With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: A private member's bill is a bill introduced by any Member of Parliament who is not a minister, regardless of whether they are elected or nominated. The term 'private member' simply distinguishes them from a 'government bill' which is introduced by a minister. Statement 2 is incorrect: Private member's bills have been passed in the Parliament of India on several occasions since independence, although it is a rare occurrence. Thus, it is not true that a private member's bill was recently passed for the first time in its history. Several such bills have become Acts, including the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, and the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Bill, 1977. Since both statements are incorrect, the correct answer is D.

With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. 2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. 3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is correct: Archaeological evidence and textual analysis of the Rigveda suggest that Rigvedic Aryans, known for their martial culture, used protective gear like coats of mail (armour) and helmets in warfare. In contrast, the archaeological findings from the Indus Valley Civilization do not provide significant evidence of such elaborate defensive war equipment, indicating a possible difference in their military organization or focus. Statement 2 is incorrect: Rigvedic Aryans were indeed familiar with gold, silver, and copper. The Indus Valley people also knew and used gold, silver, and copper (as evidenced by numerous artifacts including bronze tools and ornaments). However, the critical error in this statement is the claim that Indus Valley people knew 'iron'. Iron was not known to the Indus Valley Civilization; its widespread use in India emerged much later, around 1000 BCE, associated with the Later Vedic period. Statement 3 is correct: The horse is central to the Rigvedic culture, featuring prominently in their hymns and associated with their migrations and warfare. Archaeological evidence from Vedic sites confirms the domestication of horses. In contrast, concrete evidence of the horse in the Indus Valley Civilization is sparse and highly debated among scholars, with most concluding that it was either unknown or not a significant animal to them. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to A) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. B) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. C) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. D) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

The 'Recognition of Prior Learning' (RPL) scheme is a component of the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). It aims to certify the skills of workers who have acquired them through informal channels such as traditional apprenticeships, on-the-job training, or self-learning, rather than formal education. This helps align their existing competencies with industry standards.

Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.

Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.

Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.

Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu, serves as a vital ecological corridor connecting the Eastern and Western Ghats. It acts as a significant link between the Nilgiris (part of the Western Ghats) and the Eastern Ghats, facilitating the movement of wildlife, especially large mammals like elephants and tigers, between these two major biodiversity regions. This connectivity is crucial for maintaining genetic flow and the long-term viability of wildlife populations. The other options are located within either the Eastern or Western Ghats but do not serve as a direct bridge between the two in the same critical manner.

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

Equality in society fundamentally means that all individuals are treated alike and are given equal opportunities, without any special advantages or disadvantages. Therefore, the most direct implication of equality is the absence of 'privileges', which are special rights, advantages, or immunities granted to a particular person or group, often based on birth, social status, or other arbitrary distinctions. The presence of privileges inherently contradicts the principle of equality.

Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: TRAFFIC (The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network) is a leading non-governmental organization working on wildlife trade. It is a strategic alliance of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It is not a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Statement 2 is correct: The primary mission of TRAFFIC is indeed to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not pose a threat to the conservation of nature. It achieves this by monitoring wildlife trade, investigating its impacts, and advocating for sustainable and legal trade practices. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, often called the 'Mini-Constitution', introduced several significant changes to the Indian Constitution, including the addition of new Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs). Among these additions was Article 43A, which mandates the State to take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries. Other options: 'Equal pay for equal work for both men and women' (Article 39(d)) and 'Right to work, education and public assistance' (Article 41) were part of the original Directive Principles. 'Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers' is covered under Article 43, also part of the original DPSP.

Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

Participation of workers in the management of industries

Right to work, education and public assistance

Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Which one of the following statements is/are correct? A) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. B) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State. C) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. D) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

In a democratic setup, 'rights' are generally understood as legitimate claims or entitlements that individuals possess against the State or society, which the State is morally or legally obligated to recognize, protect, and enforce. These claims enable individuals to lead a life of dignity and freedom. Options A and D reverse this concept, suggesting claims by the state or privileges for a few, which contradicts the universal nature of rights. Option B is partially true as some rights are enshrined in the Constitution, but it doesn't fully capture the essence of what rights are fundamentally – claims of individuals against the State for justice and well-being.

Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?

