are disqualified. Statement 2 is correct. The Tenth Schedule does not prescribe a specific time-frame within which the Presiding Officer must decide a defection case. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding the Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India: Article 88 of the Constitution grants the Attorney General for India the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. However, the Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitors General are law officers who assist the Attorney General, but they do not have the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns: The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 76(4)). While it is a well-established convention that the Attorney General resigns when the government (Council of Ministers) that appointed him resigns, this is a convention, not a constitutional mandate. The Constitution does not explicitly state that the AG must resign when the government changes. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Analysis of the three statements on writs issued by Indian Courts: Statement 1 is correct. Mandamus (literally 'we command') is a writ commanding a public authority to perform a public or statutory duty it has failed to discharge. As a general rule it does not lie against a private individual or a purely private organisation. The well-established exception is that if a private body has been entrusted with a public duty (statutory or otherwise), mandamus can be issued against it to enforce that duty. So the statement is accurate. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Government Company (e.g., a Public Sector Undertaking) is treated as an instrumentality of the State under Article 12 (per R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority, Sukhdev Singh v. Bhagatram, etc.) and is amenable to writ jurisdiction. Where such a company is discharging a public function or a public/statutory duty, the writ of mandamus can certainly be issued against it. The blanket assertion that mandamus 'will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company' is therefore wrong. Statement 3 is correct. Quo Warranto (literally 'by what authority') calls upon a person holding a public office to show under what authority they hold it. Unlike most other writs, the rule of locus standi is relaxed for Quo Warranto — any public-spirited person (not just the aggrieved party) can move the High Court or Supreme Court for this writ to challenge an illegal usurpation of public office. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, and the answer is option C.

With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's evaluate the statements regarding Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM): 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it: The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) aims to create a digital health ecosystem and encourages the adoption of its standards and services by healthcare providers, including private and public hospitals. However, participation and adoption are voluntary, not mandatory. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately: While the ABDM aims to contribute to universal health coverage by creating a comprehensive digital health infrastructure, participation for individual citizens (e.g., creating a Health ID) is voluntary. It is not mandatory for every citizen to be part of it. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. 3. It has seamless portability across the country: A key objective and feature of the ABDM is to enable seamless portability of health records, services, and information across different healthcare providers and geographic locations within the country. This is facilitated through unique Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts (ABHA IDs) and digital health records. This statement is correct.

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix: Rule 8(1) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha states that the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. This statement is correct. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party: There is no such mandatory provision in the Constitution or the Rules of Procedure. While it has become a convention since the 11th Lok Sabha (1996) that the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the principal opposition party, this is a convention, not a mandatory provision. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings: When the Speaker's office is vacant or the Speaker is absent from a sitting of the House, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker and exercises all the powers of the Speaker. In such a scenario, their rulings have the same authority as the Speaker's and cannot be appealed against within the House. This statement is correct. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister: The election of the Deputy Speaker is carried out by a motion moved by a member and seconded by another member of the House, and then put to a vote. It is not a practice that the motion is moved by the Speaker and seconded by the Prime Minister directly. Therefore, statement 4 is incorrect.

Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

Among the given crops, rice (paddy) cultivation is the most significant anthropogenic (human-induced) source of both methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O). Methane is produced primarily due to anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in the continuously flooded conditions of paddy fields. The oxygen-deficient environment in waterlogged soils promotes the activity of methanogenic bacteria. Nitrous oxide emissions from rice fields occur due to the nitrification and denitrification processes in the soil, influenced by fertilizer application and alternating wet and dry conditions. While other agricultural activities contribute to these greenhouse gases, rice cultivation stands out as a major contributor to both.

"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in : 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below:

All three statements about the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) are correct: 1. SRI uses significantly fewer seeds compared to conventional rice cultivation — typically 2 kg per acre versus 30-40 kg, as seedlings are transplanted individually at wider spacing. 2. SRI's practice of alternate wetting and drying reduces the duration of anaerobic conditions in paddy fields, which reduces methane production. 3. SRI requires less water due to alternate wetting and drying, which reduces the need for pumping water and consequently reduces electricity consumption. Therefore, all three statements (1, 2 and 3) are correct.

Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

Lake Faguibine, located in Mali, West Africa, is a large, shallow lake that was once an important source of livelihood for local communities. However, due to prolonged droughts, reduced inflows from the Niger River (which is its main source of water), and climate change impacts, the lake has largely dried up and its basin has turned into a desertified area, severely impacting the local ecosystem and human populations. This environmental disaster highlights the vulnerability of freshwater resources in arid and semi-arid regions.

Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?

