Consider the following statements: 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: In the first Lok Sabha (1952-1957), the single largest party in the opposition was the Communist Party of India (CPI), which secured 16 seats. The Swatantra Party was formed much later, in 1959. Statement 2 is correct: While the concept of a 'Leader of the Opposition' existed informally, the position was officially recognized for the first time in 1969. Dr. Ram Subhag Singh was the first to be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Statement 3 is incorrect: For a party to be recognized as the principal opposition party and for its leader to be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the party must have a minimum of 10% of the total strength of the House. For a Lok Sabha with a total strength of 543 elected members, this minimum is 55 members, not 75 members.

Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below:

All three statements describe common leaf modifications found in desert plants (xerophytes) to adapt to arid conditions and minimize water loss through transpiration. 1. Hard and waxy leaves: A thick, waxy cuticle on the leaf surface (often leading to a hard texture) significantly reduces the rate of water evaporation. This is a common adaptation in plants like cacti and succulents. 2. Tiny leaves: Reducing the surface area of leaves directly reduces the number of stomata and the total area available for transpiration. Many desert plants have very small leaves or shed them during extreme drought to conserve water. 3. Thorns instead of leaves: In many desert plants, such as cacti, leaves are modified into spines or thorns. This drastically reduces the surface area for water loss and also serves as a defense mechanism against herbivores. Photosynthesis in such plants is typically carried out by the green stems. Therefore, all three modifications contribute to inhibiting water loss in desert environments.

As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements: 1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households. 2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs. 3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

As per the NSSO 70th Round 'Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households' (2012-13): Statement 1 is correct. Rajasthan had the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households, at about 78.4%. Statement 2 is incorrect. While OBCs form a significant share, it was not 60% or more of agricultural households. The exact figures vary but the 60%+ claim is not supported by the survey data. Statement 3 is correct. In Kerala, over 60% of agricultural households reported their maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities, indicating high reliance on non-farm income. Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? 1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government. 2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: Both the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) are statutory bodies established by Acts of Parliament. The NGT was established by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The CPCB was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and subsequently entrusted with functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Neither was created by an executive order. Statement 2 is correct: The NGT's primary objective is to provide effective and expeditious environmental justice, dealing with cases related to environmental protection and conservation, thereby reducing the burden of environmental litigation in higher courts. The CPCB's main functions, as outlined in its founding acts, include promoting cleanliness of streams and wells by preventing and controlling water pollution, and improving the quality of air by preventing, controlling, and abating air pollution.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament of India, through constitutional amendment acts, has the power to place certain laws in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act, 1951, primarily to protect land reform laws from judicial review. Statement 2 is incorrect: While laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were initially considered beyond judicial review, the Supreme Court, in its landmark judgment in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) are open to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution. This judgment made it clear that the Ninth Schedule does not grant absolute immunity from judicial scrutiny.

Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news?

Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee charged to a merchant by a bank (or payment service provider) for processing debit and credit card transactions. When a customer uses their card to pay at a merchant's point-of-sale (PoS) terminal or online, a small percentage of the transaction value is deducted as MDR. This charge covers the costs associated with the payment infrastructure, including the issuing bank, the acquiring bank, and the payment network (like Visa, MasterCard, RuPay). Therefore, option C accurately describes the term.

The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.

The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.

The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'? 1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. 2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)". Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment, and technology that could be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. A country becoming a member of the NSG gains access to advanced nuclear technology and fuel for peaceful purposes, fostering international cooperation in nuclear energy while adhering to non-proliferation norms. Statement 2 is incorrect: Membership in the NSG does not automatically make a country a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)". While adherence to the NPT (or strong non-proliferation credentials) is generally a prerequisite for NSG membership, the two are distinct international regimes. For example, India is a candidate for NSG membership but is not a signatory to the NPT, primarily because it possesses nuclear weapons and views the NPT as discriminatory.

With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. 2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements". Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is incorrect: India's equalization levy (often referred to as 'Google Tax') of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities was introduced as a new Chapter VIII in the Finance Act, 2016, specifically dealing with the equalization levy. It was not introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act, 1961. This distinction was crucial as it allowed the levy to operate outside the purview of traditional income tax treaties. Statement 2 is incorrect: The equalization levy is generally not covered under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs). DTAAs are typically designed to avoid double taxation on income as defined under income tax laws. Since the equalization levy was designed as a separate levy outside the scope of income tax, it does not usually fall under the ambit of existing DTAAs. Therefore, non-resident entities typically cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under DTAAs for this levy.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. 2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. 3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report, chaired by N.K. Singh, indeed recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023. This target was further disaggregated, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments, as a measure for fiscal consolidation and sustainability. Statement 2 is incorrect: Historically, the Central Government's domestic liabilities as a percentage of GDP are significantly higher than those of the State Governments. While specific figures fluctuate, the Central Government's debt-to-GDP ratio typically ranges much higher (often 45-55% or more) compared to the State Governments' (which might be in the range of 25-30% or less). The statement reverses this trend, making it incorrect. Statement 3 is correct: Article 293(3) of the Constitution of India mandates that a State cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Government of India if there is still outstanding any part of a loan made to the State by the Government of India or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India. This provision ensures the Central Government's oversight on State borrowings, especially when the State has outstanding liabilities towards the Centre.

Consider the following statements: 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. 2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: India is one of the world's largest importers of edible oils. For many years, and specifically in the last five years preceding the question's context, the quantity of imported edible oils has significantly surpassed domestic production due to a persistent demand-supply gap. India relies heavily on imports to meet its edible oil consumption needs. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India does impose customs duty on imported edible oils. The customs duty rates on various edible oils are regularly adjusted based on domestic prices, international prices, and to protect the interests of domestic oilseed farmers. It is not true that no customs duty is imposed; rather, it is a significant source of revenue and a policy tool.

