Consider the following statements: 1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. 2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest. 3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements are correct?

Statement 1: The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. This is a fundamental aspect of the RBI's governance structure, with the appointment being made by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC). Statement 2: While the Central Government does have powers to issue directions to the RBI in public interest (e.g., under Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934), these provisions are laid down in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which is a statutory law, not directly in the Constitution of India. The Constitution lays down the framework of the state, but specific operational details for statutory bodies like the RBI are governed by acts of Parliament. Statement 3: The powers, functions, and responsibilities of the Governor of the RBI, as well as the overall framework for the RBI's operations, are derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This Act defines the RBI's mandate and the authority of its top management. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements : 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage. 2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment. 3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements are correct?

Statement 1: Not all casual workers are automatically entitled to Employees Provident Fund (EPF) coverage. The Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, applies to establishments employing 20 or more persons, and there are specific wage ceilings and conditions for eligibility. Workers in smaller establishments or those earning below certain thresholds might not be covered, making the blanket statement incorrect. Statement 2: Labour laws in India, such as the Factories Act, 1948, and the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, along with the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, aim to ensure that all workers, including casual workers, are entitled to regular working hours and payment for overtime work, as well as minimum wages. This is a fundamental right to prevent exploitation. Statement 3: The Payment of Wages Act, 1936, has provisions (specifically Section 6) that empower the appropriate government to specify, by notification, that wages must be paid to employees only through an account payee cheque or by crediting the wages in their bank account for certain establishments or industries. This measure promotes transparency and financial inclusion for workers. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?

An economic recession is characterized by a significant decline in economic activity across the economy, typically visible in real GDP, real income, employment, industrial production, and wholesale-retail sales. During a recession, there is often a lack of demand and high unemployment. To combat a recession, governments typically implement expansionary fiscal policies to stimulate demand and create jobs. Increasing expenditure on public projects (like infrastructure development) is a direct form of expansionary fiscal policy. It injects money into the economy, creates employment opportunities, and boosts aggregate demand, thereby helping to lift the economy out of recession. Options A and C involve contradictory policy mixes (e.g., cut in tax rates with increased interest rates, or increased tax rates which are contractionary during recession). Option D (Reduction of expenditure on public projects) would further contract the economy and worsen the recession. Therefore, an increase in expenditure on public projects is the most appropriate and likely step to be taken during an economic recession.

Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate

Increase in expenditure on public projects

Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate

Reduction of expenditure on public projects

Consider the following statements: Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if 1. price of its substitute increases 2. price of its complement increases 3. the good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases 4. its price falls Which of the above statements are correct?

The question asks what factors might increase the market demand for a good, assuming 'other things remaining unchanged' (ceteris paribus). Statement 1: If the price of its substitute increases, consumers will find the substitute relatively more expensive and shift their preference towards the good in question, thereby increasing its demand. This statement is correct. Statement 2: If the price of its complement increases, the complementary good becomes more expensive. Since the good in question is typically consumed together with its complement, the demand for the complement will fall, and consequently, the demand for the good in question will also fall. This statement is incorrect. Statement 3: If the good is an inferior good and the income of the consumers increases, the demand for that inferior good will decrease. Consumers, with higher incomes, tend to shift from inferior goods to superior (normal) goods. This statement is incorrect. Statement 4: According to the law of demand, if the price of a good falls, its quantity demanded will increase, assuming all other factors affecting demand remain constant. This statement is correct. Therefore, statements 1 and 4 are correct.

With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks' in India, consider the following statements : 1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. 2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. 3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1: Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are regulated by a dual control mechanism. They are supervised and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) concerning banking functions (like licensing, capital adequacy, lending, etc.) and by the Registrar of Cooperative Societies (RCS) of the respective state (or Central RCS for multi-state UCBs) regarding their registration, management, and administration as cooperative societies. They are not supervised by 'local boards set up by the State Governments' in the manner implied. This statement is incorrect. Statement 2: Previously, UCBs faced limitations in raising capital. However, the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, brought UCBs under the direct supervision of the RBI and allowed them to raise capital through the issue of equity shares, preference shares, and other specified instruments, subject to RBI regulations. This was a significant reform aimed at strengthening their financial position. This statement is correct. Statement 3: Urban Cooperative Banks were indeed brought under the regulatory purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, through the Banking Laws (Application to Co-operative Societies) Act, 1965, which came into effect from March 1, 1966. This amendment extended significant regulatory powers of the RBI over UCBs. This statement is correct. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following? 1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India 3. Inflation and short-term interest rates Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Indian Government Bond Yields, which represent the return an investor gets on a government bond, are influenced by a combination of domestic and global factors: 1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve: The US Federal Reserve's monetary policy decisions, especially regarding interest rates, significantly impact global capital flows and investor sentiment. If the Fed raises interest rates, global investors might shift capital to the US, reducing demand for bonds in emerging markets like India, thus pushing Indian bond yields up. Conversely, if the Fed lowers rates, it can attract capital to India, pushing yields down. This statement is correct. 2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India: The RBI, as India's central bank, directly influences domestic interest rates and liquidity through its monetary policy tools such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and Open Market Operations (OMOs). For instance, bond purchases by the RBI (OMOs) inject liquidity and tend to lower bond yields, while bond sales tend to raise them. This statement is correct. 3. Inflation and short-term interest rates: Higher inflation erodes the real value of future bond payments, so investors demand higher yields to compensate for the loss of purchasing power, pushing bond yields up. Short-term interest rates set by the central bank also influence longer-term bond yields through expectations and the yield curve, as they reflect the current cost of borrowing and lending in the economy. This statement is correct. All three factors play a crucial role in influencing Indian Government Bond Yields.

Consider the following : 1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 3. Global depository receipts 4. Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) generally involves a lasting interest and significant control or influence by an investor in an enterprise in another country, as opposed to Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), which is more about short-term capital gains without significant control. 1. Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs): These are bonds issued by Indian companies in foreign currency that can be converted into equity shares of the issuing company at a predetermined price. When FCCBs are converted into equity, they are treated as FDI. Even before conversion, depending on the terms and the investor's intent, they can be classified as FDI if they lead to effective control or a significant stake. 2. Foreign Institutional Investment with certain conditions: While Foreign Institutional Investment (FII), now largely subsumed under Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI), is typically portfolio investment, it can be classified as FDI if the investment crosses a certain threshold (e.g., 10% or more of the paid-up capital of an Indian company as per Indian regulations). This threshold indicates a 'lasting interest' and potential for 'significant influence or control', thus converting it into FDI. 3. Global Depository Receipts (GDRs): GDRs are financial instruments issued by a depository bank in a foreign country, representing ownership in a specified number of shares of a foreign company. When an Indian company issues GDRs and foreign investors subscribe to them, this brings foreign capital into the company. If the holding through GDRs exceeds the prescribed FDI threshold (e.g., 10%), it is treated as FDI. 4. Non-Resident External Deposits (NRE deposits): NRE deposits are bank accounts held by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in India. These are typically savings or fixed deposits and are a form of debt or portfolio investment, not equity investment that provides control or lasting interest in a business. Therefore, NRE deposits are not classified as FDI. Based on these definitions and Indian regulations, FCCBs, FII/FPI (when meeting FDI thresholds), and GDRs (when meeting FDI thresholds) can be included in Foreign Direct Investments.