The Gandikota canyon, often referred to as the 'Grand Canyon of India,' is a spectacular gorge formed by the Pennar River (also spelled Penner or Penna) in Andhra Pradesh, India. The river cuts through the Erramala hills, creating a deep and narrow canyon with towering rock formations. The historical Gandikota Fort is also located nearby, adding to its significance.

Consider the following pairs: Peak Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa: Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi: Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek: Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Let's evaluate the given pairs: 1. Namcha Barwa: Garhwal Himalaya - Namcha Barwa is a mountain in the Himalayas, located in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China and close to the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. It is part of the Eastern Himalayas, not the Garhwal Himalaya (which is in Uttarakhand). So, this pair is incorrectly matched. 2. Nanda Devi: Kumaon Himalaya - Nanda Devi is the second-highest mountain in India and is located in the Garhwal Himalayas region of Uttarakhand, which is a part of the larger Kumaon Himalaya range. So, this pair is correctly matched. 3. Nokrek: Sikkim Himalaya - Nokrek Peak is the highest point of the Garo Hills in the Indian state of Meghalaya, in the North-Eastern region. It is not located in the Sikkim Himalaya. So, this pair is incorrectly matched.

The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

The term "Levant" refers to a geographical and cultural region in the Eastern Mediterranean. It historically includes countries like Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel, Palestine, and parts of Turkey and Egypt. It is a region of great historical, cultural, and geopolitical significance, often associated with the Fertile Crescent and various ancient civilizations. The term is frequently used in news and academic contexts when discussing the geopolitics, conflicts, and history of this specific part of the Middle East, particularly its coastal areas along the Mediterranean Sea.

Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa

The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea

Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan ?

Afghanistan is bordered by six countries. To its north lie the Central Asian republics of Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan. To its west is Iran, to its south and east is Pakistan, and to its far northeast, it shares a short border with China. Therefore, among the given options: Tajikistan (3), Turkmenistan (4), and Uzbekistan (5) share borders with Afghanistan. Azerbaijan (1) and Kyrgyzstan (2) do not share a direct border with Afghanistan.

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Statement 1: Monazite is indeed a primary source of rare earth elements (REEs), which are crucial for various high-tech industries. Statement 2: Monazite is a radioactive mineral that contains significant amounts of thorium, a naturally occurring radioactive element. It is often a co-product of rare earth extraction. Statement 3: While monazite sands are found along various parts of the Indian coastline, particularly in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha, it does not occur naturally in the *entire* Indian coastal sands. Its presence is concentrated in certain stretches due to specific geological conditions. Statement 4: In India, the mining, processing, and export of monazite, due to its thorium content (a prescribed substance under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962), are under the strict control of the Department of Atomic Energy. Therefore, only government bodies or their authorized entities are allowed to process or export monazite. Based on this, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the :

In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year occurs around June 21st, which is known as the Summer Solstice. On this day, the Earth's Northern Hemisphere is tilted most directly towards the Sun, resulting in the longest period of daylight and the shortest night of the year. June 21st falls in the second half of the month of June.

First half of the month of June

Second half of the month of June

First half of the month of July

Second half of the month of July

Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake Location 1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only two pairs are correctly matched. 1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab: Incorrect. Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu & Kashmir, near Srinagar. It is a Ramsar site situated along the western edge of Dal Lake. 2. Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh: Correct. Renuka Wetland (Renuka Lake) is located in Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh. It is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh and a designated Ramsar site. 3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura: Correct. Rudrasagar Lake is located in Melaghar, Tripura. It is a Ramsar site known for the historic Neermahal (Water Palace) situated in its centre. 4. Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu: Incorrect. Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kollam district of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala and a designated Ramsar site.

Consider the following : 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

All four platforms are built as open-source: 1. Aarogya Setu: Open-source — its source code was made publicly available on GitHub. 2. CoWIN: Open-source — the CoWIN platform and its APIs were made open-source, and India offered the platform to other countries. 3. DigiLocker: Open-source — built on open-source technologies. 4. DIKSHA: Open-source — built on the Sunbird open-source platform. Therefore, all four (1, 2, 3 and 4) are built on open-source digital platforms.

With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Web 3.0 represents the next generation of the internet, characterized by decentralization, user control over data, and enhanced interactivity, often leveraging technologies like blockchain, AI, and machine learning. Let's analyze the statements: 1. **Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data:** This is a core tenet of Web 3.0. Unlike Web 2.0 where large corporations often control user data, Web 3.0 aims to empower users with greater control and ownership of their digital identity and data, often through decentralized technologies. 2. **In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks:** Yes, blockchain technology is a foundational element for many Web 3.0 applications, including decentralized social networks (DeSoc). These networks aim to provide censorship resistance, user ownership of content, and transparency. 3. **Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation:** This reflects the decentralized and community-governed nature of Web 3.0. Projects are often managed by DAOs (Decentralized Autonomous Organizations) or other community-driven models, where users, token holders, or participants have a say in the platform's development and governance, moving away from centralized corporate control. All three statements accurately reflect the characteristics and aspirations of Web 3.0.