He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

The description accurately points to Lala Lajpat Rai. He was a prominent Indian nationalist, writer, and freedom fighter, famously known as 'Punjab Kesari'. He authored several biographies, including those of Giuseppe Mazzini and Giuseppe Garibaldi (Italian revolutionaries), Shivaji, and Shrikrishna. He stayed in America for a significant period (from 1914 to 1920), where he founded the Indian Home Rule League of America. Upon his return to India, he played an active role in politics and was also elected to the Central Legislative Assembly. These distinct biographical details confirm that the personality described is Lala Lajpat Rai.

Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), the issuing body for Aadhaar, explicitly states that Aadhaar is a proof of identity, not a proof of citizenship or domicile. It is issued to residents of India, regardless of their citizenship status, and does not confer any rights of citizenship or domicile. Therefore, it cannot be used as a standalone document for these purposes. Statement 2 is incorrect: While Aadhaar is designed to be a lifelong identity number, the Aadhaar Act and UIDAI regulations do provide mechanisms for deactivation or omission in certain circumstances. These can include cases where multiple Aadhaar numbers are issued to a single individual (one must be deactivated), or where an Aadhaar number was obtained fraudulently, or if a person explicitly requests deactivation under specific rules (e.g., if they are an NRI who has been away for long). Thus, it is not true that an Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities? 1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Aral Sea: This is a classic and widely known example of a large inland sea that has shrunk immensely and largely dried up due to human activities. The diversion of its feeder rivers (Amu Darya and Syr Darya) for irrigation projects (primarily cotton cultivation) in the Soviet era led to its catastrophic decline. So, statement 1 is correct. 2. Black Sea: The Black Sea has not shrunk or dried up. It is an active sea connected to the Mediterranean via the Turkish Straits. While it faces significant environmental challenges like pollution and eutrophication, it has not experienced immense shrinkage or drying up. 3. Lake Baikal: Located in Siberia, Russia, Lake Baikal is the world's largest freshwater lake by volume and the deepest lake. While it faces environmental threats from industrial pollution and climate change, it has not shrunk immensely or dried up in the recent past. Its immense size and depth make such a rapid shrinkage unlikely.

"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?

The "Rule of Law Index" is an annual publication produced by the World Justice Project (WJP). The WJP is an independent, multidisciplinary organization working to advance the rule of law around the world. The index provides data on the extent to which countries adhere to the rule of law based on various factors, including constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, civil justice, and criminal justice.

The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is the umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. It developed and operates the National Financial Switch (NFS), which is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. NFS facilitates interoperability, allowing customers of one bank to transact at the ATMs of other banks. Indian Banks' Association (IBA) is a representative body of management of banking in India. National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) is a securities depository in India. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank and regulator of payment systems, but NPCI is the operational entity for ATM interlinking.

National Securities Depository Limited

National Payments Corporation of India

Consider the following statements: 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues. 2. CAR is decided by each individual bank. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR), also known as Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR), is a measure of a bank's financial strength, expressed as a ratio of its capital to its risk-weighted assets. It represents the amount of capital a bank must hold to absorb potential losses from its operations. This ensures that banks have sufficient cushion to protect depositors and promote stability in the financial system. Statement 2 is incorrect: CAR is not decided by each individual bank. It is mandated by banking regulators, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in India, and international standards-setting bodies like the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS). These regulatory bodies set minimum CAR requirements that all banks under their jurisdiction must adhere to, to ensure systemic financial stability.

The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply? 1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 2. Online authentication using iris is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

When a platform like Aadhaar provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)", it means it offers a set of defined rules and specifications that allow different software applications to communicate with each other. Essentially, it allows other developers and organizations to build services and products that can interact with the Aadhaar system. Statement 1 is correct: Because Aadhaar APIs are open, developers can integrate Aadhaar authentication and e-KYC functionalities into various electronic devices, such as Point of Sale (PoS) machines, mobile phones, biometric scanners, and other hardware. This enables seamless Aadhaar-based transactions and identity verification across diverse platforms. Statement 2 is correct: Aadhaar supports multiple authentication methods, including biometric (fingerprint and iris) and demographic. By providing open APIs, the platform allows for the integration of iris scanners and associated software into systems that can then perform online authentication using iris biometrics. The availability of open APIs implies that such integration is technically feasible and supported.

Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

This question refers to major humanitarian crises that have been widely reported due to severe famine, acute malnutrition, and deaths caused by ongoing conflicts and ethnic violence. Yemen has been embroiled in a devastating civil war since 2014, leading to one of the world's worst humanitarian crises. Millions have faced severe food insecurity, malnutrition, and famine-like conditions due to the conflict, blockades, and economic collapse. South Sudan gained independence in 2011 but has since been plagued by civil war and ethnic conflicts, which have caused widespread displacement, disrupted agriculture, and led to severe food shortages, acute malnutrition, and repeated declarations of famine in various parts of the country. The other options, while facing various challenges, have not experienced widespread famine/acute malnutrition on the same scale or directly caused by war/ethnic conflicts in the recent past as Yemen and South Sudan.

Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true? 1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 2. Establishment of universities was recommended. 3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Wood's Education Dispatch of 1854 was a comprehensive plan for the spread of education in British India. Statement 1 is correct: The Dispatch recommended the introduction of a system of grants-in-aid to indigenous and private schools to encourage them to adopt the government's educational policies and standards. This aimed to expand the reach of education with private participation. Statement 2 is correct: It recommended the establishment of universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras on the model of the University of London. These universities were to be examining bodies, not teaching institutions initially. Statement 3 is incorrect: While Wood's Dispatch promoted English as the medium of instruction at the higher education level, it also emphasized the importance of vernacular languages at the primary level and Anglo-vernacular at the secondary level. It did not recommend English as a medium of instruction "at all levels of education"; rather, it sought to promote vernaculars at the grassroots.