The 'Global Gender Gap Index' is an annual report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It assesses gender-based disparities across four key dimensions: economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival, and political empowerment. The other organizations listed are involved in various global issues, including gender, but they are not the publishers of this specific index.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Smart India Hackathon 2017 was not a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city into Smart Cities. The Smart Cities Mission is a separate initiative. The hackathon was aimed at harnessing the creativity of students to solve challenges. Statement 2 is correct: The Smart India Hackathon is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations and creative solutions from students to solve various real-world problems faced by government departments, ministries, and other organizations in India. Participants develop innovative prototypes for these challenges. Statement 3 is incorrect: The hackathon's primary objective was not to make all financial transactions completely digital in a decade. While digital transactions are a broader government agenda, this was not the specific focus of the Smart India Hackathon. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is correct: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is entrusted with the responsibility of determining the policy interest rates (like the repo rate) necessary to achieve the inflation target set by the government. This is its core function. Statement 2 is incorrect: The MPC is a six-member body. It comprises three members from the Reserve Bank of India (including the Governor, who is the ex-officio Chairperson; the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy; and one officer of the Bank nominated by the Central Board) and three members appointed by the Central Government. It is not a 12-member body, and the government-appointed members hold office for four years and are not eligible for re-appointment, so it is not reconstituted every year in its entirety. Statement 3 is incorrect: The MPC functions under the chairmanship of the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, not the Union Finance Minister. The Union Finance Minister is part of the broader government framework but does not chair the MPC. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance. 3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: Manipuri Sankirtana is a devotional art form from Manipur that involves a vibrant combination of singing (kirtana) and dancing, typically performed in a temple or performance space. It is characterized by its unique rhythmic patterns and graceful movements. Statement 2 is incorrect: While cymbals (like 'kartal' or 'manjira') are indeed important musical instruments in Sankirtana, they are not the only ones. The 'Pung' (a Manipuri drum, also known as Mridanga) is another central and indispensable musical instrument in a Sankirtana performance, providing the rhythmic base. Statement 3 is correct: The themes of Manipuri Sankirtana primarily revolve around the life, deeds, and divine plays (leelas) of Lord Krishna, drawing extensively from Vaishnava scriptures, particularly the Bhagavat Purana. It is performed as an expression of devotion (bhakti). Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule? 1. Lord Cornwallis 2. Alexander Read 3. Thomas Munro Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Lord Cornwallis (Statement 1) is primarily associated with the Permanent Settlement (also known as the Zamindari system) introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1793. He was not involved with the Ryotwari Settlement. Alexander Read (Statement 2) was a British officer who first experimented with the Ryotwari system in the Baramahal region (parts of the Madras Presidency) in the late 18th century. Thomas Munro (Statement 3) was a key figure in the development and extensive implementation of the Ryotwari Settlement. As the Governor of Madras, he played a crucial role in expanding this system across the Madras Presidency and other parts of South India, where land revenue was collected directly from the cultivators (ryots). Therefore, Alexander Read and Thomas Munro were associated with the introduction of the Ryotwari Settlement.

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique? 1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is correct: Bioremediation is an environmental clean-up technique that leverages natural biological processes to degrade or detoxify pollutants. It involves using microorganisms (like bacteria and fungi) or plants to break down or immobilize hazardous substances, essentially enhancing natural biodegradation processes already occurring in nature. Statement 2 is incorrect: Bioremediation is highly effective for organic contaminants (e.g., petroleum hydrocarbons, pesticides). However, it is generally *not* effective for heavy metals such as cadmium and lead, because heavy metals are elemental and cannot be 'biodegraded' or broken down by microorganisms in the same way organic compounds can. While microorganisms might sometimes immobilize or transform them into less toxic forms, they cannot 'readily and completely treat' them by biodegradation. Statement 3 is correct: Genetic engineering techniques can be used to modify microorganisms to enhance their bioremediation capabilities. This can involve improving their ability to degrade specific pollutants, increasing their tolerance to toxic environments, or making them more efficient in various conditions. This is a significant area of research and development in bioremediation. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was enacted by the British Indian government to provide a mechanism for the investigation and settlement of industrial disputes. It introduced provisions for the establishment of Courts of Inquiry and Conciliation Boards (which function as tribunals) to mediate and resolve disputes. A significant aspect of the Act was that it made certain types of strikes and lock-outs illegal, particularly in public utility services, and generally prohibited sympathetic and general strikes, thereby effectively imposing a ban on specific forms of industrial action.

the participation of workers in the management of industries.

arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.

an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.

a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

Local self-government refers to the governance of a local area by the people through their elected representatives. This system is the embodiment of 'democratic decentralization', which involves the devolution of power, functions, and finances from the central/state government to local elected bodies. This brings governance closer to the grassroots, fosters greater public participation in decision-making, and allows for more responsive and tailored solutions to local needs, thereby strengthening democracy at the local level.

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon 1. legislative function. 2. executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. As per Article 37, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. However, they are explicitly non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by any court. More importantly, DPSPs are not 'limitations' upon legislative or executive functions. Instead, they serve as *positive guidelines* or *moral obligations* for the State to follow in formulating policies and laws, aiming to establish a welfare state. Limitations on legislative and executive powers are primarily imposed by Fundamental Rights or the basic structure of the Constitution, not by the DPSPs, which are inspirational rather than restrictive.

The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to

The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' refers to a comprehensive plan implemented by the European Union (EU). Its aim is to break down barriers to online activities and services across the EU member states, allowing digital content, e-commerce, and digital services to flow freely across borders, much like a single physical market. This strategy is a key part of the EU's broader integration efforts to boost its economy and digital competitiveness.

At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

The unique phenomenon described, where sea water recedes several kilometers from the shore twice a day, allowing people to walk on the exposed seabed, is characteristic of Chandipur beach in the Baleswar district of Odisha. This is due to the extremely shallow gradient of the coastline, causing the high and low tides to manifest dramatically. The other mentioned locations do not exhibit this specific and pronounced tidal retreat phenomenon.