Consider the following statements : The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily 1. improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets 2. increases the foreign value of domestic currency 3. improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Devaluation of a currency means a deliberate reduction in the value of a country's currency relative to other currencies, typically in a fixed exchange rate system, or a sharp fall in value in a flexible system. Statement 1: Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets. When a currency devalues, domestic goods and services become cheaper for foreign buyers in terms of their own currency. This makes exports more price-competitive in international markets. This statement is correct. Statement 2: Increases the foreign value of domestic currency. Devaluation, by definition, means the domestic currency has become less valuable relative to foreign currencies. Therefore, its foreign value decreases, not increases. This statement is incorrect. Statement 3: Improves the trade balance. While a devaluation can make exports cheaper and imports more expensive, potentially leading to an improvement in the trade balance (current account), this is not 'necessarily' true. The improvement depends on the elasticity of demand for exports and imports (Marshall-Lerner condition). In the short run, due to existing contracts and slow adjustment, the trade balance might even worsen before improving (the J-curve effect). Because of the word 'necessarily', this statement is incorrect. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?

Black money refers to income that is not disclosed to tax authorities and on which taxes are not paid. While all the given options are indeed consequences of black money, the core problem and the primary concern for the government from a fiscal and governance perspective is the loss of revenue. Options A, B, and C describe ways in which black money is used or its broader societal implications (diversion to unproductive assets, speculative investments, funding political parties). However, these are secondary effects that stem from the initial act of generating and concealing income to evade taxes. The most direct and significant impact on the government's ability to function and provide public services is the loss of tax revenue. This directly impacts the government's budget, its capacity to finance development projects, and its overall fiscal health. Therefore, the loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion is the main cause of worry to the Government of India.

Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing

Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.

Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism

Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?

Inflation is primarily caused by an excessive increase in the money supply relative to the availability of goods and services, leading to too much money chasing too few goods (demand-pull inflation). Let's analyze the options for financing a budget deficit: A) Repayment of public debt: This involves the government paying back existing loans. It removes money from government hands and returns it to the public/creditors. It does not create new money and is generally not inflationary. B) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit: When the government borrows from the public (e.g., by issuing bonds), it essentially absorbs existing money from the economy. While it diverts funds that could have been used for private investment, it does not directly create new money or significantly increase the overall money supply. Its inflationary impact is relatively low. C) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit: When the government borrows from commercial banks, banks might use their excess reserves or create new credit. This can lead to an increase in the money supply through the banking multiplier effect. This is more inflationary than borrowing from the public, but still involves the banking system. D) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit: This refers to the government directly asking the central bank to print new money or credit the government's account, essentially 'monetizing' the deficit. This directly injects new money into the economy without a corresponding increase in real output, leading to a direct and significant increase in the money supply and aggregate demand. This method is considered the most inflationary as it directly creates high-powered money. Therefore, the creation of new money to finance a budget deficit is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects.

Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit

Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

The money multiplier indicates how much the money supply changes for a given change in reserves. It is largely determined by two main factors: 1. **Reserve Ratios (CRR and SLR):** The higher the reserve requirements (Cash Reserve Ratio - CRR, and Statutory Liquidity Ratio - SLR) imposed on banks by the central bank, the less money banks have available to lend out. This reduces their credit creation capacity, and thus decreases the money multiplier. Therefore, an increase in CRR or SLR would decrease the money multiplier. 2. **Public's Currency Holding (Banking Habit):** If people have a greater banking habit, they tend to deposit more of their cash into banks rather than holding it as physical currency. When cash is deposited in banks, it becomes part of the banking system's reserves, enabling banks to create more credit (subject to reserve requirements) through the fractional reserve banking system. This increased flow of deposits through the banking system amplifies the money creation process, thereby increasing the money multiplier. Option A (Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks) would decrease the money multiplier. Option B (Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks) would decrease the money multiplier. Option D (Increase in the population of the country) does not directly or inherently increase the money multiplier. While it might lead to a larger economy, it doesn't automatically alter the factors that determine the multiplier's value. Therefore, an increase in the banking habit of the people would increase the money multiplier.

Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks

Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks

Increase in the banking habit of the people

Increase in the population of the country

With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/ increased by which of the following? 1. Expansionary policies 2. Fiscal stimulus 3. Inflation-indexing wages 4. Higher purchasing power 5. Rising interest rates Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Demand-pull inflation occurs when aggregate demand in an economy outpaces the aggregate supply of goods and services, leading to a rise in prices. 1. Expansionary policies: Both expansionary fiscal policies (e.g., increased government spending, tax cuts) and expansionary monetary policies (e.g., lower interest rates, increased money supply) aim to stimulate aggregate demand. When demand increases significantly beyond the economy's productive capacity, it leads to demand-pull inflation. This is correct. 2. Fiscal stimulus: A fiscal stimulus package, which involves increased government spending or tax cuts, directly injects money into the economy and boosts aggregate demand. This can certainly cause or increase demand-pull inflation if not managed properly. This is correct. 3. Inflation-indexing wages: Inflation-indexing wages means that wages automatically adjust upwards with inflation. This is typically a response to existing inflation, aimed at protecting the real income of workers. While it can contribute to a wage-price spiral (a type of cost-push inflation) and perpetuate inflation, it's not a primary cause of demand-pull inflation stemming from an initial excess of aggregate demand. This is incorrect as a primary cause of demand-pull inflation. 4. Higher purchasing power: When consumers have higher purchasing power (e.g., due to increased incomes, easier credit), they tend to demand more goods and services. If this increased demand cannot be met by the existing supply, it will push prices up, leading to demand-pull inflation. This is correct. 5. Rising interest rates: Rising interest rates are a contractionary monetary policy tool used by central banks to curb inflation. Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive, discouraging investment and consumption, thereby reducing aggregate demand. Therefore, rising interest rates would tend to reduce, not cause or increase, demand-pull inflation. This is incorrect. Hence, factors 1, 2, and 4 can cause or increase demand-pull inflation.

With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in 'Treasury Bills' and 'Government of India Debt Bonds' in primary market. 2. The 'Negotiated Dealing System- Order Matching' is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. 3. The 'Central Depository Services Ltd.' is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1: Retail investors through demat account can invest in 'Treasury Bills' and 'Government of India Debt Bonds' in the primary market. The Reserve Bank of India launched the 'RBI Retail Direct Scheme' in November 2021, which allows individual retail investors to open a 'Retail Direct Gilt Account' with the RBI. Through this account, they can directly subscribe to Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills) and Dated Securities (Government Bonds) in the primary auctions, as well as buy/sell them in the secondary market. This statement is correct. Statement 2: The 'Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching' (NDS-OM) is indeed the electronic, anonymous, order-matching trading platform for government securities in the secondary market, operated by the Reserve Bank of India. It facilitates transparent trading in G-Secs among market participants. This statement is correct. Statement 3: The 'Central Depository Services Ltd.' (CDSL) is one of India's two main depositories (the other being NSDL). CDSL was promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) along with other entities like State Bank of India, Bank of India, HDFC Bank, Standard Chartered Bank, and Union Bank of India. The Reserve Bank of India is not a joint promoter of CDSL. This statement is incorrect. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

With reference to 'WaterCredit', consider the following statements : 1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. 2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank. 3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies. Which of the statements given above are correct?