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is the Parliamentary Committee specifically constituted to scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament, are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation. This committee ensures that the Executive does not overstep the authority granted to it by the Parliament when framing rules and regulations. Committee on Government Assurances examines the assurances, promises, undertakings, etc., given by ministers on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been implemented. Rules Committee considers matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends necessary amendments or additions to the rules. Business Advisory Committee allocates time for the discussion of government legislative and other business.

Committee on Government Assurances

Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, read with the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) Act, it is the NCTE (National Council of Teacher Education), a statutory body at the national level, that is designated as the academic authority to lay down the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher. It is not the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. Statement 2 is correct: The RTE Act, 2009, mandates that for teaching primary classes (and elementary education generally), a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) conducted in accordance with the guidelines laid down by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE). This ensures a minimum standard for teachers. Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, a significant majority of teacher education institutions are in the private sector. The statement that 'more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments' is factually incorrect. The private sector plays a dominant role in teacher education in India.

Consider the following pairs: Tradition State 1. Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Let's evaluate each pair: 1. Chapchar Kut festival - Mizoram: This pair is correct. Chapchar Kut is one of the most important and popular festivals of Mizoram, celebrated after the jhum (slash-and-burn) operation, before the planting of new crops. It is a festival of joy and thanksgiving for the upcoming harvest. 2. Khongjom Parba ballad - Manipur: This pair is correct. Khongjom Parba is a traditional folk ballad sung in Manipur, often narrating stories of the Anglo-Manipur War of 1891 and the bravery of Manipuri warriors who fought against the British. 3. Thang-Ta dance - Sikkim: This pair is incorrect. Thang-Ta is a traditional Manipuri martial art form that involves the use of swords (thang) and spears (ta). It is indigenous to Manipur and is an integral part of Manipuri culture, encompassing both ritualistic performance and combat techniques. It is not associated with Sikkim.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: The Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA), 2006, was enacted to consolidate the laws relating to food and to establish the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). Upon its enactment, it repealed and replaced several older food-related acts and orders, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, along with seven other laws. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. It functions independently under its own Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer (CEO), appointed by the Central Government. It is not under the direct charge of the Director General of Health Services; rather, both FSSAI and DGHS are distinct entities under the same ministry.

The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

The term "two-state solution" is consistently used in the context of the Israeli-Palestinian conflict. It refers to a proposed resolution where two independent states, Israel and a Palestinian state, would exist side-by-side in peace and security, with mutually recognized borders. This solution is widely supported by the international community as a framework for achieving lasting peace in the region.

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements : 1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains. 2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, aims to provide subsidized food grains to up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population, as identified by State/UT Governments. It does not exclusively target families falling under the traditional 'Below Poverty Line (BPL)' category. The Act moved from a BPL/APL (Above Poverty Line) classification to 'priority households' and 'Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)' households, thus broadening the coverage. Statement 2 is correct: As per Section 13 of the National Food Security Act, 2013, for the purpose of issue of ration cards under the Act, the eldest woman who is 18 years of age or above in the household shall be the head of the household. This provision aims to empower women and ensure their centrality in household food security. Statement 3 is incorrect: The NFSA, 2013, entitles pregnant women and lactating mothers to free nutritious meals, through the local Anganwadi, during pregnancy and for six months after childbirth, along with maternity benefits of at least Rs. 6,000. While nutrition is provided, the Act does not specify a precise 'take-home ration' of '1600 calories per day'. The focus is on providing a nutritious meal and financial support, with specific calorie/protein norms typically decided at the program implementation level (e.g., ICDS guidelines).

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

India's Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, was enacted to align with its international obligations. Specifically, this legislation was a direct response to the requirements set forth by the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS Agreement). The TRIPS Agreement is one of the core agreements administered by the World Trade Organization (WTO). It mandates that WTO member countries provide protection for various forms of intellectual property, including Geographical Indications (GIs). Therefore, to be compliant with its commitments under the WTO, India passed this Act to allow for the registration and legal protection of goods that possess unique qualities or a reputation due to their geographical origin.

Consider the following statements: 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines. 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's evaluate each statement: 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. This statement is incorrect. Following amendments to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, particularly in 2015, the auction mechanism for granting mining leases for major minerals (including non-coal minerals) has been largely adopted, and State Governments are empowered to conduct these auctions. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines. This statement is incorrect. Both Andhra Pradesh (e.g., Ramagiri gold fields) and Jharkhand (e.g., Kunderkocha and Pahardia in East Singhbhum district) have known gold reserves and some level of gold mining activity, historically or presently. 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines. This statement is correct. Rajasthan is indeed one of the states in India with significant iron ore deposits. Important iron ore mining areas in Rajasthan include Jaipur, Udaipur, and Bhilwara districts. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the given statements regarding digital payments: 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. This statement is correct. BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) is an application based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) platform. UPI enables instant money transfers between bank accounts using a Virtual Payment Address (VPA), mobile number, or Aadhaar number, directly linking to UPI-enabled bank accounts. 2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. This statement is incorrect. A typical chip-PIN debit card generally involves two factors of authentication: something you have (the card) and something you know (the PIN). Similarly, the BHIM app typically involves two factors: something you have (your smartphone with the app) and something you know (your UPI PIN, which is required for transactions). The number of authentication factors can vary based on specific security implementations, but the assertion of a four-factor card versus a two-factor app, with BHIM having 'only' two, is misleading and generally inaccurate for standard usage. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

To answer this question, one needs to have an approximate idea of the longitudes of the mentioned cities: Delhi: Approximately 77.2° East longitude Bengaluru: Approximately 77.6° East longitude Hyderabad: Approximately 78.5° East longitude Nagpur: Approximately 79.1° East longitude Pune: Approximately 73.8° East longitude Comparing these longitudes, Bengaluru (77.6° E) is the closest to Delhi (77.2° E).