With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements: 1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. 2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. 3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. A property transaction can be treated as benami even if the registered owner is not aware of the real beneficiary. The Act focuses on the beneficial ownership, not the awareness of the registered owner. Statement 2 is correct. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government as per the provisions of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Act does provide for an appellate mechanism — it establishes an Adjudicating Authority and an Appellate Tribunal to hear cases related to benami transactions. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected. 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is correct: Butterflies are significant pollinators for a wide variety of plants. A drastic fall in their population would severely affect the pollination process for many plant species, potentially leading to reduced reproduction and adverse impacts on plant biodiversity and agricultural yields. Statement 2 is incorrect: While butterflies (as caterpillars) are herbivores, there is no direct or significant ecological link between a decline in butterfly populations and a drastic increase in fungal infections of cultivated plants. Fungal infections are primarily influenced by factors such as environmental conditions, plant susceptibility, and the presence of specific fungal pathogens, not typically controlled by butterfly populations. Statement 3 is correct: Butterflies, both in their larval (caterpillar) and adult stages, serve as a food source for numerous predators, including various species of wasps, spiders, and birds. A substantial reduction in butterfly numbers would therefore lead to a decrease in the food supply for these predators, potentially causing a decline in their populations due as part of the food web. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? 1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed. 3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Algae-based biofuel production is not limited to seas only. Algae can be cultivated in various environments, including freshwater ponds, wastewater, and closed-loop bioreactors on land. The flexibility of cultivation systems makes it possible to produce algae biofuels in diverse geographic locations. Statement 2 is correct: Setting up and effectively engineering algae-based biofuel production facilities, especially at scale, requires high levels of scientific and technical expertise, advanced technology, and significant initial investment. Developing countries might face limitations in terms of access to this specialized knowledge, trained personnel, and sophisticated technology until the infrastructure is fully established and operational. Statement 3 is correct: For algae biofuel production to be economically viable and competitive with conventional fuels, large-scale facilities are often necessary to achieve economies of scale. Such large-scale operations could potentially raise ecological concerns (e.g., significant land or water usage, potential for nutrient runoff if not managed properly, management of invasive strains) and social concerns (e.g., competition for land or water resources, displacement of existing agricultural activities) in developing countries, where resource pressures can be high. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are the likely limitations.

Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. 3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The 'National Nutrition Mission' (Poshan Abhiyaan), launched by the Government of India, has several key objectives focused on improving nutritional outcomes across the country. Statement 1 is correct: A primary objective of the mission is to create widespread awareness relating to malnutrition, particularly among vulnerable groups like pregnant women and lactating mothers, and to promote appropriate feeding practices. Statement 2 is correct: Reducing the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls, and women is a specific and crucial target of the National Nutrition Mission, as anaemia is a widespread public health problem in India. Statement 3 is incorrect: While promoting diverse diets is generally encouraged for better nutrition, the National Nutrition Mission's explicit and specific objectives, as originally defined, do not include a standalone focus on promoting the consumption of millets, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice as a distinct mission target. Its focus is broader on addressing malnutrition, stunting, wasting, and anaemia. Statement 4 is incorrect: Similarly, promoting the consumption of poultry eggs, while beneficial for protein intake, is not listed as a specific, explicit objective of the National Nutrition Mission. The mission focuses more on overall nutritional improvement and behavioral change communication rather than endorsing specific food items. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are direct and stated objectives of the National Nutrition Mission.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions. 2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Factories Act, 1881, was the first significant legislation concerning factory labour in British India. Its primary purpose was to regulate the working conditions of child labour (specifically, prohibiting employment of children below 7 years, limiting working hours for children aged 7-12, and providing for their holidays). It did not aim to fix wages of industrial workers or to explicitly allow the formation of trade unions; the concept of organized labour movements and union rights was still nascent and largely unaddressed by law at that time. Statement 2 is correct: Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (N.M. Lokhande) is widely regarded as a pioneer and one of the earliest leaders of the organized labour movement in British India. He founded the Bombay Mill Hands' Association in 1890, which is often considered the first organized labour association in India, and campaigned for improved working conditions for textile mill workers. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs 3. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Carbon sequestration involves the capture and long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) to mitigate global warming. Geological sequestration is a prominent method where CO2 is injected into deep underground geological formations. 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams: These can be used for CO2 storage. CO2 can be injected into these seams, where it gets adsorbed by the coal, potentially enhancing coal-bed methane recovery (ECBM) while simultaneously storing CO2. This is a recognized method. 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs: These are geological formations that have previously held oil and natural gas for millions of years, indicating their ability to contain fluids and gases over long periods. They often have existing infrastructure (wells), and their geology is well-characterized, making them suitable and cost-effective sites for CO2 storage. 3. Subterranean deep saline formations: These are vast geological formations containing highly saline water (brine) that is unsuitable for human use. They are found across many regions globally and possess immense CO2 storage potential due to their large pore volumes and widespread distribution. This is considered the largest potential storage option. All three options are indeed potential and recognized sites for geological carbon sequestration.