With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements: 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. 2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model where a cloud provider hosts applications and makes them available to end-users over the internet. Let's examine the statements: 1. **SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields:** While the core software remains with the provider, many SaaS applications offer significant customization options. Users can often tailor the user interface (UI) to their preferences, create custom dashboards, and define or modify data fields to suit their specific business or personal needs within the application's framework. This is a common feature differentiating SaaS from basic web apps. 2. **SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices:** This is a key advantage of SaaS. Since the software and data are cloud-hosted, they can be accessed from any device with an internet connection, including mobile phones, tablets, and laptops, making it highly flexible and accessible. 3. **Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS:** These web-based email services are quintessential examples of SaaS. Users access the email application and store their data (emails, contacts) on the provider's servers (Microsoft for Outlook/Hotmail, Yahoo for Yahoo! Mail) via a web browser, without needing to install any software locally. The service is provided "as a service" over the internet. All three statements accurately describe features and examples of SaaS.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?

The "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" (FOBS) was a Cold War-era concept developed by the Soviet Union. It involved launching a nuclear warhead into a low Earth orbit (not a full orbit, but a 'fractional' one) from which it could be de-orbited at any point along its trajectory to strike a target. The key characteristic was its ability to approach a target from any direction, making it harder to detect and defend against compared to traditional Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) which follow predictable trajectories. The system would only complete a partial orbit before de-orbiting its payload for impact.

A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.

A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.

A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.

A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned ?

A "qubit" (quantum bit) is the basic unit of information in quantum computing. Unlike a classical bit, which can only represent a 0 or a 1, a qubit can represent 0, 1, or a superposition of both 0 and 1 simultaneously. This property, along with entanglement, allows quantum computers to perform certain calculations exponentially faster than classical computers. Therefore, the term "qubit" is directly associated with Quantum Computing.

Visible Light Communication Technologies

Wireless Communication Technologies

Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?

Let's evaluate each technology for its range: 1. **Closed-circuit Television (CCTV):** While CCTV systems can be networked over long distances, the cameras themselves and their immediate connections to recorders often involve short-range cabling or localized wireless links. The primary function of a CCTV system is typically local monitoring within a defined, relatively small area (e.g., building, parking lot), making it a short-range technology in its typical deployment. 2. **Radio Frequency Identification (RFID):** RFID systems use electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects. The range for RFID is generally short, from a few centimeters (for NFC-like applications) to several meters, depending on the frequency and power of the reader and tag type. It is inherently a short-range technology. 3. **Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN):** WLAN, commonly known as Wi-Fi, is designed to provide wireless internet access or network connectivity over a limited geographical area, such as a home, office, or public hotspot. Its range is typically tens to hundreds of meters, classifying it as a short-range communication technology compared to cellular networks or satellite communication. All three technologies are indeed considered short-range devices or technologies in their common applications and definitions.

Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Biofilms are complex communities of microorganisms (like bacteria, fungi, and protists) that adhere to surfaces and are encased in a self-produced polymeric matrix, often slimy. Let's analyze the statements: 1. **Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues:** Yes, this is a major concern in healthcare. Biofilms commonly form on medical devices like catheters, prosthetics, and implants, leading to persistent and difficult-to-treat infections due to their protective matrix. 2. **Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces:** Absolutely. Biofilms can readily form on surfaces in food processing environments (e.g., pipelines, cutting boards) and on food itself, leading to food spoilage, contamination, and foodborne illnesses. 3. **Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance:** This is one of the most critical aspects of biofilms. The extracellular matrix and the altered physiological state of cells within a biofilm provide significant protection against antibiotics, disinfectants, and the host immune system, making biofilm-associated infections notoriously difficult to eradicate. This is known as biofilm-mediated resistance. All three statements are correct regarding biofilms.

Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding probiotics: 1. **Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast:** Correct. Probiotics are live microorganisms, primarily bacteria (such as Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium species), but some also contain beneficial yeasts (like Saccharomyces boulardii). 2. **The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut:** Incorrect. While many probiotic organisms are found in fermented foods, the beneficial bacteria and yeasts used in probiotics *do* naturally occur in the human gut microbiome and are essential for its health. Probiotic supplements aim to augment or restore these natural populations. 3. **Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars:** Correct. Many probiotic bacteria produce enzymes, like lactase, which help break down lactose (milk sugar). This is why probiotics are often recommended for individuals with lactose intolerance, as they can aid in the digestion of dairy products and alleviate associated symptoms. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding COVID-19 vaccines: 1. **The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform:** Incorrect. Covishield, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India, is the AstraZeneca vaccine which uses a **viral vector platform** (specifically, a chimpanzee adenovirus vector), not an mRNA platform. mRNA vaccines (like Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna) use messenger RNA to instruct cells to produce a harmless piece of the spike protein. 2. **Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform:** Correct. The Sputnik V vaccine, developed by Russia's Gamaleya Research Institute, uses two different human adenoviral vectors (Ad26 and Ad5) in a prime-boost approach. This is a classic viral vector platform. 3. **COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine:** Correct. COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with ICMR-NIV, is an inactivated vaccine. This means it uses a whole, inactivated (killed) SARS-CoV-2 virus that cannot cause disease but can still trigger an immune response. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A major solar storm (solar flare or Coronal Mass Ejection - CME) releases charged particles and electromagnetic radiation that can interact with Earth's magnetosphere and atmosphere, leading to various effects: 1. **GPS and navigation systems could fail:** Correct. Solar storms can disrupt the ionosphere, affecting radio signals used by GPS satellites, leading to inaccuracies or complete outages of navigation and positioning systems. 2. **Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions:** Incorrect. Tsunamis are caused by large-scale displacement of water, typically due to underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides. Solar storms do not directly cause tsunamis. 3. **Power grids could be damaged:** Correct. Geomagnetic storms induced by solar flares can cause large currents in long power transmission lines, potentially leading to widespread power outages and damage to transformers. 4. **Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth:** Correct. Solar storm particles interact with Earth's magnetic field and atmosphere, causing beautiful and intense auroras (Northern and Southern Lights). During strong storms, auroras can be seen at lower latitudes than usual. 5. **Forest fires could take place over much of the planet:** Incorrect. Solar storms do not directly cause forest fires. Forest fires are typically caused by human activity, lightning, or extreme heat and dryness. 6. **Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed:** Correct. Increased atmospheric drag caused by the heated and expanded upper atmosphere during solar storms can significantly affect the orbits of low-Earth orbit satellites, requiring re-boosting or leading to earlier re-entry. 7. **Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted:** Correct. Polar regions are particularly vulnerable to solar storm effects due to the way Earth's magnetic field channels charged particles. This can lead to severe disruptions in high-frequency (shortwave) radio communications, crucial for aircraft flying over these areas. Therefore, statements 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 are possible effects of a major solar storm on Earth.

"Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :

The "Climate Action Tracker" (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis that tracks climate action and measures countries' commitments against the globally agreed Paris Agreement temperature limit. It is produced by a coalition of two research organizations: Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute. It is not an official body or committee under the IPCC or UNFCCC, nor is it directly promoted or financed by UNEP or World Bank. Its strength lies in its independent assessment of countries' climate pledges.

Database created by coalition of research organisations

Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"

Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"

Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Consider the following statements : 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition". Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. **"The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.** Correct. The Climate Group is indeed an international non-profit focused on accelerating climate action through various initiatives and networks globally. 2. **The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".** Incorrect. EP100 was launched by The Climate Group itself in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy. While the International Energy Agency (IEA) is a significant partner in promoting energy efficiency globally and collaborates with various entities, it was not the co-launcher of EP100 with The Climate Group. The Climate Group is the primary driver of the EP100 initiative. 3. **EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.** Correct. EP100 (Energy Productivity 100) is a global initiative that encourages businesses to commit to improving their energy productivity by doubling economic output per unit of energy consumed, leading to both financial benefits and emission reductions. 4. **Some Indian companies are members of EP100.** Correct. Several Indian companies, including Mahindra & Mahindra, Dalmia Cement (Bharat) Limited, and Infosys, have joined the EP100 initiative, committing to significant energy efficiency improvements. 5. **The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".** Incorrect. The "Under2 Coalition" is a global coalition of states, regions, and subnational governments committed to ambitious climate action. It is convened by The Climate Group and RMI (Rocky Mountain Institute), not the International Energy Agency. Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

"If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

The analogy of wetlands functioning as the Earth's "kidneys" directly relates to their role in filtering and purifying water. Just as kidneys filter waste products from the blood, wetlands act as natural filters for water bodies. Among the given options: A) The water cycle aspects (surface runoff, subsoil percolation, evaporation) describe general hydrological processes, not specifically the filtering function of kidneys. B) Algae forming a nutrient base describes the role of wetlands in supporting biodiversity, which is important, but not directly analogous to filtration. C) Maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization describes a geomorphological function, not the filtering function implied by "kidneys." D) Aquatic plants absorbing heavy metals and excess nutrients directly corresponds to the filtration and purification role. Wetlands remove pollutants like excess nitrates, phosphates, and heavy metals from water, improving water quality, much like kidneys remove toxins from the body. This process is known as phytoremediation and nutrient cycling. Therefore, option D best reflects the analogy.