International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

The International Labour Organization (ILO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations dedicated to advancing social justice and promoting decent work by setting international labour standards. ILO Conventions 138 and 182 are critical instruments in the global effort to combat child labour: ILO Convention 138 (Minimum Age Convention, 1973): This convention aims to abolish child labour by establishing a general minimum age for admission to employment or work, typically set at 15 years, with provisions for lighter work and hazardous work. ILO Convention 182 (Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999): This convention calls for the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour, which include all forms of slavery or practices similar to slavery, forced or compulsory labour, and work which, by its nature or the circumstances in which it is carried out, is likely to harm the health, safety or morals of children. Both conventions are fundamental to the ILO's work against child labour.

Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change

Regulation of food prices and food security

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

Let's examine each statement regarding a Money Bill as per Article 110 of the Indian Constitution: A) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax. This is a correct characteristic as per Article 110(1)(a). B) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. This is correct. Article 110(1)(c) includes "the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such Fund" as matters that can be included in a Money Bill. C) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. This statement is NOT correct. While Money Bills deal with appropriation, the annual Appropriation Bill, which is a type of Money Bill, primarily concerns the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India is typically used for unforeseen expenditures and operates under the President's discretion, with subsequent parliamentary approval for regularization, but a bill solely or primarily concerned with *appropriation out of the Contingency Fund* is not the defining characteristic of a Money Bill in the general sense of annual financial legislation. Appropriation from the Consolidated Fund is the primary focus of Money Bills related to expenditure. D) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. This is correct. Article 110(1)(b) includes "the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India" as matters for a Money Bill. Therefore, the statement that is NOT correct is C.

A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.

A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's evaluate the statements regarding the election of the President of India: 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. This statement is correct. The value of an MLA's vote is calculated using a formula: (Total population of the State / Total number of elected members of the State Legislative Assembly) × 1000. Since the population and the number of elected MLAs differ from one state to another, the value of an MLA's vote varies across different states. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. This statement is incorrect. The value of the vote of an MP (Member of Parliament) is uniform for all elected MPs, whether they are from the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. This value is determined by dividing the total value of votes of all elected MLAs by the total number of elected MPs in both Houses of Parliament. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

The 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)' is a legal document that significantly strengthens the IAEA's safeguards system. For a country like India, ratifying the Additional Protocol primarily implies granting the IAEA broader inspection rights and increased access to information and facilities related to its civilian nuclear program. This is aimed at providing credible assurances that nuclear material and technology are not being diverted from peaceful uses to nuclear weapons programs. It enhances transparency and verification capabilities of the IAEA over a nation's declared civilian nuclear activities. It does not automatically mean military nuclear installations come under inspection, nor does it guarantee specific trade privileges or automatic membership in groups like the NSG, although increased transparency can build trust and facilitate such relationships.

The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.

The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).

The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

Consider the following countries: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) has established Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with several key dialogue partners. These are often referred to as ASEAN Plus One FTAs, and include: Australia: Part of the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand Free Trade Area (AANZFTA). Canada: While Canada has engagement with ASEAN, it is not currently one of ASEAN's established 'free-trade partners' in the same comprehensive way as the others listed, though discussions for an FTA are ongoing. China: Part of the ASEAN-China Free Trade Area (ACFTA). India: Part of the ASEAN-India Free Trade Area (AIFTA). Japan: Part of the ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP). USA: The United States does not have a comprehensive free trade agreement with ASEAN as a bloc, although it has bilateral trade agreements with individual ASEAN member states. Therefore, among the given options, Australia, China, India, and Japan are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN.

With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Let's analyze the statements concerning the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)': 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015. This statement is incorrect. The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) was launched at the UN Climate Summit in New York in September 2014, which was a year before the Paris Agreement was adopted in December 2015. 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations. This statement is correct. GACSA is explicitly a voluntary, multi-stakeholder platform. Its members, which include governments, private sector organizations, and civil society, commit to voluntary actions and initiatives to promote climate-smart agriculture but are not bound by any legally enforceable obligations or targets. 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. This statement is incorrect. While India is a member and has actively participated in GACSA, the alliance was primarily initiated and championed by countries such as the Netherlands and New Zealand, with strong support from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India? 1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The "Digital India" Plan is a flagship program of the Government of India with a vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. Its main aims are clearly defined: 1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did. This is not a stated aim of the Digital India Plan. While the plan aims to foster innovation and create an ecosystem for digital businesses, it does not explicitly focus on creating state-controlled or state-backed internet companies to rival others, unlike some models seen in other countries. The focus is more on enabling and facilitating a digital environment. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. While data localization and securing data are emerging policy concerns that may lead to such frameworks, this specific objective of *encouraging MNCs to build data centres within national boundaries* is not one of the primary, explicit aims listed under the core pillars of the original Digital India program. Digital India is more about broad digital infrastructure, service delivery, and digital literacy. 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. This is a core and explicit objective of the Digital India program, falling under its 'Broadband Highways' and 'Public Internet Access Programme' pillars. The aim is to ensure widespread internet connectivity and digital access, especially in rural and public areas. Therefore, only statement 3 correctly reflects an aim of the "Digital India" Plan.