WaterCredit is an initiative of Water.org, a non-profit organization co-founded by Matt Damon and Gary White, which focuses on solving the global water and sanitation crisis. Statement 1: It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. WaterCredit applies a market-based approach by providing small, affordable loans (microfinance) to individuals and families in developing countries to finance household water and sanitation solutions, such as installing a tap or toilet. This statement is correct. Statement 2: It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank. WaterCredit is an initiative of Water.org, which partners with local financial institutions. While WHO and the World Bank are involved in global health and development, WaterCredit is not directly launched under their aegis. This statement is incorrect. Statement 3: It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies. A core philosophy of WaterCredit is to empower people with financial tools to invest in their own water and sanitation solutions, fostering self-reliance and sustainability. It moves beyond traditional aid models that rely heavily on grants and subsidies. This statement is correct. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

In India, the central bank's function as the 'lender of last resort' usually refers to which of the following? 1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources 2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis 3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The central bank's function as the 'lender of last resort' is a critical aspect of its role in maintaining financial stability. It refers to the central bank's responsibility to provide emergency liquidity to commercial banks that are facing a temporary crisis but are otherwise solvent, thereby preventing systemic financial collapse. 1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources: The central bank (RBI) typically lends to commercial banks, not directly to non-financial corporations or industry bodies. These entities usually borrow from commercial banks or capital markets. This statement is incorrect. 2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis: This is the precise definition and primary function of the 'lender of last resort'. When commercial banks face a short-term liquidity crunch due to unexpected withdrawals or market disruptions, the central bank steps in to provide funds to ensure they can meet their obligations and prevent a loss of confidence in the banking system. This statement is correct. 3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits: While the RBI can provide Ways and Means Advances (WMAs) to the central and state governments to manage temporary mismatches in their receipts and payments, this function is related to government's fiscal management and treasury operations, not directly to its role as 'lender of last resort' for the banking system. The 'lender of last resort' function specifically pertains to supporting the liquidity of commercial banks. This statement is incorrect in the context of the specific definition. Therefore, only statement 2 accurately describes the central bank's function as the 'lender of last resort'.

'R2 Code of Practices' constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of

The 'R2 Code of Practices' refers to the 'Responsible Recycling' (R2) Standard. This standard is specifically designed for electronics recyclers. It provides a common set of best practices for organizations that repair and recycle used electronics globally. The R2 Standard focuses on ensuring responsible management of end-of-life electronic equipment, which includes worker health and safety, data security, and environmental protection during the recycling process. It aims to reduce the environmental and human health impacts of electronics recycling. The other options are related to environmental management but are not the specific focus of the R2 Code.

environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry

ecological management of 'Wetlands of International Importance' under the Ramsar Convention

sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands

Environmental Impact Assessment' in the exploitation of natural resources

Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? 1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment. 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment. 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Copper smelting is a process that extracts copper from its ores, typically sulfide ores. This process has several environmental concerns: 1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment: While carbon monoxide (CO) can be a product of incomplete combustion in various industrial processes, the primary gaseous emission concern from copper smelting, especially from sulfide ores, is sulfur dioxide. CO is not a defining primary lethal emission from the main copper smelting process itself. Therefore, this statement is not a primary concern for copper smelting. 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment: Copper slag is a glassy, granular, and dense byproduct of the copper smelting process. It often contains significant concentrations of heavy metals such as lead, arsenic, cadmium, and zinc. If not properly managed or disposed of, these heavy metals can leach into the soil and groundwater, leading to environmental contamination and potential health risks. This statement is correct. 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant: Copper sulfide ores are roasted and smelted, releasing large quantities of sulfur dioxide (SO2) gas. SO2 is a major air pollutant that contributes to acid rain, respiratory problems, and environmental damage. This is a well-known and significant environmental concern associated with copper smelting. This statement is correct. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements : 1. It is a product of oil refineries. 2. Some industries use it to generate power. 3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Furnace oil, also known as fuel oil or heavy fuel oil, is a common industrial fuel. 1. It is a product of oil refineries: Furnace oil is a residual fuel obtained during the distillation of crude petroleum in oil refineries. It is one of the heaviest fractions that remain after lighter products like petrol, diesel, and kerosene have been extracted. This statement is correct. 2. Some industries use it to generate power: Due to its high calorific value, furnace oil is widely used as a fuel in various industrial applications, including power generation (e.g., in captive power plants or as a supplementary fuel in thermal power plants), in boilers, furnaces, and kilns across industries like cement, textiles, and ceramics. This statement is correct. 3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment: Furnace oil, being a residual product, typically has a high sulphur content. When burnt, this sulphur reacts with oxygen to form sulphur dioxide (SO2), a major air pollutant. SO2 contributes to acid rain, respiratory issues, and smog. Environmental regulations often limit the sulphur content in furnace oil. This statement is correct. All three statements are correct regarding furnace oil.

Blue carbon refers to the carbon that is captured and stored by the world's ocean and coastal ecosystems. These ecosystems include tidal marshes, mangrove forests, seagrass meadows, and sometimes even deep-sea sediments. These 'blue carbon' ecosystems are highly efficient at sequestering carbon from the atmosphere and oceans, acting as significant carbon sinks. They play a crucial role in mitigating climate change by removing and storing large amounts of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Options B, C, and D describe other forms of carbon or carbon reservoirs: carbon in forest biomass and agricultural soils is often referred to as 'green carbon'; carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas refers to fossil carbon; and carbon present in the atmosphere is atmospheric carbon dioxide. Therefore, blue carbon specifically refers to carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems.

Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems

Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils

Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas

In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? 1. Fern 2. Lichen 3. Moss 4. Mushroom Select the correct answer using the code given below.

This question asks about organisms that can survive on surfaces without soil, often as pioneer species in ecological succession. 1. Fern: Ferns are vascular plants that typically require soil for their roots to anchor and absorb water and nutrients. While some grow on rocks or tree trunks as epiphytes, they generally need some accumulation of organic matter or moisture, not purely bare, dry surfaces without soil. 2. Lichen: Lichens are symbiotic organisms (a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium) that are well-known as pioneer species. They can grow directly on bare rock surfaces, tree bark, and other harsh substrates where no soil is present. They obtain nutrients from the air and rain and contribute to the weathering of rocks, initiating soil formation. This is correct. 3. Moss: Mosses are non-vascular plants (bryophytes) that are often found growing on rocks, tree bark, and other surfaces with minimal or no soil. They absorb water and nutrients directly from their surroundings (rain, atmospheric moisture). They thrive in damp conditions and are important in early succession. This is correct. 4. Mushroom: Mushrooms are the fruiting bodies of fungi. Most fungi are decomposers that obtain nutrients by breaking down organic matter. While some fungi grow on dead wood, the fungal mycelial network typically requires a substrate rich in organic material. They are generally not found surviving directly on bare inorganic surfaces without soil or organic debris, unlike lichens and mosses. Therefore, lichens and mosses are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil.

Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?

Lemongrass (Cymbopogon citratus) is widely recognized for its natural insect-repelling properties. It contains essential oils, particularly citronella, which is a well-known active ingredient in many natural mosquito repellents. The oil extracted from lemongrass is commonly used in candles, sprays, and lotions to deter mosquitoes and other insects. A) Congress grass (Parthenium hysterophorus) is an invasive weed known for causing allergies and ecological damage, not for repelling mosquitoes. B) Elephant grass (Pennisetum purpureum) is a tall perennial grass used primarily as fodder or for biofuel production, not as a mosquito repellent. D) Nut grass (Cyperus rotundus) is a common agricultural weed and is not known for mosquito-repelling properties. Therefore, lemongrass is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent.