The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

The Butler Committee, also known as the Indian States Committee, was appointed by the British Government in 1927. Its primary objective was to investigate and clarify the relationship between the Paramount Power (the British Crown) and the Indian Princely States, and to suggest measures for their better adjustment. The committee was tasked with examining the financial and economic relations between British India and the Indian States, and more broadly, to improve the overall relationship, ensuring the protection of the princely states' rights and their allegiance to the Crown. Option D correctly identifies this core objective.

Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

Impose censorship on national press.

Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

'Domestic Content Requirement' (DCR) is a policy measure that mandates a certain percentage of components or products used in a project or industry to be sourced locally. In the context of India, DCR has been a prominent feature, particularly in the solar energy sector. The government implemented DCR policies to promote domestic manufacturing of solar cells and modules, thereby fostering local industry growth and reducing reliance on imports for solar power projects. This measure aimed to boost local employment and technological capabilities in the renewable energy sector.

Developing solar power production in our country

Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country

Exporting our food products to other countries

Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nuclear Security Summits (NSS) were not held under the aegis of the United Nations. They were a series of high-level meetings initiated by the United States to discuss global efforts to prevent nuclear terrorism, with the first summit held in 2010. They were independent initiatives, though often involved heads of state and government from UN member states. Statement 2 is also incorrect. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent group of experts from both nuclear-weapon and non-nuclear-weapon states. It is not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IPFM works to develop technical and policy initiatives to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and to reduce the dangers posed by nuclear weapons and fissile materials.

Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

The National Pension System (NPS) is applicable to: - Central Government employees (except Armed Forces) who joined on or after 01.01.2004 - State Government employees (as per respective state notifications) - All citizens on a voluntary basis NPS is NOT applicable to the Armed Forces, who continue under their own pension schemes. Therefore, option D which includes Armed Forces is incorrect. The correct answer is C.

Persons of age from 21 to 55 only

All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments

All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim. 2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta. 3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. The source of the river Teesta is the Teesta Khangtse Glacier, located in the Kanchenjunga range in Sikkim. The Brahmaputra (Yarlung Tsangpo) originates in the Angsi Glacier in the Himalayas of Tibet, not the same source as Teesta. Statement 2 is correct. River Rangeet is a major tributary of the Teesta River. It originates in the Himalayas in West Sikkim and flows through Sikkim before joining the Teesta. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Teesta River flows through Sikkim and West Bengal in India, and then enters Bangladesh, where it eventually merges with the Brahmaputra River (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh) before their combined waters flow into the Meghna River and finally into the Bay of Bengal. It does not flow into the Bay of Bengal directly on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Consider the following statements: 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. The Zika virus is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito, particularly Aedes aegypti. This is the same mosquito species that transmits other tropical diseases like dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever. Statement 2 is correct. While mosquito bites are the primary mode of transmission, sexual transmission of the Zika virus has been documented. The virus can persist in semen for a longer period than in blood, making sexual transmission possible from an infected person to their partner.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) standard mark is indeed mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes in India as per the Tyres (Quality Control) Order. This ensures that these products meet specific safety and quality standards. Statement 2 is incorrect. AGMARK is a quality certification mark for agricultural products in India. It is issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, which falls under the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Government of India. It is not issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), which is a United Nations agency.

What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities. 2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is correct. The National Agriculture Market (eNAM) is indeed a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks the existing Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee (APMC) mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. It aims to facilitate online trading. Statement 2 is correct. By integrating mandis across the country, eNAM provides farmers with access to a wider market beyond their local APMC. This increased competition among buyers helps farmers get better prices for their produce based on its quality, thereby ensuring prices commensurate with the quality.

With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements: 1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. India's National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy, approved in 2016, aims to create a robust IPR regime in the country. It explicitly reiterates India's commitment to its international obligations, including the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO). Statement 2 is correct. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), previously known as the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency for all matters concerning Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) in India.

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? 1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants. Schedule I of the Act lists endangered species that are granted the highest level of protection, and hunting of these animals is completely prohibited throughout India, except under very specific circumstances permitted by law (e.g., for scientific research, disease control, or if declared a man-eater/dangerous to human life by the Chief Wildlife Warden). Gharial, Indian wild ass, and Wild buffalo are all listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Therefore, they cannot be hunted by any person except under provisions provided by law.

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Fundamental Duties are part of the Indian Constitution (Article 51A), there is no specific legislative process provided in the Constitution for their direct enforcement. They are not directly enforceable by courts in the same way as Fundamental Rights. However, Parliament can enact laws to enforce specific duties. Statement 2 is incorrect. Fundamental Duties are moral and civic obligations of citizens. They are not correlative to legal duties in the sense that failure to perform a fundamental duty does not automatically invite legal punishment, unless a specific law has been enacted to make it a legal duty (e.g., paying taxes, which is also a legal duty). Fundamental Rights, however, are correlative to the duties of the State.