Consider the following pairs: Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country 1. Aleppo Syria 2. Kirkuk Yemen 3. Mosul Palestine 4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

This question tests geographical knowledge, particularly of regions frequently in the news: 1. Aleppo - Syria: Correctly matched. Aleppo is a major city in Syria, notably affected by the Syrian Civil War. 2. Kirkuk - Yemen: Incorrectly matched. Kirkuk is a city in Iraq, significant for its oil reserves and often a flashpoint for ethnic and political tensions. Yemen is located on the Arabian Peninsula. 3. Mosul - Palestine: Incorrectly matched. Mosul is one of the largest cities in Iraq, historically and strategically important, particularly in recent conflicts involving ISIS. Palestine is a distinct geographical and political entity. 4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan: Correctly matched. Mazar-i-sharif is a significant city in northern Afghanistan, known for its Blue Mosque. Based on the analysis, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

The Government of India Act of 1935 was a landmark piece of legislation that proposed a federation of India. It meticulously divided powers between the Centre (Federal Government) and the Provinces into three lists: Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List. However, for any subjects not included in these lists, i.e., the residuary powers, the Act explicitly vested them with the Governor-General. This provision ensured that the British-appointed Governor-General retained significant authority within the proposed federal structure.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's examine the statements concerning the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. This statement is correct. Article 179(a) of the Indian Constitution clearly states that a Speaker or Deputy Speaker of a Legislative Assembly "shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly." Membership of the Assembly is a prerequisite for holding the Speaker's office. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. This statement is incorrect. The proviso to Article 179 states that "whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution." This provision ensures continuity and the smooth functioning of the House until a new Speaker is elected by the newly constituted Assembly. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

This question explores the intricate relationship between law and liberty in a societal context: A) If there are more laws, there is less liberty. This is not necessarily true. While excessive or restrictive laws can curtail liberty, laws that protect rights, establish order, and prevent harm (e.g., laws against theft, violence) actually secure and enhance liberty by creating a safe and predictable environment for individuals to exercise their freedoms without fear. B) If there are no laws, there is no liberty. This statement reflects a fundamental tenet of political philosophy. In a state of anarchy, without any laws, there would be no protection for individual rights or freedoms. The powerful would dominate the weak, leading to a state where true liberty, understood as freedom within a framework of rights, would be impossible to secure. Laws provide the framework for ordered liberty, ensuring that one person's freedom does not unduly infringe upon another's. C) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people. While democratic law-making (laws made by the people) is a desirable feature that enhances liberty and self-governance, the fundamental principle that laws are necessary for liberty does not strictly require popular law-making. Even in non-democratic systems, some laws exist that can protect certain aspects of individual freedom, though the overall scope of liberty might be limited. D) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger. Frequent changes in laws can lead to legal uncertainty and instability, which can indirectly affect the exercise of liberty. However, this is a secondary concern compared to the fundamental absence of laws. The primary threat to liberty is the lack of a legal framework altogether. Therefore, the most appropriate relationship is that laws create the necessary conditions for liberty to exist and be protected.

If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Consider the following statements: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's examine the statements concerning the Governor of a State: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. This statement is correct. Article 361(2) of the Indian Constitution provides immunity to the President and Governors from criminal proceedings during their term of office. This means no court can order their arrest or imprisonment in criminal matters. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. This statement is also correct. Article 158(4) of the Indian Constitution states that "The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office." This provision is crucial for ensuring the independence and dignity of the office, preventing the executive or legislature from using financial leverage against the Governor. Both statements are correct.

The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the

The well-known painting "Bani Thani" is a masterpiece of Indian miniature painting and is famously associated with the Kishangarh school of painting. This school flourished in the 18th century in the princely state of Kishangarh in Rajasthan. The painting depicts a courtesan and poet named Bani Thani, who was a mistress and later a queen of King Sawant Singh of Kishangarh. The style is distinctive, characterized by exaggerated features such as elongated faces, arched eyebrows, and large, lotus-like eyes, often with a romantic and devotional theme.

What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?

THAAD stands for Terminal High Altitude Area Defense. It is an advanced anti-ballistic missile defense system designed and developed by the United States. Its primary purpose is to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles within or outside the atmosphere during their terminal phase of flight (the final stage as they descend toward their target). THAAD uses a "hit-to-kill" technology, meaning it destroys incoming missiles through direct impact, rather than using an explosive warhead.

India's indigenous anti-missile programme

An American anti-missile system

A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's evaluate the statements regarding Carnatic music composers: 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. This statement is incorrect. Tyagaraja (1767–1847), one of the Trinity of Carnatic music, was a profound devotee of Lord Rama. The vast majority of his compositions (Kritis) are devotional songs dedicated to Lord Rama. 2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. This statement is correct. Tyagaraja was not only a prolific composer but also an innovator. He is credited with creating or popularizing several new ragas and expanding the scope of existing ones, showcasing his deep mastery and creative genius in Carnatic music. 3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. This statement is incorrect. Annamacharya (1408–1503) lived much earlier than Tyagaraja (1767–1847). There is a gap of several centuries between them. Annamacharya is considered the earliest known composer of Sankirtanas in Telugu. 4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. This statement is correct. Annamacharya, also known as Tallapaka Annamacharya, composed an immense number of devotional songs (kirtanas), almost all of which are dedicated to Lord Venkateshwara of Tirumala. Therefore, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People's responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The "Rule of Law" is a foundational principle of democratic governance, implying that all persons and institutions are accountable to laws that are publicly promulgated, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated. Key features defining the Rule of Law include: 1. Limitation of powers: This is a core feature. The Rule of Law ensures that governmental powers are limited and exercised according to established laws, preventing arbitrary rule and protecting against abuse of authority. 2. Equality before law: This is also a fundamental feature. It means that everyone, including those in positions of power, is subject to the same laws, and no one is above the law. Laws apply equally to all, without discrimination. 3. People's responsibility to the Government: While citizens have responsibilities within a legal framework, this is not considered a primary *feature* that *defines* the Rule of Law itself. The Rule of Law primarily focuses on how the government and its citizens are bound by law, ensuring justice and fairness, rather than enumerating citizens' duties *to* the government. 4. Liberty and civil rights: The Rule of Law is intrinsically linked to the protection of individual liberties and civil rights. By providing a stable, predictable, and just legal framework, it ensures that citizens can exercise their rights and freedoms without arbitrary interference from the state or other individuals. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are regarded as the main features of the Rule of Law.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