Consider the following kinds of organisms : 1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria 3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

Primary producers are organisms that produce their own food, typically through photosynthesis, forming the base of a food chain or web. In oceans, the primary producers are predominantly photosynthetic organisms. 1. Copepods: Copepods are small crustaceans and are a major component of zooplankton. They primarily feed on phytoplankton (which are primary producers) and sometimes on other zooplankton. Therefore, they are primary consumers or secondary consumers, not primary producers. This is incorrect. 2. Cyanobacteria: Also known as blue-green algae, cyanobacteria are photosynthetic bacteria. They are significant primary producers in both marine and freshwater environments, playing a crucial role in fixing carbon and nitrogen. This is correct. 3. Diatoms: Diatoms are a major group of algae and are one of the most common types of phytoplankton. They are single-celled organisms that perform photosynthesis, forming a very significant portion of the primary production in oceanic food chains. This is correct. 4. Foraminifera: Foraminifera are single-celled protozoa, typically marine. Most are heterotrophic, meaning they consume other organisms (like algae, bacteria, or other smaller protozoa). They are consumers, not primary producers. This is incorrect. Therefore, Cyanobacteria and Diatoms are primary producers in the food chains of oceans.

Consider the following animals : 1. Hedgehog 2. Marmot 3. Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?

1. Hedgehog: Yes. Hedgehogs are well-known for rolling into a tight ball when threatened, exposing only their spines to predators. 2. Marmot: No. Marmots do not roll up. They retreat to their burrows or use alarm calls to warn others of danger. 3. Pangolin: Yes. Pangolins roll into a ball when threatened, using their hard, overlapping scales as armor. Therefore, hedgehogs and pangolins (1 and 3) roll up to reduce the chance of being captured by predators.

With reference to the 'New York Declaration on Forests', which of the following statements are correct? 1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014. 2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests. 3. It is a legally binding international declaration. 4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the 'New York Declaration on Forests' (NYDF): 1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014: The New York Declaration on Forests was indeed launched and endorsed for the first time at the UN Climate Summit held in New York in September 2014. This statement is correct. 2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests: The NYDF sets ambitious, voluntary targets, including a goal to halve deforestation by 2020 and to strive to end natural forest loss by 2030. This statement is correct. 3. It is a legally binding international declaration: The New York Declaration on Forests is a voluntary and non-legally binding political declaration. It is not a treaty or convention that creates legal obligations for its signatories. This statement is incorrect. 4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities: At its inception, the NYDF was endorsed by a diverse group of over 150 partners, including national and sub-national governments, multinational corporations, civil society organizations, and indigenous peoples' organizations. This broad endorsement reflects a multi-stakeholder approach. This statement is correct. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception: India was notably NOT one of the initial signatories or endorsers of the New York Declaration on Forests in 2014. India had expressed reservations regarding potential sovereignty issues and national development priorities. This statement is incorrect. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? 1. Brakes of motor vehicles 2. Engines of motor vehicles 3. Microwave stoves within homes 4. Power plants 5. Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Magnetite particles (Fe3O4) are fine particulate matter that can be generated from various sources and have been a subject of concern due to their potential link to neurodegenerative problems when inhaled. 1. Brakes of motor vehicles: The friction and wear of brake pads and rotors in motor vehicles generate fine metallic particles, including iron oxides like magnetite, which are released into the atmosphere. This is a known source of airborne particulate matter. This is correct. 2. Engines of motor vehicles: Internal combustion engines, through the combustion process and wear of engine components, can release various metal particles and oxides, including magnetite, as part of exhaust emissions and wear debris. This is correct. 3. Microwave stoves within homes: Microwave ovens generate electromagnetic radiation to heat food. They do not operate on principles that involve friction, combustion, or high-temperature processes that would typically generate metallic particulate matter like magnetite as an environmental pollutant. This statement is incorrect. 4. Power plants: Thermal power plants, particularly those burning coal or other fossil fuels, involve high-temperature combustion processes. The burning of fuels containing trace metals, as well as wear and tear of equipment, can lead to the formation and emission of various metallic particles, including magnetite, in flue gases and fly ash. This is a significant industrial source of particulate pollution. This is correct. 5. Telephone lines: Telephone lines (both landline and cellular infrastructure) transmit electrical signals or radio waves. They do not involve physical processes like combustion, abrasion, or high-temperature industrial reactions that would generate airborne magnetite particles. This statement is incorrect. Therefore, sources 1, 2, and 4 are plausible generators of magnetite particles as environmental pollutants.

Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

An oyster is a classic example of a filter feeder. Filter feeders are a sub-group of suspension feeders that feed by straining suspended food particles from water, typically by passing the water over a filtering structure. Oysters draw water over their gills, which act as a filter, trapping food particles like plankton and other microscopic organisms. Catfish are bottom feeders, octopuses are predators, and pelicans are fish-eating birds, none of which are primarily filter feeders.

In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?

The phosphorus cycle is unique among the major biogeochemical cycles because it does not have a significant gaseous phase in the atmosphere. The primary reservoir of phosphorus is found in rocks, particularly in phosphate-containing minerals. Phosphorus is released from these rocks into the soil and water through the slow process of weathering and erosion. From there, it becomes available for uptake by plants and enters the food web. In contrast, carbon, nitrogen, and sulphur cycles all involve significant atmospheric components and pathways for nutrient release beyond just rock weathering.

Which of the following are detritivores? 1. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish 3. Millipedes 4. Seahorses 5. Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detritivores are organisms that feed on dead organic matter, including decaying plants and animals, and their waste products. They play a crucial role in decomposition and nutrient cycling. 1. Earthworms: These are classic examples of detritivores, consuming decaying organic matter in the soil and aiding in its breakdown and aeration. 2. Jellyfish: Jellyfish are typically carnivorous, preying on small fish, zooplankton, and other invertebrates. 3. Millipedes: Millipedes primarily feed on decaying plant matter, making them detritivores. 4. Seahorses: Seahorses are carnivores, feeding on small crustaceans and other tiny invertebrates. 5. Woodlice: Also known as pill bugs or sow bugs, woodlice feed on decaying wood and other plant debris, classifying them as detritivores. Therefore, earthworms, millipedes, and woodlice are detritivores.

The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has been developed for

The 'Common Carbon Metric' (CCM), supported by the United Nations Environment Programme Sustainable Buildings and Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI), was specifically developed for assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. It provides a standardized protocol for measuring, reporting, and verifying greenhouse gas emissions from the use and operation of buildings. The CCM enables consistent comparison of building energy performance and carbon emissions across different countries and building types, supporting efforts to reduce the building sector's significant contribution to global emissions.

assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world

enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading

enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries

assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms? 1. Cnidarians 2. Fungi 3. Protozoa Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Symbiotic relationships involve close and long-term interactions between two different biological organisms. These can be mutualistic (both benefit), commensalistic (one benefits, other unaffected), or parasitic (one benefits, other harmed). All three groups listed exhibit various forms of symbiotic relationships: 1. Cnidarians: Many cnidarians, particularly corals, form a crucial mutualistic symbiosis with photosynthetic algae called zooxanthellae. The algae provide food to the coral, and the coral provides a protected environment for the algae. 2. Fungi: Fungi are well-known for their diverse symbiotic relationships. Examples include mycorrhizae, a mutualistic association with plant roots, where fungi help plants absorb nutrients, and lichens, a mutualistic partnership between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium. 3. Protozoa: Many protozoa engage in symbiotic relationships. For instance, flagellate protozoa live in the guts of termites, helping them digest cellulose (mutualism). Other protozoa are well-known parasites, causing diseases in humans and animals, which is a form of symbiosis where one organism benefits at the expense of the other. Therefore, all three groups have species that establish symbiotic relationships with other organisms.