The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.

Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding WHO Air Quality Guidelines: 1. **The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.** Correct. These are the guideline values set by the WHO in its 2021 Global Air Quality Guidelines. These are significantly stricter than previous guidelines, emphasizing the health risks of even low levels of PM2.5. 2. **In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.** Incorrect. Ozone (ground-level ozone) is a secondary pollutant formed when pollutants from vehicles and industries react with sunlight. Therefore, ozone pollution typically peaks during warm, sunny, and stagnant weather conditions, not inclement (stormy or bad) weather. 3. **PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.** Incorrect. PM10 (particulate matter with a diameter of 10 micrometers or less) can penetrate deep into the lungs. However, it is primarily PM2.5 (particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or less) and even finer ultrafine particles that are small enough to pass through the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream, causing systemic health effects. 4. **Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.** Correct. Ground-level ozone is a powerful respiratory irritant. Exposure to high levels of ozone can inflame and damage the airways, trigger asthma attacks, worsen other respiratory conditions like bronchitis and emphysema, and increase susceptibility to respiratory infections. Therefore, statements 1 and 4 are correct.

With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the statements about "Gucchi" (also known as Morel mushroom): 1. **It is a fungus.** Correct. Gucchi (Morchella esculenta) is a species of edible mushroom, which is a type of fungus. It is highly prized for its unique flavor and texture. 2. **It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.** Correct. Gucchi mushrooms are wild mushrooms that are found in temperate forests, particularly in the foothills and higher reaches of the Himalayas in regions like Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, usually after the snowfall season. 3. **It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.** Incorrect. Gucchi mushrooms are extremely difficult to cultivate commercially on a large scale due to their specific and complex symbiotic relationship with trees and soil conditions. They are primarily harvested from the wild, which contributes to their high price and rarity. While there might be experimental attempts, large-scale commercial cultivation is not a reality, especially not broadly in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements : 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is a widely used thermoplastic polymer. Let's examine the statements: 1. **Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.** Correct. PET is commonly used to produce polyester fibers. Polyester fibers are frequently blended with natural fibers like cotton and wool to improve properties such as wrinkle resistance, durability, strength, and shape retention, making them popular in apparel and home furnishings. 2. **Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.** Incorrect. While PET bottles are widely used for water and soft drinks, their suitability for all alcoholic beverages, especially high-proof spirits, is debated and often discouraged for long-term storage due to potential issues like permeation (loss of alcohol) or subtle leaching of chemicals over time, which can affect taste and safety. While some lower-alcohol beverages like beer or wine might be in PET, it's not suitable for 'any' alcoholic beverage. 3. **Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.** Correct. PET is one of the most commonly recycled plastics. Recycled PET (rPET) is used to produce a variety of new products, including new bottles, polyester fibers for clothing, carpets, and various other plastic products. 4. **Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.** Incorrect. Incineration of PET, like most plastics, produces carbon dioxide (a greenhouse gas) and potentially other toxic gases (e.g., dioxins, furans, or volatile organic compounds, depending on conditions) if not properly controlled. Therefore, it is not disposed of without causing greenhouse gas emissions, nor without other potential harmful emissions. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Which of the following is not a bird ?

Let's identify each option: A) **Golden Mahseer:** The Golden Mahseer (Tor putitora) is a large freshwater fish species found in riverine ecosystems, particularly in the Himalayan region. It is highly endangered and often referred to as the "Tiger of the waters." It is definitely not a bird. B) **Indian Nightjar:** The Indian Nightjar (Caprimulgus asiaticus) is a nocturnal bird species found across South Asia. It is known for its distinctive calls and camouflaged plumage. C) **Spoonbill:** Spoonbills are a genus (Platalea) of large wading birds belonging to the family Threskiornithidae (ibises and spoonbills). They are characterized by their distinctive spoon-shaped bills, used for sifting through water for food. D) **White Ibis:** The White Ibis (Eudocimus albus) is a medium-sized wading bird found in coastal wetlands and marshes of the Americas. It is part of the Ibis family and is distinctly a bird. Therefore, Golden Mahseer is the only option that is not a bird; it is a fish.

Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Nitrogen-fixing plants are those that can convert atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonia (NH3) through a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria, primarily Rhizobium bacteria living in root nodules. These are typically legumes. Let's examine the given plants: 1. **Alfalfa:** Correct. Alfalfa (Medicago sativa) is a leguminous forage crop widely known for its ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen, significantly improving soil fertility. 2. **Amaranth:** Incorrect. Amaranth (Amaranthus spp.) is a leafy vegetable and grain crop. It is not a legume and does not fix nitrogen. It is known for being a high-nitrogen feeder. 3. **Chickpea:** Correct. Chickpea (Cicer arietinum) is a well-known legume and a pulse crop. Like other legumes, it forms a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria in its root nodules. 4. **Clover:** Correct. Clover (Trifolium spp.) is a common leguminous cover crop and forage plant widely used in agriculture for its nitrogen-fixing capabilities and soil improvement benefits. 5. **Purslane (Kulfa):** Incorrect. Purslane (Portulaca oleracea) is a succulent leafy vegetable. It is not a legume and does not fix nitrogen. 6. **Spinach:** Incorrect. Spinach (Spinacia oleracea) is a leafy green vegetable. It is not a legume and is known for being a heavy feeder of nitrogen from the soil, rather than fixing it. Therefore, Alfalfa, Chickpea, and Clover are nitrogen-fixing plants.

"Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?

"Biorock technology" (also known as mineral accretion technology) is a method used for the restoration of damaged marine ecosystems, particularly coral reefs. It involves placing a submerged metal structure on the seabed and passing a low-voltage electrical current through it. This causes minerals naturally present in seawater (like calcium carbonate and magnesium hydroxide) to accrete and precipitate onto the structure, forming a white, limestone-like material. Corals and other marine organisms can then attach to this structure and grow significantly faster than they would naturally, aiding in the rehabilitation of degraded reefs. This technology helps to provide a stable substrate for coral growth and enhance their resilience.

Restoration of damaged coral reefs

Development of building materials using plant residues

Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas

Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:

The "Miyawaki method" is an innovative and highly effective technique for afforestation, developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki. This method involves planting diverse native species in a very dense and specific pattern. By creating a multi-layered forest structure (shrubs, sub-trees, trees, canopy trees) and enriching the soil, the method accelerates forest growth by about 10 times and makes the resulting mini-forests self-sustaining and maintenance-free after a few years. It is particularly well-known for its application in creating dense, biodiverse mini-forests in small urban plots, neglected spaces, or industrial sites, contributing to urban greening and ecological restoration.

Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

Creation of mini forests in urban areas

Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The Government of India Act 1919 introduced the system of 'Dyarchy' in the provinces, dividing provincial subjects into 'Reserved' and 'Transferred' lists. Reserved subjects were administered by the Governor and his Executive Council, who were not responsible to the legislative council. These included crucial areas like: Administration of Justice, Finance, Land Revenue, Police, Irrigation, and Famines. Transferred subjects were administered by the Governor acting with the ministers of the provincial legislative council, who were responsible to the council. These included subjects like: Local Self-Government, Education, Public Health, Sanitation, Agriculture, Forests, and Fisheries. Based on this: 1. Administration of Justice: Treated as a 'Reserved' subject. 2. Local Self-Government: Treated as a 'Transferred' subject. 3. Land Revenue: Treated as a 'Reserved' subject. 4. Police: Treated as a 'Reserved' subject. Therefore, 1, 3, and 4 were treated as Reserved subjects.