Legal tender money refers to any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt. If a creditor is offered legal tender in settlement of a debt, they are legally compelled to accept it. Refusal to accept legal tender for a debt means the debt is still considered paid in the eyes of the law, even if the creditor did not physically receive the funds. A) This option describes money used for legal fees, which is a specific application, not the definition. B) This precisely defines legal tender: it is money that *must* be accepted in payment of a debt. C) Bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, etc., is not legal tender. A creditor is not obliged to accept them; they are promises to pay, not the final payment itself. D) While metallic money can be legal tender, this option describes only one form of money and not the inherent characteristic of being legally mandated for debt settlement.

The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases

The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.

The metallic money in circulation in a country

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

Opportunity cost is the value of the next best alternative that must be foregone when a choice is made. Even when a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, resources (labor, capital, raw materials) are still used in its production and distribution. These resources could have been used to produce other goods or services, representing an opportunity cost. This cost does not disappear or become zero. Instead, the burden of this opportunity cost, which would typically be borne by the direct consumers of the product through its price, is transferred to the general tax-paying public, who collectively fund the government's expenditure. The government acts as an intermediary, shifting the financial burden from direct users to taxpayers.

the opportunity cost is ignored.

the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

Economic growth is typically measured by an increase in absolute and per capita real GNP (Gross National Product), signifying a rise in the total output of goods and services. However, economic development is a broader concept that encompasses qualitative improvements in living standards, equitable distribution of wealth, and enhanced social welfare. If an economy experiences an increase in GNP but simultaneously sees a rise in poverty and unemployment, it indicates that the economic growth is not inclusive. The benefits of growth are not reaching all sections of society, and the fundamental problems of deprivation and lack of opportunities are worsening for a significant portion of the population. In such a scenario, despite aggregate growth, the society is not achieving a higher level of economic development, as the welfare and well-being of its people are deteriorating.

industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.

agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.

poverty and unemployment increase.

imports grow faster than exports.

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. 2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. 3. accumulation of tangible wealth. 4. accumulation of intangible wealth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Human capital formation refers to the process of improving the productive capacities of a population through investments in education, health, skills, and knowledge. It treats human beings as assets that can be enhanced to contribute more to economic output. 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital. While human capital can lead to higher incomes and thus potentially more financial capital accumulation, this statement describes a potential *outcome* rather than the core process of human capital formation itself. Human capital is about improving human capabilities, not just financial wealth accumulation. 2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country. This is a core and direct explanation of human capital formation. Investments in education, training, and healthcare directly enhance these attributes. 3. accumulation of tangible wealth. Tangible wealth refers to physical assets like buildings, machinery, infrastructure, etc. Human capital, on the other hand, is an intangible asset. 4. accumulation of intangible wealth. This is correct. Human capital (knowledge, skills, health, creativity) constitutes an intangible form of wealth that enhances a nation's productive potential. Therefore, statements 2 and 4 correctly explain human capital formation.

Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

A high saving economy implies that a significant portion of national income is being saved and potentially invested, leading to capital formation. However, if this capital formation does not result in a significant increase in output, it suggests an inefficiency in the utilization of capital. This inefficiency is directly captured by a high capital-output ratio. A high capital-output ratio means that a large amount of capital investment is required to produce a relatively small increase in output. In other words, the productivity of capital is low. If this ratio is high, even with substantial capital formation (due to high savings), the resulting increase in output will be modest. While weak administrative machinery, illiteracy, and high population density are indeed developmental challenges that can hinder overall productivity, the most direct economic reason for capital formation failing to generate proportional output increase is the inefficiency of capital, as reflected in a high capital-output ratio.

After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government? 1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The Santhal Uprising (1855-56) was a significant tribal revolt against British colonial and zamindari exploitation. After the uprising was suppressed, the British government took several measures to address the grievances and prevent future insurrections. These measures included: 1. **Creation of 'Santhal Paraganas'**: The territories predominantly inhabited by Santhals were carved out and designated as 'Santhal Paraganas' by the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act of 1876. This creation aimed to provide a separate administrative unit to manage tribal affairs more effectively and protect their land rights. 2. **Restriction on Land Transfer**: It was made illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal. This was a crucial protective measure to prevent the alienation of tribal land to outsiders (moneylenders, zamindars, etc.), which had been a major cause of the uprising. Therefore, both statements are correct as they represent key administrative and legal reforms implemented by the colonial government in the aftermath of the Santhal Uprising.

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UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2018 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Prelims 2018 solved paper