With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements : 1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. 2. It is the only circular temple built in India. 3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. 4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty: This statement is correct. The Chausath Yogini Temple at Mitaoli (near Morena, Madhya Pradesh) is indeed a circular-plan temple, and historical evidence suggests it was built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata dynasty in the 11th century, possibly by King Devapala. 2. It is the only circular temple built in India: This statement is incorrect. While the Chausath Yogini Temple is a notable circular temple, it is not the only one in India. There are other circular structures and temples, though perhaps not as well-known or preserved. 3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region: This statement is incorrect. The Chausath Yogini temples, including this one, were dedicated to the Yogini cult, which involved the worship of 64 (Chausath) Yoginis, often associated with Tantric practices, rather than the Vaishnava cult. 4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building: This statement is correct. The circular design of the Chausath Yogini Temple, with its central courtyard and radiating cells, bears a striking resemblance to the original Sansad Bhavan (Indian Parliament building) in New Delhi, leading to a widespread popular belief and some scholarly discussion about it being a possible inspiration, though not officially confirmed.

Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?

Dholavira, an ancient Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan) site located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, is exceptionally well-known for its sophisticated water harvesting and management system. The city had a series of well-planned reservoirs, dams, and interconnected channels designed to capture, store, and manage rainwater, which was crucial for its survival in a semi-arid region. This elaborate system allowed the inhabitants to sustain themselves and their agriculture. While other Harappan sites like Kalibangan, Rakhigarhi, and Ropar also show evidence of civic planning, Dholavira's water management system stands out prominently.

In the first quarter of seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located? 1. Broach 2. Chicacole 3. Trichinopoly Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The first quarter of the seventeenth century refers to the period between 1601 and 1625. The English East India Company established its first permanent factory in Surat in 1613, after obtaining permission from Emperor Jahangir. Soon after, they expanded their presence in the Western parts of India. 1. Broach (Bharuch): An English factory was established at Broach around 1616-1620, making it one of the early factories in the first quarter of the 17th century. 2. Chicacole (Srikakulam): Factories in Chicacole (on the Coromandel Coast) were established much later, in the latter half of the 17th century or 18th century, as British influence expanded in the south-eastern region. 3. Trichinopoly (Tiruchirappalli): English presence and factories in Trichinopoly (in Tamil Nadu) were also established much later, primarily in the 18th century, as the Company got involved in Carnatic Wars and consolidated its power in South India. Therefore, only Broach had an English factory in the first quarter of the seventeenth century among the given options.

From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India? 1. The Guptas of Magadha 2. The Paramaras of Malwa 3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar 4. The Maukharis of Kanauj 5. The Yadavas of Devagiri 6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The period from the decline of the Imperial Guptas (mid-6th century CE) until the rise of Harshavardhana (early 7th century CE) was characterized by political fragmentation and the emergence of various regional powers in Northern India. 1. The Guptas of Magadha: After the decline of the main Imperial Gupta line, some branches or successor states of the Guptas continued to hold power in Magadha for some time. 2. The Paramaras of Malwa: The Paramaras rose to prominence much later, mainly from the 9th-10th centuries CE, making this statement incorrect for the given period. 3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar: This dynasty was already established and gaining strength in Thanesar (near modern Kurukshetra) before Harshavardhana ascended the throne and expanded their influence. Harsha himself belonged to this dynasty. 4. The Maukharis of Kanauj: The Maukharis were a powerful dynasty in the Gangetic plains, particularly in Kanauj, during the late Gupta and post-Gupta period. They were often allied with or rivals of the Pushyabhutis. 5. The Yadavas of Devagiri: The Yadavas of Devagiri in the Deccan region rose to power much later, around the 9th-10th centuries CE, and were prominent during the late medieval period. 6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi: The Maitrakas established a powerful kingdom in Western India (Saurashtra/Gujarat) after the decline of the Guptas and maintained their rule until the 8th century CE, making them contemporaries of this period. Therefore, the correct kingdoms holding power were the Guptas of Magadha, the Pushyabhutis of Thanesar, the Maukharis of Kanauj, and the Maitrakas of Valabhi.

According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagara Empire were expert in which of the following areas? 1. Wrestling 2. Astrology 3. Accounting 4. Soothsaying Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Fernão Nuniz, a Portuguese chronicler who visited the Vijayanagara Empire in the 16th century, left extensive accounts of its social, political, and economic life. His observations provide valuable insights into the status of women in the empire. Nuniz specifically noted that women in Vijayanagara were highly accomplished and engaged in various professions and activities beyond domestic roles. He mentioned that they were expert in: 1. Wrestling: Some women served as wrestlers in the royal court. 2. Astrology: Women were involved in astrological predictions. 3. Accounting: Women held positions as accountants in the royal household and administration. 4. Soothsaying: Women also practiced soothsaying or fortune-telling. Nuniz's account highlights the relatively progressive position of women in Vijayanagara society compared to many contemporary societies, participating in diverse fields including administration, arts, and even the military.

With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?

The correct statement regarding Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh is that Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana) from Bengali to English here. This historic event took place in February 1919 at the Besant Theosophical College in Madanapalle. Rabindranath Tagore himself rendered the English translation, and it was later set to music by Margaret Cousins, the wife of the college principal. This is a well-documented and significant historical fact associated with Madanapalle. The other options are incorrect: A) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag, but this event was not specifically tied to Madanapalle. B) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah was indeed a prominent leader from the Andhra region, but the Quit India Movement was a widespread event, and he did not specifically lead it from Madanapalle in the context described. D) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first in New York (1875) and later moved it to Adyar, Chennai (1882), not Madanapalle.

Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.

Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here.

Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.

Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

Consider the following pairs : Historical place : Well-known for 1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines 2. Chandra-ketugarh : Terracotta art 3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Let's analyze each pair: 1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines: This pair is incorrectly matched. Burzahom is a Neolithic site located in Kashmir, famous for its pit dwellings, pottery, and unique burial practices (including burying dogs with humans). It is not known for rock-cut shrines. 2. Chandra-ketugarh : Terracotta art: This pair is correctly matched. Chandraketugarh, an archaeological site in West Bengal, is renowned for its rich findings of terracotta art and artifacts, dating from the Mauryan period to the Gupta period. 3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts: This pair is correctly matched. Ganeshwar, located in Rajasthan, is a significant Chalcolithic (Copper Age) site. It is well-known for the extensive discovery of copper objects, and it is believed to have been a major source of copper for the Harappan civilization. Therefore, pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements : 1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince. 2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus. 3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince: This statement is correct. In 1221 CE, the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan pursued Jalaluddin Mangabarni, the Khwarezm Shah's son, to the banks of the Indus River. At this time, Iltutmish was the Sultan of Delhi. Iltutmish prudently refused asylum to Jalaluddin, thereby saving his nascent Delhi Sultanate from the wrath of the Mongols. 2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus: This statement is incorrect. Taimur (Timur) invaded India in 1398 CE. At that time, the Delhi Sultanate was ruled by Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq, who was the last ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty. Muhammad bin Tughluq's reign was much earlier (1325-1351 CE). 3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala: This statement is incorrect. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut (Kerala) in 1498 CE. Deva Raya II of the Sangama dynasty ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1424 to 1446 CE. At the time of Vasco da Gama's arrival, the Vijayanagara Empire was under the rule of the Saluva Dynasty. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements : 1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order. 2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there. 3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding St. Francis Xavier: 1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order: This statement is correct. St. Francis Xavier was indeed one of the original seven companions who, alongside Ignatius of Loyola, founded the Society of Jesus (Jesuit Order) in 1534. 2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there: This statement requires clarification but is considered correct in the context of the options. St. Francis Xavier actually died on Sancian Island, China, in 1552. However, his body was later brought to Goa, and his relics are enshrined in the Basilica of Bom Jesus in Old Goa. While he didn't die *in* Goa, this Basilica is widely associated with him and serves as a major site of veneration and pilgrimage, effectively a church dedicated to his memory and legacy. 3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year: This statement is correct. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated annually on December 3rd in Goa, marking his death anniversary and drawing a large number of devotees and pilgrims. Considering the prominent association of his relics and annual feast with Goa, and the common understanding of his presence there, all three statements are considered correct.