Consider the following pairs: 1. Radhakanta Deb - First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty - Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha 3. Surendranath Banerjee - Founder of the Indian Association Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Statement 1 is correct. Radhakanta Deb was the first president of the British Indian Association, which was founded in Kolkata in 1851. Statement 2 is incorrect. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty was a prominent figure in Madras and was instrumental in the formation of the Madras Native Association (founded 1852). However, the Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded much later, in 1884, by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, and P. Ananda Charlu. Statement 3 is correct. Surendranath Banerjee, along with Anandamohan Bose, founded the Indian Association of Calcutta in 1876.

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

The Preamble to the Constitution of India secures to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity. It clearly mentions Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. While Justice includes "economic justice," the Preamble does not explicitly mention "economic liberty." The liberties enumerated are primarily intellectual and spiritual.

With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements: 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. 2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. The Quality Council of India (QCI) was established in 1997 as an autonomous body, a joint initiative of the Government of India and the Indian industry (represented by three premier industry associations: ASSOCHAM, CII, and FICCI). Its purpose is to establish and operate a national accreditation structure and promote quality through national accreditation of conformity assessment bodies. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister of India, but it is typically based on recommendations from the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, not specifically on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Small Finance Banks (SFBs) were conceptualized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) with the primary objective of furthering financial inclusion by providing credit and other financial services to segments of the economy not served by other banks, such as small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries, and other unorganised sector entities. 1. To supply credit to small business units: This is a core objective of SFBs, catering to the credit needs of small enterprises. 2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers: SFBs are mandated to extend credit to this underserved agricultural segment. 3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas: By providing credit to small business units and facilitating financial inclusion, SFBs indirectly encourage entrepreneurship, especially in areas where formal credit might be scarce, which aligns with the broader goal of economic development and entrepreneurship in rural and semi-urban areas. Therefore, all three objectives are aligned with the purpose of SFBs.

With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements: 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms - Policy Responses and Governance Structure'. 2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. While the first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD) was indeed held in India in 2006, its theme was 'A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020', not 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'. Statement 2 is incorrect. India does not host all APMCHUD conferences. The conferences rotate among different Asia-Pacific countries and are held biennially, not annually. The partnership is primarily with UN-Habitat. Neither statement is correct.

Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

The fundamental principle of democracy is that sovereignty lies with the people. Its superior virtue is its capacity to engage and utilize the collective intelligence, wisdom, and character of its ordinary citizens in decision-making and governance. Democracy empowers individuals, fostering active participation and allowing diverse perspectives to contribute to policy formation and societal progress. Options B, C, and D describe aspects that might be present in a democracy but do not represent its superior virtue which lies in its foundational belief in the capability and agency of its common citizens, not just a select few or specific methods.

the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

a superior individual with dynamism and vision.

a band of dedicated party workers.

Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)'?

The most likely consequence of implementing the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is that mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. UPI enables direct bank-to-bank transfers through a single mobile application using a Virtual Payment Address (VPA), eliminating the need for intermediary mobile wallet services. Users can make instant payments directly from their bank accounts without loading money into a separate wallet.

Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.

Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.

FDI inflows will drastically increase.

Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

These terms are all fundamental concepts in physics and cosmology, used to describe and understand the universe: Event Horizon: The boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing, not even light, can escape. Singularity: A point in space-time where the density and gravitational field of a celestial body are predicted to become infinite, as in a black hole's center. String Theory: A theoretical framework in physics that posits that the fundamental constituents of the universe are not point-like particles but one-dimensional "strings." It attempts to unify all fundamental forces of nature. Standard Model: The theory describing three of the four known fundamental forces in the universe (electromagnetic, weak, and strong interactions, but not gravity) and classifying all known elementary particles. All these terms are directly related to the study of the cosmos, its fundamental laws, and its structure, aligning with "Observation and understanding of the Universe."

Observation and understanding of the Universe

Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses

Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth

Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? 1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants. 2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants. 3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Genome sequencing, the process of determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism's genome, has immense applications in agriculture: 1. Identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance: By sequencing the genome, scientists can pinpoint specific genes or genetic markers associated with desirable traits like resistance to diseases or tolerance to abiotic stresses like drought. This allows for targeted breeding. 2. Reduce the time required to develop new varieties: Traditional breeding is time-consuming. Genome sequencing, combined with marker-assisted selection, allows breeders to rapidly identify and select plants with desired traits, significantly accelerating the development of new, improved crop varieties. 3. Decipher host-pathogen relationships: Understanding the genetic makeup of both the crop (host) and the pathogen (e.g., fungi, bacteria, viruses) allows researchers to identify genes involved in resistance or susceptibility. This knowledge is crucial for developing effective disease management strategies and breeding disease-resistant crops. Therefore, all three statements correctly describe advantages of implementing genome sequencing in agriculture.