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General Studies — Paper 1

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Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Consider the following statements: 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the …	polity-and-governance	B	View
2	Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves 3. Thor…	geography	D	View
3	As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements: 1. Rajasthan has the…	economy	C	View
4	How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? 1. The NGT has been established by an Ac…	polity-and-governance	B	View
5	Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.…	polity-and-governance	A	View
6	Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news?	economy	C	View
7	What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'? 1. It will have access to the la…	science-and-technology	A	View
8	With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, whic…	economy	D	View
9	Consider the following statements: 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt …	economy	C	View
10	Consider the following statements: 1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last f…	economy	A	View
11	He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central As…	history	C	View
12	Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot …	polity-and-governance	D	View
13	Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities? 1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea 3. Lake Baika…	geography	A	View
14	"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?	polity-and-governance	D	View
15	Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?	economy	C	View
16	Consider the following statements: 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds …	economy	A	View
17	The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply? 1. It can be integrated into …	polity-and-governance	C	View
18	Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to…	polity-and-governance	D	View
19	Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true? 1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced. 2. Establishment of universit…	history	A	View
20	With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the …	polity-and-governance	B	View
21	Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a per…	polity-and-governance	B	View
22	Consider the following pairs: Tradition State 1. Chapchar Kut festival Mizoram 2. Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur 3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim Whi…	art-and-culture	B	View
23	Consider the following statements: 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The…	polity-and-governance	A	View
24	The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of	polity-and-governance	B	View
25	With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements : 1. The families coming…	polity-and-governance	B	View
26	India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to	polity-and-governance	D	View
27	Consider the following statements: 1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines. 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jha…	economy	D	View
28	With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: 1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-en…	economy	A	View
29	Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?	geography	A	View
30	International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to	polity-and-governance	A	View
31	Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?	polity-and-governance	C	View
32	With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies fro…	polity-and-governance	A	View
33	In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?	science-and-technology	A	View
34	Consider the following countries: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. India 5. Japan 6. USA Which of the above are among the 'free-trade part…	polity-and-governance	C	View
35	With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. GACSA is…	geography	B	View
36	Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India? 1. Formation of India's own Internet companie…	polity-and-governance	B	View
37	Consider the following pairs: Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country 1. Aleppo Syria 2. Kirkuk Yemen 3. Mosul Palestine 4. Mazar-i-sharif…	geography	B	View
38	In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the	polity-and-governance	B	View
39	Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of…	polity-and-governance	A	View
40	Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?	polity-and-governance	B	View
41	Consider the following statements: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his te…	polity-and-governance	C	View
42	The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the	art-and-culture	D	View
43	What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?	science-and-technology	C	View
44	With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in prai…	art-and-culture	B	View
45	Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People's re…	polity-and-governance	C	View
46	Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?	economy	B	View
47	If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then	economy	C	View
48	Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if	economy	C	View
49	Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more …	economy	C	View
50	Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to	economy	D	View
51	After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government? 1. The territories called 'Santhal…	history	C	View
52	Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the	history	C	View
53	If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then	polity-and-governance	B	View
54	Consider the following pairs: Craft Heritage of 1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu 2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra 3. Uppada Jamdani saris Karn…	art-and-culture	A	View
55	In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? 1. Mobile phone operations 2. Banking operations 3. Controlling the power grids …	science-and-technology	D	View
56	Consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Govern…	economy	C	View
57	Consider the following statements: 1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 2. When the Earth was create…	geography	C	View
58	The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to	science-and-technology	C	View
59	With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the foll…	geography	C	View
60	The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of	geography	D	View
61	With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements: 1. IRNSS has three satellites …	science-and-technology	A	View
62	Consider the following phenomena : 1. Light is affected by gravity. 2. The Universe is constantly expanding. 3. Matter warps its surrounding…	science-and-technology	D	View
63	With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements: 1. GM mustard has the…	science-and-technology	B	View
64	Consider the following pairs: Terms sometimes seen in news Context/Topic 1. Belle II experiment Artificial Intelligence 2. Blockchain techno…	science-and-technology	B	View
65	Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?	geography	A	View
66	When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on …	science-and-technology	B	View
67	With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements : 1. India is the third largest in the world in the man…	economy	D	View
68	The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were	history	D	View
69	Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?	history	C	View
70	Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948?	history	D	View
71	With reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to	art-and-culture	B	View
72	With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: 1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Kh…	art-and-culture	D	View
73	Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?	history	B	View
74	With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?	art-and-culture	C	View
75	Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?	history	C	View
76	Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India? 1. Charter Act of 1813 2. General Committee of Public Instruct…	history	D	View
77	Which one of the following is an artificial lake?	geography	A	View
78	With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of La…	economy	C	View
79	In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"?	history	A	View
80	Which among the following events happened earliest ?	history	B	View
81	Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds? 1. Decreased salinity in the river 2. Pollution …	geography	B	View
82	With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements: 1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its…	geography	B	View
83	The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economi…	geography	B	View
84	"3D printing" has applications in which of the following? 1. Preparation of confectionery items 2. Manufacture of bionic ears 3. Automotive …	science-and-technology	D	View
85	Consider the following statements: 1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. 2. Barren Island lies …	geography	A	View
86	Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?	geography	B	View
87	Consider the following statements : 1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters. 2. More than one-third of the world's coral r…	geography	D	View
88	"Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by	geography	C	View
89	With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: Institution Founder 1. Sanskrit Coll…	history	B	View
90	Consider the following pairs: Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country 1. Catalonia Spain 2. Crimea Hungary 3. Mindanao Philippines 4. Or…	geography	C	View
91	Consider the following events: 1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India. 2. India's then la…	history	B	View
92	Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of Indi…	polity-and-governance	C	View
93	Consider the following: 1. Areca nut 2. Barley 3. Coffee 4. Finger millet 5. Groundnut 6. Sesamum 7. Turmeric The Cabinet Committee on Econo…	economy	B	View
94	In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?	geography	A	View
95	With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: 1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth reso…	science-and-technology	A	View
96	With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements: 1. Capital infusion into public secto…	economy	B	View
97	Consider the following items : 1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspapers containing advertis…	economy	C	View
98	Consider the following statements: 1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. 2. For t…	polity-and-governance	A	View
99	Consider the following: 1. Birds 2. Dust blowing 3. Rain 4. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases ?	geography	D	View
100	With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: 1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is …	economy	B	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