With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes. 2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property. 3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze each statement regarding Mitakshara and Dayabhaga systems of law: 1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes: This statement is incorrect. Both Mitakshara and Dayabhaga were schools of Hindu law governing property, inheritance, and family matters. Their distinction was primarily geographical, not caste-based. Mitakshara prevailed over most of India, while Dayabhaga was prevalent mainly in Bengal and Assam. 2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property: This statement is correct. This is the fundamental and most significant difference between the two systems. In Mitakshara, a son acquires a right by birth in the ancestral property, making him a coparcener with his father. In Dayabhaga, the father is the sole owner of the property during his lifetime, and sons acquire rights only upon his death. 3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female members of a family: This statement is incorrect. Both systems primarily dealt with coparcenary property, which was traditionally dominated by male members. While both recognized 'Stridhan' (women's property) to some extent, the core principles of inheritance and coparcenary in both systems largely revolved around male lineal descendants. Neither system was exclusively or broadly for female members in the way implied. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous

Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla, and Kshemeshvara were renowned figures in ancient Indian literature, particularly recognized for their contributions as playwrights. Bhavabhuti was a prominent Sanskrit dramatist and poet of the 8th century CE. His major works include 'Malatimadhava' (a love story), 'Mahaviracharita' (about the life of Rama), and 'Uttararamacharita' (a sequel to Ramayana focusing on Rama's later life). Hastimalla is a less commonly known name but belongs to the tradition of Sanskrit drama. Kshemeshvara, also known as Kshemendra, was a prolific Kashmiri polymath of the 11th century CE. While known for a wide range of works including historical narratives and didactic poetry, he also contributed to dramatic literature, making his inclusion as a playwright appropriate in this context.

Consider the following statements : 1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age of 21. 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age of 21: This statement is incorrect. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act of 1919) did not grant universal adult suffrage to all women. While it did empower provincial legislatures to enfranchise women, initially, only a very limited number of women (based on property, income, or education qualifications) were granted the right to vote, far from 'all women above the age of 21'. 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature: This statement is correct. The Government of India Act of 1935 significantly expanded the franchise and introduced reserved seats for women in both central and provincial legislatures. This provision aimed to ensure specific representation for women in the legislative bodies, marking a notable advancement in their political participation. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?

On 8th August 1942, the All India Congress Committee (AICC) adopted the historic 'Quit India Resolution' at its session in Bombay (now Mumbai). This resolution called for an immediate end to British rule in India and the launching of a mass civil disobedience movement. Mahatma Gandhi gave the famous call of 'Do or Die' on this occasion. This event marked a crucial turning point in the Indian freedom struggle. Let's look at why other options are incorrect: B) The Viceroy's Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians: This refers to events like the August Offer (1940) or later proposals, not specifically August 8, 1942. C) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces: This occurred in October-November 1939, in protest against India's involvement in World War II without consultation. D) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over: This was part of the Cripps Mission proposals, which occurred in March 1942, before the Quit India Resolution.

The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.

The Viceroy's Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.

The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.

Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Who among the following is associated with 'Songs from Prison', a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?

'Songs from Prison' is a collection of ancient Indian religious lyrics translated into English by Mahatma Gandhi. He undertook this translation work during his imprisonment at Yerawada Jail in Pune in 1930. The book was published posthumously, providing insights into Gandhi's spiritual reflections and his engagement with ancient Indian texts while incarcerated.

With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?

In medieval India, particularly during the Mughal period, the administrative divisions were hierarchically organized from smallest to largest. The correct ascending order in terms of size is: 1. Paragana: A collection of villages, serving as a sub-district administrative unit. It was the lowest administrative unit above the village level. 2. Sarkar: Several Parganas constituted a Sarkar, which was equivalent to a district. 3. Suba: Several Sarkars together formed a Suba, which was a large provincial unit, similar to a modern state or province. Therefore, the sequence from smallest to largest is Paragana → Sarkar → Suba.

Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a towering figure in the 19th-century Bengal Renaissance and a passionate advocate for social reform and women's education. He was deeply associated with the Hindu Female School, which was founded by John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune in Calcutta in 1849. After Bethune's death in 1851, Vidyasagar took over the responsibility of running the school as its Secretary and funded it from his own pocket for some time. Under his dedicated leadership, the school continued to thrive and was eventually renamed Bethune Female School (now Bethune College), cementing his crucial role in its development and the broader cause of female education in India.

In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as

Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are historically remembered as three prominent officers of the Indian National Army (INA). They, along with Colonel P.K. Sahgal, Colonel G.S. Dhillon, and Major General Shah Nawaz Khan, were put on trial by the British colonial authorities at the Red Fort in Delhi in November 1945. These trials, known as the INA Trials or Red Fort Trials, garnered immense public sympathy and support across India for the INA and its objectives, significantly contributing to the final push for India's independence.

leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement

members of the Interim Government in 1946

members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly

officers of the Indian National Army

With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State. 2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire. 3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze each statement regarding the emergence of regional kingdoms: 1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State: This statement is correct. The Nawabs of Arcot (or Carnatic) were initially appointed as deputies (Faujdar and later Nazim) by the Nizam of Hyderabad. As the central Mughal authority and the Nizam's power weakened in the 18th century, the Nawabs of Arcot asserted their independence, effectively forming a separate polity that emerged from the larger Hyderabad State's control. 2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire: This statement is correct. The Wodeyar dynasty, which later established the independent Kingdom of Mysore, began as feudatories under the powerful Vijayanagara Empire. With the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire after the Battle of Talikota in 1565, the Wodeyars asserted their autonomy and gradually expanded their control, establishing Mysore as an independent kingdom. 3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani: This statement is incorrect. The Rohilkhand kingdom was established by Afghan adventurers (Rohillas) in the fertile Gangetic plains (present-day Western Uttar Pradesh) during the early 18th century. They carved out their territory from the crumbling Mughal Empire. While Ahmad Shah Durrani's invasions later weakened the Mughal Empire further, the formation of Rohilkhand predates his major occupations of these specific territories and was not directly formed 'out of' territories occupied by him, but rather 'out of' the declining Mughal domains. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Let's analyze each statement: A) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river: This statement is correct. The famous Ajanta Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage site known for its ancient Buddhist rock-cut caves and murals, are carved into the side of a horseshoe-shaped cliff above the Waghora River in Maharashtra. B) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river: This statement is incorrect. The Sanchi Stupa, a significant Buddhist monument, is located on a hilltop near Vidisha in Madhya Pradesh. It is not situated in the gorge of the Chambal River. C) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river: This statement is incorrect. The Pandavleni Caves (also known as Pandu-lena or Nasik Caves), a group of ancient rock-cut caves, are located near Nashik, Maharashtra. They are not in the gorge of the Narmada River. D) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river: This statement is incorrect. The Amaravati Stupa, an important Buddhist site, is located on the right bank of the Krishna River in Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh. It is not situated in the gorge of the Godavari River. Therefore, only statement A is correct.

Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.

Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.

Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.

Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

Consider the following statements : 1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. 2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF: This statement is incorrect. While 21st February is indeed celebrated as International Mother Language Day, it was declared by UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) in 1999, not UNICEF (United Nations Children's Fund). 2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan: This statement is correct. Following the partition of India and the creation of Pakistan in 1947, there was significant discontent in East Pakistan (present-day Bangladesh) over the declaration of Urdu as the sole national language of Pakistan. The demand for Bengali (Bangla) to be recognized as one of the national languages was indeed forcefully raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan, leading to the historic Bengali Language Movement. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming? 1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant. 2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming. 3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions. 4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Permaculture farming is a sustainable agricultural system designed to be self-sufficient and regenerative, mimicking natural ecosystems. Conventional chemical farming, in contrast, relies heavily on external inputs like synthetic fertilizers and pesticides. Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture encourages biodiversity, polyculture, and integration of different elements to create a resilient system, thus discouraging monoculture. Conventional chemical farming, for efficiency and yield maximization, often heavily relies on monocultural practices. Statement 2 is correct: Conventional chemical farming, especially with excessive use of synthetic fertilizers and improper irrigation practices, can lead to the accumulation of salts in the soil, causing soil salinity. Permaculture focuses on building soil health through organic matter, mulching, and sustainable water management, which helps prevent soil salinization. Statement 3 is incorrect: Permaculture principles are specifically designed to adapt to and thrive in various climates, including semi-arid regions, by focusing on water harvesting, drought-resistant crops, and building soil organic matter to retain moisture. While initial establishment might require careful design, it is inherently aimed at long-term sustainability in such regions, whereas conventional chemical farming in semi-arid regions often requires intensive irrigation and chemical inputs, which can be unsustainable. Statement 4 is correct: Mulching (covering the soil with organic material) is a cornerstone of permaculture farming, as it conserves soil moisture, suppresses weeds, regulates soil temperature, and adds organic matter. In conventional chemical farming, tillage and herbicides are often preferred for weed control, making mulching less prevalent or not necessarily a core practice.

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2021 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

Reviewed by Dalvoy

UPSC Civil Services preparation

Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2021 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Consider the following statements: 1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. 2. Certain pro…	polity-and-governance	C	View
2	With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements : 1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Pro…	polity-and-governance	B	View
3	Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?	economy	B	View
4	Consider the following statements: Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if 1. price of its substitute i…	economy	A	View
5	With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks' in India, consider the following statements : 1. They are supervised and regulated by local board…	economy	B	View
6	Indian Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following? 1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve 2. Actions of the Re…	economy	D	View
7	Consider the following : 1. Foreign currency convertible bonds 2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 3. Global deposit…	economy	A	View
8	Consider the following statements : The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily 1. improves the competitiveness of the do…	economy	A	View
9	Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?	economy	D	View
10	Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?	economy	D	View
11	The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?	economy	C	View
12	With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/ increased by which of the following? 1. Expansionary policies 2. Fisc…	economy	A	View
13	With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in 'Treasury Bills' and 'G…	economy	B	View
14	With reference to 'WaterCredit', consider the following statements : 1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation secto…	economy	C	View
15	In India, the central bank's function as the 'lender of last resort' usually refers to which of the following? 1. Lending to trade and indus…	economy	B	View
16	'R2 Code of Practices' constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of	geography	A	View
17	Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? 1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment. 2. The coppe…	geography	B	View
18	With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements : 1. It is a product of oil refineries. 2. Some industries use it to genera…	economy	D	View
19	What is blue carbon?	geography	A	View
20	In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? 1. Fern 2. Lichen 3. Moss 4. Mushr…	geography	C	View
21	Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?	science-and-technology	C	View
22	Consider the following kinds of organisms : 1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria 3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers…	geography	B	View
23	Consider the following animals : 1. Hedgehog 2. Marmot 3. Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above o…	geography	C	View
24	With reference to the 'New York Declaration on Forests', which of the following statements are correct? 1. It was first endorsed at the Unit…	geography	A	View
25	Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? 1…	geography	B	View
26	Which one of the following is a filter feeder?	geography	C	View
27	In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the …	geography	C	View
28	Which of the following are detritivores? 1. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish 3. Millipedes 4. Seahorses 5. Woodlice Select the correct answer using t…	geography	C	View
29	The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has been developed for	geography	A	View
30	Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms? 1. Cnidarians 2. Fungi 3. Protozoa Selec…	geography	D	View
31	With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements : 1. It is a circular temple built during t…	art-and-culture	C	View
32	Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of d…	history	A	View
33	In the first quarter of seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company loca…	history	A	View
34	From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the following kingdoms were holding power…	history	B	View
35	According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagara Empire were expert in which of the following areas? 1. Wrestling 2. Astrolog…	history	D	View
36	With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?	history	C	View
37	Consider the following pairs : Historical place : Well-known for 1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines 2. Chandra-ketugarh : Terracotta art 3. Gane…	history	D	View
38	Consider the following statements : 1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive K…	history	A	View
39	Consider the following statements : 1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order. 2. St. Francis Xavier died in…	art-and-culture	D	View
40	With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper …	history	B	View
41	With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous	art-and-culture	B	View
42	Consider the following statements : 1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the …	history	B	View
43	With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?	history	A	View
44	Who among the following is associated with 'Songs from Prison', a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English?	art-and-culture	C	View
45	With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size?	history	A	View
46	Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School?	history	C	View
47	In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are remembered as	history	D	View
48	With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State. …	history	A	View
49	Which one of the following statements is correct?	art-and-culture	A	View
50	Consider the following statements : 1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. 2. The demand that B…	polity-and-governance	B	View
51	How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming? 1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in …	geography	B	View
52	With reference to 'palm oil', consider the following statements : 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia. 2. The palm oil is a raw…	geography	D	View
53	With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct. Am…	geography	D	View
54	With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of	geography	D	View
55	Consider the following rivers : 1. Brahmani 2. Nagavali 3. Subarnarekha 4. Vamsadhara Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?	geography	B	View
56	Consider the following statements : 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters…	geography	B	View
57	Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?	geography	A	View
58	Consider the following statements : 1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing t…	geography	C	View
59	In the context of India's preparation for Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements : 1. The 'Climate-Smart Village' appr…	geography	C	View
60	“Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetati…	geography	D	View
61	The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in su…	geography	C	View
62	With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements : 1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more …	geography	B	View
63	Consider the following statements : 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. 2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia. 3…	geography	B	View
64	The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of	geography	B	View
65	With reference to recent developments regarding 'Recombinant Vector Vaccines', consider the following statements : 1. Genetic engineering is…	science-and-technology	C	View
66	In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements : 1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be …	science-and-technology	C	View
67	Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of	science-and-technology	B	View
68	In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following? 1. Area of the hole in the lid…	science-and-technology	C	View
69	Consider the following : 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Virus Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?	science-and-technology	A	View
70	Consider the following statements : 1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. …	science-and-technology	B	View
71	Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because	science-and-technology	A	View
72	With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? 1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so …	science-and-technology	C	View
73	The term 'ACE2' is talked about in the context of	science-and-technology	D	View
74	Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?	science-and-technology	B	View
75	'Triclosan', considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?	science-and-technology	D	View
76	Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?	science-and-technology	D	View
77	We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation, the…	polity-and-governance	C	View
78	With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements : 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister an…	polity-and-governance	B	View
79	'Right to Privacy' is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?	polity-and-governance	C	View
80	Consider the following statements : 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from t…	polity-and-governance	B	View
81	Consider the following statements : 1. 'Right to the City' is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each…	polity-and-governance	C	View
82	With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistr…	polity-and-governance	B	View
83	With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such…	polity-and-governance	B	View
84	At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional F…	polity-and-governance	D	View
85	A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of a…	polity-and-governance	A	View
86	Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?	polity-and-governance	A	View
87	Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'?	polity-and-governance	A	View
88	With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements : 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called bac…	polity-and-governance	A	View
89	With reference to India, consider the following statements : 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only c…	polity-and-governance	A	View
90	Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?	polity-and-governance	D	View
91	Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates	polity-and-governance	B	View
92	What is the position of the Right to Property in India?	polity-and-governance	B	View
93	What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?	polity-and-governance	B	View
94	Constitutional government means	polity-and-governance	D	View
95	With reference to India, the terms 'Halbi, Ho and Kui' pertain to	art-and-culture	D	View
96	Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards : 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Articl…	polity-and-governance	D	View
97	Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recent…	geography	D	View
98	Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 : 1. American golfer Ti…	art-and-culture	C	View
99	Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics : 1. The official motto for this Olympics is 'A New World'. 2. Spor…	art-and-culture	B	View
100	Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship : 1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches the…	polity-and-governance	D	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