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

The defining characteristic and main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is the principle of collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature. In this system, the government (executive) is formed from the legislature, and it remains in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the legislature. This accountability ensures that the executive is responsive to the will of the elected representatives and, through them, to the people. Options A, B, and D are not the primary distinguishing advantages; for example, the executive and legislature do not work independently (A), continuity can be an issue (B), and changes can occur without elections through no-confidence motions (D).

the executive and legislature work independently.

it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

In a well-functioning democratic society, rights and duties are intrinsically linked and correlative. The exercise of one's rights often implies a corresponding duty towards others or society. For instance, the right to free speech comes with the duty to use it responsibly without inciting hatred. The Constitution of India, while initially emphasizing Fundamental Rights, later added Fundamental Duties, reflecting the idea that citizens have obligations towards the nation. This interconnectedness means that rights cannot exist in a vacuum, isolated from the responsibilities that come with them.

Rights are correlative with Duties.

Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.

Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

The Preamble to the Constitution of India serves as an introduction and summary of the Constitution. It outlines the philosophy, ideals, objectives, and basic structure of the Indian Constitution, reflecting the aspirations and vision of the Constituent Assembly members who framed it. While Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, and Fundamental Duties all embody important aspects of the Constitution, the Preamble acts as the "key" to the Constitution, encapsulating the essence of the values and goals that the framers sought to achieve.

The Directive Principles of State Policy

If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

To travel by road from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala), one would need to traverse the following minimum number of states, including the origin and destination: Nagaland (Kohima - Origin) Assam (to exit NE) West Bengal (to move south) Odisha (to move further south along the east coast/central route) Andhra Pradesh (to move further south) Tamil Nadu (to reach Kerala border) Kerala (Kottayam - Destination) This route represents a practical minimum, demonstrating that 7 states are required.

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The Indian Parliament, particularly the Lok Sabha, exercises control over the Council of Ministers through various mechanisms to ensure their accountability: 1. Adjournment motion: This motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. If admitted, it leads to a discussion, often critical of the government's actions or inactions, thus holding the Council of Ministers accountable. 2. Question hour: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is allotted for Question Hour. During this time, Members of Parliament ask questions to ministers on various administrative aspects, and ministers are obliged to answer. This is a crucial mechanism for accountability. 3. Supplementary questions: When a question is asked during the Question Hour, the minister provides an answer. Members of Parliament can then ask supplementary questions arising out of the original answer, seeking further clarification or information. This deepens the scrutiny and reinforces accountability. All three are effective tools used by the Parliament to control and hold the Council of Ministers responsible.

Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

Motupalli was indeed a very important seaport during the Kakatiya dynasty's rule in present-day Andhra Pradesh. It facilitated extensive maritime trade, connecting the Kakatiya kingdom with various parts of Southeast Asia, West Asia, and other regions. The port was strategically located and played a crucial role in the economic prosperity of the kingdom, becoming a hub for international commerce.

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper & Solutions

Q: Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2017 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2017 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

Q: What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2017?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2017 was 105.34 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

Q: How is the UPSC Prelims 2017 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Q: Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Q: Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2017 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2017 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Q: Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Q: Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

Q: How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2017 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

UPSC Prelims 2017 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Civil Services preparation

Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2017 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of …	polity-and-governance	D	View
2	With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are co…	history	C	View
3	'Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to A) Certifying the skills acquired by constructio…	economy	A	View
4	From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the West…	geography	A	View
5	One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of	polity-and-governance	A	View
6	Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau unde…	—	B	View
7	Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?	polity-and-governance	B	View
8	Which one of the following statements is/are correct? A) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. B) Rights are privileges which…	polity-and-governance	C	View
9	Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?	polity-and-governance	A	View
10	Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing …	science-and-technology	B	View
11	Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? 1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest r…	economy	A	View
12	With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: 1. It is a song and dance performance. 2. Cymbals are the only mus…	art-and-culture	B	View
13	Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule? 1. Lord Cornwalli…	history	C	View
14	In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique? 1. It is a technique for cle…	geography	C	View
15	The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for	history	D	View
16	Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in	polity-and-governance	B	View
17	Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitati…	polity-and-governance	D	View
18	The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to	polity-and-governance	C	View
19	At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line …	geography	C	View
20	With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements: 1. A property t…	polity-and-governance	B	View
21	Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?…	geography	C	View
22	It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?…	economy	B	View
23	Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant wo…	polity-and-governance	A	View
24	Consider the following statements: 1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the…	history	B	View
25	In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be th…	geography	D	View
26	The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to	history	D	View
27	The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to	economy	A	View
28	Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. 2. The Inter…	science-and-technology	D	View
29	Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?	polity-and-governance	C	View
30	With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements: 1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it f…	geography	B	View
31	Consider the following statements: 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue. 2. …	science-and-technology	C	View
32	Consider the following statements: 1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. 2. …	economy	A	View
33	What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme? 1. It is a pan-India electronic trading porta…	economy	C	View
34	With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements: 1. It reiterates India's commitment…	science-and-technology	C	View
35	According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions…	polity-and-governance	D	View
36	Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to …	polity-and-governance	D	View
37	Consider the following pairs: 1. Radhakanta Deb - First President of the British Indian Association 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty - Founder…	history	B	View
38	Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?	polity-and-governance	B	View
39	With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements: 1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India …	polity-and-governance	A	View
40	What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India? 1. To supply credit to small business units 2. To supply credit to…	economy	D	View
41	With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements: 1. Th…	polity-and-governance	D	View
42	Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity	polity-and-governance	A	View
43	Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)'?	economy	A	View
44	The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of	science-and-technology	A	View
45	With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate futur…	science-and-technology	D	View
46	The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that	polity-and-governance	C	View
47	In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?	polity-and-governance	A	View
48	The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?	polity-and-governance	A	View
49	If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the…	geography	B	View
50	The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. S…	polity-and-governance	D	View
51	Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?	history	B	View
52	With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an initiative of the European…	geography	A	View
53	With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.…	art-and-culture	B	View
54	Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries? 1. Jordan 2. Iraq 3. Lebanon 4. Syria Select the correct answer using the…	geography	C	View
55	With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an organ of NITI…	economy	D	View
56	The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an	economy	B	View
57	For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by	polity-and-governance	C	View
58	Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only. 2. Western Ghats are spread over five States…	geography	B	View
59	Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for	geography	C	View
60	With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/a…	polity-and-governance	B	View
61	With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. Under NSQF, a lea…	polity-and-governance	B	View
62	In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to	history	D	View
63	Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Service': 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel a…	polity-and-governance	D	View
64	Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in th…	economy	B	View
65	Consider the following statements: 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative…	geography	B	View
66	With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following state…	geography	B	View
67	If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?	geography	B	View
68	Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship…	polity-and-governance	B	View
69	The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at	art-and-culture	A	View
70	Consider the following pairs: Traditions Communities 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival - Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra - Gonds 3. Wari-Warkari - S…	art-and-culture	A	View
71	Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? 1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land 2. Applying gypsum be…	geography	C	View
72	Consider the following statements: The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at 1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. 2. e…	economy	B	View
73	Consider the following pairs: Commonly used / consumed materials Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them 1. Lipstick …	science-and-technology	D	View
74	Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liqu…	science-and-technology	C	View
75	Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples? 1. Arasavalli 2. Amarakantak 3. Omkareshwar Select the correct answer using the code g…	art-and-culture	A	View
76	Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of…	polity-and-governance	D	View
77	Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991? 1. Share of agriculture in GDP incr…	economy	B	View
78	What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?	science-and-technology	C	View
79	Consider the following statements: 1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the countr…	economy	C	View
80	The term 'M-STRIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of	geography	B	View
81	What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'? 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multip…	economy	A	View
82	'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and	polity-and-governance	A	View
83	Consider the following statements: 1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO. 2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Minis…	economy	A	View
84	What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?	geography	C	View
85	In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents? 1. Service providers 2. Data centres 3. …	polity-and-governance	D	View
86	Right to vote and to be elected in India is a	polity-and-governance	C	View
87	What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project?	science-and-technology	B	View
88	What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana'? 1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. 2. To …	polity-and-governance	D	View
89	What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?	polity-and-governance	B	View
90	Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the …	polity-and-governance	D	View
91	In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?	polity-and-governance	A	View
92	In India, Judicial Review implies	polity-and-governance	A	View
93	With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy 2. Quit India Movement launched 3. …	history	C	View
94	Consider the following statements: 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. Fiscal deficit …	economy	D	View
95	Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?	geography	B	View
96	Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the St…	polity-and-governance	B	View
97	Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human bein…	polity-and-governance	C	View
98	Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?	geography	A	View
99	Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:	polity-and-governance	C	View
100	Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?	polity-and-governance	D	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