61 / 61

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Consider the following sum: • +1• +2• +• 3 + • 1 = 21• In the above sum, • stands for	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
2	Consider the following pattern of numbers: 8 10 15 13 6 5 7 4 4/6 6/11 8/16 8/? What is the number at ? in the above pattern?	Logical Reasoning	A	View
3	How many diagonals can be drawn by joining the vertices of an octagon?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
4	A train 200 metres long is moving at the rate of 40 kmph. In how many seconds will it cross a man standing near the railway line?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
5	Global population was around 1.6 billion in 1990- today it is around 7.2 billion and growing. Recent estimates on population growth predict …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
6	Many pathogens that cause foodborne illnesses are unknown. Food contamination can occur at any stage from farm to plate. Since most cases of…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
7	Though I have discarded much of past tradition and custom, and am anxious that India should rid herself of all shackles that bind and contai…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
8	I am a scientist, privileged to be somebody who tries to understand nature using the tools of science. But it is also clear that there are s…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
9	It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essenti…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
10	It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essenti…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
11	It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essenti…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
12	It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essenti…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
13	If LSJXVC is the code for MUMBAI, the code for DELHI is	Logical Reasoning	A	View
14	If RAMON is written as 12345 and DINESH as 675849, then HAMAM will be written as	Logical Reasoning	B	View
15	If X is between -3 and -1, and Y is between -1 and 1, then X ² - Y² is in between which of the following?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
16	X and Y are natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which of the following represents the largest number?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
17	The plan of an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F is as follows: Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
18	The plan of an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F is as follows: Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
19	Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of prod…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
20	Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of prod…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
21	Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of prod…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
22	A diversity of natural assets will be needed to cope with climate change and ensure productive agriculture, forestry, and fisheries. For exa…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
23	A diversity of natural assets will be needed to cope with climate change and ensure productive agriculture, forestry, and fisheries. For exa…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
24	Today, the top environmental challenge is a combination of people and their aspirations. If the aspirations are more like the frugal ones we…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
25	Some people believe that leadership is a quality which you have at birth or not at all. This theory is false, for the art of leadership can …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
26	A number consists of three digits of which the middle one is zero and their sum is 4. If the number formed by interchanging the first and la…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
27	A solid cube of 3 cm side, painted on all its faces, is cut up into small cubes of 1 cm side. How many of the small cubes will have exactly …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
28	While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the digit at hundred's place is greater than the digit at te…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
29	If Pen Cap, then which one of the following is always true?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
30	A bookseller sold 'a' number of Geography textbooks at the rate of Rs. x per book, 'a + 2' number of History textbooks at the rate of Rs. (x…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
31	A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1 or 2 or 3. 20% of the red balls are numbered 1 and 40% of the…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
32	Two persons, A and B are running on a circular track. At the start, B is ahead of A and their positions make an angle of 30° at the centre o…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
33	A student has to get 40% marks to pass in an examination. Suppose he gets 30 marks and fails by 30 marks, then what are the maximum marks in…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
34	19 boys turn out for playing hockey. Of these, 11 are wearing hockey shirts and 14 are wearing hockey pants. There are no boys without shirt…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
35	A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S (not necessarily in that order). They are studyi…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
36	A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S (not necessarily in that order). They are studyi…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
37	A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S (not necessarily in that order). They are studyi…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
38	A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S (not necessarily in that order). They are studyi…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
39	A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S (not necessarily in that order). They are studyi…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
40	A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S (not necessarily in that order). They are studyi…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
41	All actions to address climate change ultimately involve costs. Funding is vital in order for countries like India to design and implement a…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
42	Cooking with biomass and coal in India is now recognized to cause major health problems, with women and children in poor populations facing …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
43	Scientific knowledge has its dangers, but so has every great thing. Over and beyond the dangers with which it threatens the present, it open…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
44	The Arctic's vast reserves of fossil fuel, fish and minerals are now accessible for a longer period in a year. But unlike Antarctica, which …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
45	Being a member of the WTO, India is bound by the agreements that have been signed and ratified by its members, including itself. According t…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
46	India's educational system is modelled on the mass education system that developed in the 19th century in Europe and later spread around the…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
47	The practice of dieting has become an epidemic; everyone is looking out for a way to attain that perfect body. We are all different with res…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
48	Monoculture carries great risks. A single disease or pest can wipe out swathes of the world's food production, an alarming prospect given th…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
49	A shopkeeper sells an article at Rs. 40 and gets X% profit. However, when he sells it at Rs. 20, he faces same percentage of loss. What is t…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
50	There are 24 equally spaced points lying on the circumference of a circle. What is the maximum number of equilateral triangles that can be d…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
51	Consider the sequence given below: 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96, _ _ _ _ _ What is the next term of the series?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
52	Twelve equal squares are placed to fit in a rectangle of diagonal 5 cm. There are three rows containing four squares each. No gaps are left …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
53	A lift has the capacity of 18 adults or 30 children. How many children can board the lift with 12 adults?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
54	A person bought a refrigerator worth Rs. 22,800 with 12.5% interest compounded yearly. At the end of first year he paid Rs. 8,650 and at the…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
55	Lakshmi, her brother, her daughter and her son are badminton players. A game of doubles is about to begin: (i) Lakshmi's brother is directly…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
56	Directions: The following table gives the GDP growth rate and Tele- density data of different States of a country in a particular year. Stud…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
57	Directions: The following table gives the GDP growth rate and Teldensity data of different States of a country in a particular year. Study t…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
58	If x - y = 8 , then which of the following must be true? 1. Both x and y must be positive for any value of x and y . 2. If x is positive, y …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
59	Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only. The quest for che…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
60	Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only. A male tiger was …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
61	Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to this item should be based on the passage only. A male tiger was …	Reading Comprehension	A	View

Official cutoff — 2018

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2018 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 98.00
EWS: —
OBC: 96.66
SC: 84.00
ST: 83.34

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

polity-and-governance26 (26%)
economy21 (21%)
geography20 (20%)
history14 (14%)
science-and-technology12 (12%)
art-and-culture7 (7%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2018 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2018 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2018?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2018 was 98.00 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2018 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2018 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2018 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2018 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

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