80 / 80

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	India faces a challenging immediate future in energy and climate policy- making. The problems are multiple: sputtering fossil fuel productio…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
2	There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing thes…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
3	Policymakers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather i…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
4	A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GD…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
5	Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed side by side. R, Q and T have ( ) blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U ar…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
6	Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28, 43, 40 and where odd terms and even…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
7	Following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry (?) accordingly. +-----+----…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
8	You are given two identical sequences in two rows: +--------------+----+----+----+------+-------+--------+ \| Sequence-I \| 8 \| 4 \| 6 \| 15 \| 5…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
9	A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
10	A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5 : 6 : 7 …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
11	Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea- aphids, sap- sucking insects, at night. These were expos…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
12	Approximately 80 percent of all flowering plant species are pollinated by animals, including birds and mammals, but the main pollinators are…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
13	A study conducted on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu using regional climate models showed an increasing t…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
14	Researchers were able to use stem cells to gauge the neurotoxic effects of the environmental pollutant Bisphenol A (BPA). They used a combin…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
15	If 3²⁰¹⁹ is divided by 10, then what is the remainder?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
16	The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What is the value of the digit P?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
17	From January 1, 2021, the price of petrol (in Rupees per litre) on m ^ {th} day of the year is 80 + 0.1 m, where m = 1, 2, 3, … , 100 and th…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
18	A biology class at Central High School predicted that a local population of animals will double in size every 12 years. The population at th…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
19	In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the students are girls. If 30% of the Indian students are girls, then what percentage …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
20	A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below. You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at v…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
21	With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such thing as …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
22	It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
23	Inequality violates a basic democratic norm: the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
24	Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
25	In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons in the group can speak English, The number of Indians…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
26	Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3. Let S be their su…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
27	There are two Classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In Class-A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In Class-B …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
28	Consider two Statements and a Question: Statement 1: Priya is 4 ranks below Seema and is 31st from the bottom. Statement 2: Ena is 2 ranks a…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
29	Consider two Statements and a Question: Statement 1: Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the- heaviest. …	Logical Reasoning	C	View
30	In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order; and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on; …	Logical Reasoning	B	View
31	Fig trees (genus Ficus) are considered sacred in India, East Asia and Africa and are common in agricultural and urban landscapes where other…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
32	At the heart of agroecology is the idea that agroecosystems should mimic the biodiversity levels and functioning of natural ecosystems. Such…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
33	Computers increasingly deal not just with abstract data like credit card, details and databases, but also with the real world of physical ob…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
34	A social and physical environment riddled with poverty, inequities, unhygienic and insanitary conditions generates the risk of infectious di…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
35	A Statement followed by Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II is given below, You have to take the Statement to be true even if it seems to be at v…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
36	A boy plays with a ball and he drops it from a height of 1.5 m. Every time the ball hits the ground, it bounces back to attain a height 4 / …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
37	Images of consonants of the English alphabet (Capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which do not look li…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
38	A bank employee drives 10 km towards South from her house and turns to her left and drives another 20 km. She again turns left and drives 40…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
39	Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10 ?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
40	A woman runs 12 km towards her North, then 6 km towards her South and then 8 km towards her East. In which direction is she from her startin…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
41	Can a democracy avoid being a welfare state for long ? Why cannot mass welfare be left entirely to the markets ? There is a built- in tensio…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
42	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. In our school…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
43	There are three points P, Q and R on a straight line such that PQ : QR = 3 : 5. If n is the number of possible values of PQ : PR, then what …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
44	On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals along a straight path?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
45	In the series _b_a_ba_b_abab_aab; fill in the six blanks ( _ ) using one of the following given four choices such that the series follows a …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
46	Using 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 as digits, how many distinct numbers greater than 30000 can be formed?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
47	Consider the following statements: 1 The sum of 5 consecutive integers can be 100. 2 The product of three consecutive natural numbers can be…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
48	A cubical vessel of side 1 m is filled completely with water. How many millilitres of water is contained in it (neglect thickness of the ves…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
49	There are 6 persons arranged in a row. Another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he should not shake hands with two consecuti…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
50	An amount of money was distributed among A, B and C in the ratio p : q : r. Consider the following statements : 1. A gets the maximum share …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
51	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only Nothing can ex…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
52	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only In the immedia…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
53	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only The resolution…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
54	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only In India, the …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
55	Consider the following Table: +--------+-------------------------------+-------------------------------+--------------------------------+---…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
56	Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
57	Consider two Statements and a Question: Statement- 1: The last day of the month is a Wednesday. Statement- 2: The third Saturday of the mont…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
58	Which day is 10th October, 2027?	Logical Reasoning	A	View
59	Consider two Statements and four Conclusions given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance fro…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
60	What is the value of 'X' in the sequence 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822, ?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
61	Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Our citi…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
62	Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. "... mos…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
63	Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. "... mos…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
64	A pie diagram shows the percentage distribution of proteins, water and other dry elements in the human body. Given that proteins corresponds…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
65	Joseph visits the club on every 5th day, Harsh visits on every 24th day, while Sumit visits on every 9th day. If all three of them met at th…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
66	The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits is 54. Consider the following s…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
67	X said to Y, "At the time of your birth I was twice as old as you are at present." If the present age of X is 42 years, then consider the fo…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
68	If the price of an article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is increased by 25% , then what is the net change in the price?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
69	When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111...). What is the smallest such number?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
70	A man completes 7/8 of a job in 21 days. How many more days will it take him to finish the job if quantum of work further increased by 50% ?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
71	Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Medieval…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
72	Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. The best…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
73	Jay and Vijay spent an equal amount of money to buy some pens and special pencils of the same quality from the same store. If Jay bought 3 p…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
74	P scored 40 marks more than Q in the examination. If Q scores 10% less marks than P, then how much did Q score?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
75	A person P asks one of his three friends X as to how much money he had. X replied, "If Y gives me Rs. 40, then Y will have half of as much a…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
76	In a certain code language 'MATHEMATICS' is written as 'LBSIDNZUHDR'. How is 'CHEMISTRY' written in that code language?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
77	At which one of the following times, do the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock make an angle of 180° with each other?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
78	In an objective type test of 90 questions, 5 marks are allotted for every correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. Af…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
79	Consider the following addition problem: 3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2 ; where P, Q and R are different digits. What is the arithmetic mean of all…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
80	Consider the following multiplication problem: (PQ) × 3 = RQQ , where P, Q and R are different digits and R ≠ 0 . What is the value of (P + …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View

Official cutoff — 2021

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 87.54
EWS: 80.14
OBC: 84.85
SC: 75.41
ST: 70.71

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

geography28 (28%)
polity-and-governance23 (23%)
economy14 (14%)
history14 (14%)
science-and-technology13 (13%)
art-and-culture8 (8%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2021 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2021?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2021 was 87.54 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2021 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2021 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2021 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2021 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2020 All years Prelims 2022