80 / 80

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Disruption of traditional institutions, identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some p…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
2	Disruption of traditional institutions, identifications and loyalties is likely to lead to ambivalent situations. It is possible that some p…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
3	We live in digital times. The digital is not just something we use strategically and specifically to do a few tasks. Our very perception of …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
4	The IMF has pointed out that the fast growing economies of Asia face the risk of falling into 'middle-income trap'. It means that average in…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
5	An innovative India will be inclusive as well as technologically advanced, improving the lives of all Indians. Innovation and R&D can mitiga…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
6	Climate change is likely to expose a large number of people to increasing environmental risks forcing them to migrate. The international com…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
7	Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to kill infesting insects. The consumption of pesticides in some of the developed countries is touchin…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
8	Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding biopesticides? 1. They are not hazardous to human health. 2. They are persistent …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
9	Certain 3-digit numbers following characteristics: 1. All the three digits are different. 2. The number is divisible by 7. 3. The number on …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
10	Examine the following statements: 1. All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4. Some colours are n…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
11	How many numbers arc there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
12	If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode then the distribution is	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
13	The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he m…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
14	P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
15	Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F: 1. The number of males equals that of fem…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
16	A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the b…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
17	If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
18	The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1 cm x 1…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
19	Consider the following: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. B is not neighbour of G. F is to the immediate right o…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
20	In a certain code, '256' means 'red colour chalk', '589' means 'green colour flower' and '254' means 'white colour chalk'. The digit in the …	Logical Reasoning	B	View
21	An air quality index (AQI) is a way to combine measurements of multiple air pollutants into a single number or rating. This index is ideally…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
22	Productive jobs are vital for growth and a good lob is the best form of inclusion. More than half of our population depends on agriculture, …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
23	A landscape-scale approach to land use can encourage greater biodiversity outside protected areas. During hurricane 'Mitch' in 1998, farms u…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
24	The medium term challenge for Indian manufacturing is to move from lower to higher tech sectors, from lower to higher value-added sectors, a…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
25	Over the last decade, Indian agriculture has become more robust with record production of food grains and oilseeds. Increased procurement, c…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
26	The States are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace; if the read snaps, the pearls are scattered. Which…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
27	Really I think that the poorest he that is in England has a life to live, as the greatest he, and therefore truly, I think it is clear that …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
28	The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
29	A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
30	A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
31	A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities—Hyderabad, Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not necessarily…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
32	In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and Geography. D and A teach M…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
33	A 2-digit number is reversed. The lamer of the two numbers is divided by it smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
34	The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4:3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3:2. However, each saves Rs. 6,000 per…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
35	Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
36	Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by two- way passages or one- way passages. One- way passages are from …	Logical Reasoning	B	View
37	Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by two- way passages or one- way passages. One- way passages are from …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
38	Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected either by two-way passages or one-way passages. One-way passages are from C t…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
39	There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always How many such maximum 2-…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
40	What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to numbered from 1 to 150?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
41	We have hard work ahead. There is no resting for any of us till we redeem our pledge in full fill we make all the people of India what desti…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
42	"The individual, according to Rousseau, puts his person and all his power in common under the supreme direction of the General Will and in o…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
43	In a democratic State, where a high degree of Political maturity of the people obtains, the conflict between the will of the sovereign lawma…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
44	A successful democracy depends upon widespread interest and participation in politics, in which voting is an essential part. To deliberately…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
45	In a free country, the man who reaches the position of leader is usually one of outstanding, character and ability. Moreover, it is usually …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
46	The greatest blessing that technological progress has in store for mankind is not, of course, an accumulation of material possessions. The a…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
47	There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that "a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpre…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
48	Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
49	In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employe…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
50	P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B) , where A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
51	A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 while another watch gains 2 minutes, in 24 hours. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an ide…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
52	In a city, 12% of households earn less than Rs. 30,000 per year, 6% households earn more than Rs. 2,00,000 per year, 22% households earn mor…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
53	A clock strikes once at 1 o'clock, twice at 2 o'clock and thrice at 3 o'clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o'clock, wha…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
54	Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow: Statement: Morning walk is good for health. Conclusions: 1. All healthy pe…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
55	There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first live such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirt…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
56	Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn g…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
57	There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
58	There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and equidistant to	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
59	A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following th…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
60	In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are mo…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
61	What climate change will undeniably do is cause of amplify events that hasten the reduction of resources. Competition over these diminishing…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
62	The man who is perpetually hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither. The man who resolves, but suffers his resol…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
63	During the summer in the Arctic Ocean, sea ice ha, been melting earlier and faster, and the winter freeze has been coming later. In the last…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
64	Why do people prefer open defecation and not want toilets or, if they have them, only use them sometimes? Recent research has shown two crit…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
65	In the last two decades, the world's gross domestic product (GDP) has increased 50 percent, whereas inclusive wealth has increased by a mere…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
66	By 2020, when the global economy is expected to run short of 56 million young people, India, with its youth surplus of 47 million, could fil…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
67	The very first lesson that should be taught to us when are old enough to understand it, is that complete freedom from the obligation to work…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
68	There is no harm in cultivating habits so long as they are not injurious. Indeed, most of us are little more than bundle of habits. Take awa…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
69	No supporters of 'party X', who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with 'party Y'; but some of them had fri…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
70	No supporters of 'party X', who knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, agreed for the alliance with 'party Y'; but some of them had fri…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
71	If second and fourth Saturdays and ,all the Sundays are taken as only holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible w…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
72	If there is a policy that 1/3rd of population of a community has migrated every year from one place, to some other place, what is the leftov…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
73	Four tests—Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The …	Logical Reasoning	C	View
74	The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
75	Consider the following: Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and well in the field of music. Co…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
76	There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one cha…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
77	"Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well is i nr ( indispensable to the true development of the citizen." In the light of …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
78	15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed ( ) students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the posi…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
79	Consider the following: A+ B means A is the son of B. A - B means A is the wife of B. What does the expression P + R - Q mean?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
80	Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal's posit…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View

Official cutoff — 2017

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2017 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 105.34
EWS: —
OBC: —
SC: —
ST: —

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

polity-and-governance39 (39%)
geography19 (19%)
economy17 (17%)
science-and-technology10 (10%)
history9 (9%)
art-and-culture5 (5%)
Others1 (1%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2017 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2017 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2017?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2017 was 105.34 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2017 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2017 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2017 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?