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UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2022 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2022 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?	economy	B	View
2	With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates …	economy	C	View
3	With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is lik…	economy	B	View
4	With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements: 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with th…	polity-and-governance	C	View
5	With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates…	economy	A	View
6	With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They can sell thei…	economy	B	View
7	Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw c…	economy	A	View
8	Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India?	economy	D	View
9	With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acquiring new t…	economy	A	View
10	With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards governme…	economy	C	View
11	Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The C…	polity-and-governance	B	View
12	With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corp…	polity-and-governance	B	View
13	Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a …	polity-and-governance	B	View
14	Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of …	polity-and-governance	B	View
15	Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-conf…	polity-and-governance	B	View
16	With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot jo…	polity-and-governance	B	View
17	Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who a…	polity-and-governance	D	View
18	With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private org…	polity-and-governance	C	View
19	With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As i…	polity-and-governance	B	View
20	With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business i…	polity-and-governance	A	View
21	Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?	geography	B	View
22	"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in : 1. Reduced …	geography	D	View
23	Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?	geography	B	View
24	Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?	geography	C	View
25	Consider the following pairs: Peak Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa: Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi: Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek: Sikkim Himalaya Whi…	geography	B	View
26	The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?	geography	A	View
27	Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders wi…	geography	C	View
28	With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazit…	geography	B	View
29	In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the :	geography	B	View
30	Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake Location 1. Hokera Wetland - Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake - Tri…	geography	B	View
31	Consider the following : 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platfor…	science-and-technology	D	View
32	With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 …	science-and-technology	D	View
33	With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements: 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can…	science-and-technology	D	View
34	Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?	science-and-technology	C	View
35	Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned ?	science-and-technology	B	View
36	Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Net…	science-and-technology	D	View
37	Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food proc…	science-and-technology	D	View
38	Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probioti…	science-and-technology	C	View
39	In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : 1. The Serum Institute of India pr…	science-and-technology	B	View
40	If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation …	science-and-technology	C	View
41	"Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :	geography	A	View
42	Consider the following statements : 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by buildin…	geography	B	View
43	"If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following f…	geography	D	View
44	In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and…	geography	B	View
45	With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himala…	geography	C	View
46	With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements : 1. I…	science-and-technology	A	View
47	Which of the following is not a bird ?	geography	A	View
48	Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the co…	geography	A	View
49	"Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?	science-and-technology	A	View
50	The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:	geography	C	View
51	In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which o…	history	C	View
52	In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:	history	B	View
53	Consider the following freedom fighters : 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were…	history	D	View
54	With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominat…	history	B	View
55	With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts : 1. Nettipakarana 2. Parishishtaparvan 3. Avadanashataka 4. Trishashtilaksha…	history	B	View
56	With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: Historical person Known as 1. Aryadeva - Jaina scholar 2. Dignaga - Buddhist…	history	C	View
57	With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jala…	history	A	View
58	With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?	history	D	View
59	With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast o…	history	B	View
60	According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct? 1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.…	history	D	View
61	Consider the following statements: 1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increa…	economy	A	View
62	Consider the following States: 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-p…	geography	C	View
63	Consider the following statements : 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popular…	economy	B	View
64	With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of B…	economy	B	View
65	With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertibl…	economy	A	View
66	Consider the following: 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation In…	polity-and-governance	D	View
67	Consider the following statements : 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. 2. Vietnam is…	economy	C	View
68	In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?	economy	D	View
69	With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements : 1. They enable the digital representation of physical asse…	science-and-technology	A	View
70	Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs States 1. Ghataprabha - Telangana 2. Gandhi Sagar - Madhya Pradesh 3. Indira Sagar - Andhra Pradesh…	geography	C	View
71	In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employin…	economy	C	View
72	In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India…	economy	A	View
73	If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects t…	polity-and-governance	A	View
74	Consider the following statements : 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the G…	polity-and-governance	B	View
75	Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?	geography	C	View
76	With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements : 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Secu…	polity-and-governance	A	View
77	Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code'?	polity-and-governance	A	View
78	With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements: 1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer stat…	polity-and-governance	D	View
79	With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory …	economy	D	View
80	Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?	geography	A	View
81	Consider the following statements: 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a …	geography	D	View
82	Consider the following statements: 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya. 2. Some people who fled from South Suda…	geography	C	View
83	Consider the following countries: 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are members of the Organiz…	polity-and-governance	C	View
84	Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport…	geography	B	View
85	With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements : 1. A coastal state has the right to e…	polity-and-governance	D	View
86	Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?	geography	B	View
87	Consider the following pairs: Country Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad - Setting up of permanent military base by Chi…	polity-and-governance	C	View
88	Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in news Country 1. Anatolia - Turkey 2. Amhara - Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado - Spain 4. Ca…	geography	B	View
89	With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the go…	polity-and-governance	B	View
90	Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?	geography	A	View
91	Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts Location in the State of 1. Dhauli - Odisha 2. Erragudi - Andhra Pradesh 3.…	history	B	View
92	Consider the following pairs: King Dynasty 1. Nannuka - Chandela 2. Jayashakti - Paramara 3. Nagabhata II - Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja - Ras…	history	B	View
93	Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?	history	B	View
94	"Yogavāsistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:	history	A	View
95	The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which on…	art-and-culture	A	View
96	The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct …	art-and-culture	A	View
97	Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?	science-and-technology	D	View
98	Consider the following statements: 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metall…	science-and-technology	D	View
99	DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: 1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. distinguish among species that look alike. 3. identify undesirabl…	science-and-technology	D	View
100	Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxi…	geography	B	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

80 / 80

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumpt…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
2	The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumpt…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
3	Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible for destroying the country's environment are checked in the near future and afforesta…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
4	What is the value of X in the sequence 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
5	An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 o…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
6	Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
7	Which date of June 2099 among the following is Sunday if 5 June 2022 is Sunday?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
8	A bill for ₹1,840 is paid in the denominations of ₹50, ₹20 and ₹10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements: 1. 25…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
9	Which number amongst 2⁴⁰, 3²¹, 4¹⁸ and 8¹² is the smallest?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
10	The digits 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the number formed in the second row is t…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
11	"In simple matters like shoe- making, we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose, but in politics, we presume that ever…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
12	The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is not only because of its extremely n…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
13	The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is not only because of its extremely n…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
14	The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is not only because of its extremely n…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
15	X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2 . If they start together in the same dire…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
16	If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
17	In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/d…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
18	How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
19	Consider the Question and two Statements given below : Question : Is x an integer? Statement- 1 : x / 3 is not an integer. Statement- 2 : 3 …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
20	The increase in the price of a certain item was 25% . Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10% . What is the resu…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
21	The letters A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E. How many such arrangements are p…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
22	Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Question: Is Z brother of X? Statement- 1: X is a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
23	On one side of a 1.01 km long road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other. What is the total distance between 5 consecuti…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
24	A, B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B to C and three different road…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
25	A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2 more to C. C gives half of the coins and 2 mor…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
26	In the series AABABCABCDABCDE..., which letter appears at the 100th place?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
27	Three persons A, Band C are standing in a queue not necessarily in the same order. There are 4 persons between A and B, and 7 persons betwee…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
28	With steady economic growth, higher literacy and increasing skill levels, the number of Indian middle- class families has gone up exponentia…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
29	How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes and x seconds?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
30	P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. R is the spouse of Q. U is the mother of T and S is the daughter of U. P 's daughter is T a…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
31	Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P , Q and R in a State: Question: How far is city P from cit…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
32	Two Statements followed by four Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
33	Three Statements followed by three Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at varian…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
34	Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre of the table, not neces…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
35	For two or three generations past, ever- increasing numbers of individuals have been living as workers merely, not as human beings. An exces…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
36	For two or three generations past, ever- increasing numbers of individuals have been living as workers merely, not as human beings. An exces…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
37	The demographic dividend, which has begun in India and is expected to last another few decades, is a great window of opportunity. The demogr…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
38	The demographic dividend, which has begun in India and is expected to last another few decades, is a great window of opportunity. The demogr…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
39	Five friends P , Q , X , Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below: 1. Z Purchased 8 notebooks more than X d…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
40	A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
41	A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E, and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, thr…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
42	Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table). Consider t…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
43	Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Question: What is the age of Manisha? Statement- 1: Manisha is 24 years younger than h…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
44	Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, scheduled between 8:00 am and 2:00 pm Consider the following question and two s…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
45	In an economic organization, allowing mankind to benefit by the productivity of machines should lead to a very good life of leisure, and muc…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
46	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
47	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
48	Let A, Band Crepresent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetitio…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
49	There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN fro…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
50	There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How many right-angled triangles can be drawn using these points as vertices and taking the d…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
51	24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men and 24 women do the same piece of work?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
52	What is the remainder when 91 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 97 × 98 × 99 is divided by 1261?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
53	Consider the following statements in respect of a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 8 cm: 1. It is possible to cut the sheet exa…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
54	When 70% of a number xis added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. When 60% of the number xis added to another numb…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
55	"The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must the…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
56	Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
57	What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
58	Let pbe a two-digit number and qbe the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If px q = 2430 , then what is the differen…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
59	Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a prime number and q is a composite number: 1. px…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
60	Consider the following statements: 1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide. 2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:5…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
61	There are two containers X and Y. X contains 100 ml of milk and Y contains 100 ml of water. 20 ml of milk from Xis transferred to Y. After m…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
62	A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D and Ein a household. If B, C, D and E correspond to 90° , 50° , 45° and…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
63	How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient? In this conte…	Decision Making	D	View
64	If 15× 14× 13× … × 3× 2× 1 = 3^m× n where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
65	What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
66	One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to be used in forming passwords, such that each passw…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
67	There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. I…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
68	The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
69	What is the number of numbers of the form 0·XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
70	The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the averag…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
71	To encourage research is one of the functions of a university. Contemporary universities have encouraged research, not only in those cases w…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
72	To encourage research is one of the functions of a university. Contemporary universities have encouraged research, not only in those cases w…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
73	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
74	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
75	Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared f…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
76	Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared f…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
77	Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared f…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
78	In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agroche…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
79	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. In…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
80	In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agroche…	Reading Comprehension	A	View

Official cutoff — 2022

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 88.22
EWS: 82.83
OBC: 87.54
SC: 74.08
ST: 69.35

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

geography29 (29%)
polity-and-governance21 (21%)
economy18 (18%)
science-and-technology16 (16%)
history14 (14%)
art-and-culture2 (2%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2022 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2022?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2022 was 88.22 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2022 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2022 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2022 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2022 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

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