'Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana' has been launched for

The 'Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana' (PMJDY) was launched on August 28, 2014, with the primary objective of ensuring access to financial services, namely, banking/savings & deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, and pension in an affordable manner. Its core aim is to achieve comprehensive financial inclusion for all households across the country, especially those in rural and unbanked areas, by providing them with a basic bank account. Therefore, promoting financial inclusion in the country is the direct and overarching purpose of the scheme.

providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates

promoting women's Self-Help Groups in backward areas

promoting financial inclusion in the country

providing financial help to the marginalized communities

With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The Fourteenth Finance Commission (FFC), chaired by Dr. Y. V. Reddy, submitted its report in December 2014, covering the period 2015-2020. Statement 1 is correct: A significant recommendation of the FFC was to increase the share of States in the net proceeds of Union taxes from 32 percent to 42 percent, which was the largest ever increase. This was a major step towards enhancing fiscal federalism. Statement 2 is incorrect: The FFC consciously moved away from providing sector-specific grants. Instead, it recommended larger untied transfers to States, giving them greater flexibility in designing and implementing their own development programs. This approach aimed to enhance the autonomy and accountability of the States.

The 'Fortaleza Declaration', recently in the news, is related to the affairs of

The 'Fortaleza Declaration' was issued at the 6th BRICS summit, which was held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in July 2014. A key outcome of this summit and the declaration was the agreement to establish the New Development Bank (NDB) and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA), aimed at providing financial support to member countries and promoting sustainable development. Therefore, the declaration is directly related to the affairs of BRICS.

A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? 1. Slowing economic growth rate 2. Less equitable distribution of national income Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio of a country indicates that the rate of growth of tax collections is slower than the rate of growth of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This can indeed be a sign of a slowing economic growth rate, as a sluggish economy might lead to lower incomes, reduced consumption, and thus, lower tax revenues relative to the overall economic output. It could also point to inefficiencies in the tax collection system or tax avoidance. However, a decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio does not directly indicate less equitable distribution of national income. Income distribution is typically measured by indicators like the Gini coefficient or income quintiles, which assess how income is spread across different segments of the population, independent of the overall tax collection efficiency relative to GDP.

In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

Tropical cyclones require several specific conditions to form: warm ocean waters (at least 26.5°C down to a depth of 50 meters), high relative humidity in the lower-to-mid troposphere, low vertical wind shear, and, crucially, a pre-existing near-surface disturbance or area of convergence, typically within the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). The ITCZ is a belt of low pressure where the trade winds from the Northern and Southern Hemispheres converge, leading to rising air and cloud formation, which provides the necessary instability for cyclone development. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, the ITCZ seldom occurs with sufficient intensity or persistence to foster tropical cyclogenesis. While sea surface temperatures can sometimes be a limiting factor, the primary reason is the lack of consistent atmospheric convergence provided by a robust ITCZ, often coupled with unfavorable wind shear patterns or other atmospheric conditions.

Sea surface temperatures are low

Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs

Absence of land in those regions

Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

To identify the easternmost and westernmost states of India, one needs to refer to a political map of India. Arunachal Pradesh is located in the extreme eastern part of India, with its easternmost point being near Kibithu. Gujarat is located in the extreme western part of India, with its westernmost point being near Ghuar Mota in the Kutch district. Therefore, the pair Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat correctly indicates the easternmost and westernmost states, respectively.

Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: 1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country. 2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a unique feature of the Indian Constitution, enshrined in Part IV. They aim to establish a 'welfare state' in India by laying down guidelines for the State to promote the socio-economic welfare of its citizens. They reflect the aspirations of the framers of the Constitution for a just and equitable society, thus spelling out the socio-economic democracy in the country. Statement 2 is correct: Article 37 of the Constitution clearly states that 'the provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.' This means that citizens cannot approach a court to compel the government to implement a DPSP, distinguishing them from Fundamental Rights which are justiciable.

In the 'Index of Eight Core Industries', which one of the following is given the highest weight?

The 'Index of Eight Core Industries' is a production volume index that measures the performance of eight key infrastructure industries in India: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. These industries together account for a significant portion of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP). Among these eight, electricity generation typically holds the highest weightage in the index, reflecting its critical role as an input for almost all other economic activities and its substantial contribution to industrial output. The weightages are revised periodically, but electricity has consistently remained the highest or among the highest.

Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

Keibul Lamjao National Park is located in the Bishnupur district of Manipur, India, and is the world's only floating national park. It is unique due to the presence of 'phumdis', which are heterogeneous masses of vegetation, soil, and organic matter in various stages of decomposition, floating on the surface of Loktak Lake. These phumdis support a rich biodiversity, including the endangered Sangai (brow-antlered deer), which is endemic to this floating habitat. The other national parks mentioned do not have this unique characteristic of floating vegetation.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)? 1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government. 2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India's premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement 1 is correct: The National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF) is indeed an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India. It was set up in 2000 with the mission to help India become a creative and knowledge-based society by fostering grassroots innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. Statement 2 is incorrect: NIF's primary initiative is to strengthen and scout for technological innovations from grassroots innovators and outstanding traditional knowledge holders across the country, as well as to help in their value addition, commercialization, and intellectual property protection. While it promotes scientific research, its focus is distinctly on grassroots and informal sector innovations, not primarily on highly advanced scientific research in premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.

What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur: This is incorrect. Excessive application of nitrogenous fertilizers can actually suppress the activity of natural nitrogen-fixing microorganisms (like rhizobia in legumes) because the plants have an ample supply of readily available nitrogen, reducing their need to form symbiotic relationships for nitrogen fixation. Over-fertilization can reduce microbial diversity and activity. 2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place: This is correct. Many nitrogenous fertilizers, particularly ammonium-based ones (e.g., urea, ammonium sulfate), undergo nitrification in the soil, a process where ammonium (NH4+) is converted to nitrate (NO3-). This process releases hydrogen ions (H+), which increases soil acidity. Prolonged use can lead to soil acidification, impacting nutrient availability and crop growth. 3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur: This is correct. Nitrate (NO3-), a highly mobile form of nitrogen, is not readily bound by soil particles. When applied in excess or during heavy rainfall, nitrate can easily leach through the soil profile and enter groundwater, leading to contamination of drinking water sources and contributing to eutrophication in surface water bodies.

With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments: This statement is incorrect. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is an independent international organization (an NGO with a unique observer status at the UN General Assembly), not an organ of the United Nations. CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is indeed an international agreement between governments. 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments: This statement is correct. IUCN actively engages in and supports a vast number of conservation projects globally, working with governments, NGOs, and local communities to implement conservation strategies on the ground. 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws: This statement is correct. CITES is a legally binding international treaty, meaning States (Parties) that ratify it are legally obliged to implement its provisions. However, CITES itself does not replace national laws. Instead, each Party must enact its own domestic legislation to enforce CITES regulations and apply penalties for violations.

The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the

The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is the minimum price that sugar mills are legally obligated to pay to sugarcane farmers. This price is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which is a key decision-making body of the Government of India. The CCEA's decision is typically based on the recommendations provided by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which advises the government on minimum support prices (MSPs) and FRPs for various agricultural commodities. However, the final approval authority rests with the CCEA.

Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices

Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture

Agricultural Produce Market Committee

What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

The Equatorial Counter-Current, or Equatorial Undercurrent, is an eastward-flowing current found near the equator in the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans. This current flows against the prevailing westward flow of the North and South Equatorial Currents. Its eastward flow is primarily explained by the accumulation of water in the western part of the ocean basin due to the continuous push of the westward-flowing equatorial currents by the trade winds. This piling up of water creates a hydrostatic pressure gradient, where the sea level is slightly higher in the west. This pressure gradient then drives the water back eastward as a counter-current in the absence of strong Coriolis deflection at the equator. While other factors might subtly influence ocean currents, the convergence and resulting pressure gradient due to the two equatorial currents is the primary mechanism for the eastward counter-current.

The Earth's rotation on its axis

Convergence of the two equatorial currents

Difference in salinity of water

Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

Consider the following pairs: Place of Pilgrimage Location 1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills 2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills 3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills: This pair is correctly matched. Srisailam, a famous Jyotirlinga temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, is situated on the Nallamala Hills of Andhra Pradesh. 2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills: This pair is incorrectly matched. Omkareshwar is a prominent Jyotirlinga shrine located on an island in the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh. It is associated with the Satpura Range, not the Satmala Hills, which are part of the Sahyadri (Western Ghats) in Maharashtra. 3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills: This pair is incorrectly matched. Pushkar is a holy town in Rajasthan, famous for its Pushkar Lake and the Brahma Temple. It is located in the Aravalli Range. The Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura Range in Madhya Pradesh.

With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the 'Sedition Committee'. 2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League. 3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the 'Sedition Committee': This statement is correct. The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act, was indeed passed based on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee, headed by Sir Sidney Rowlatt. The committee was set up to evaluate the extent of revolutionary conspiracies in India. 2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League: This statement is correct. Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act. To organize this, he largely utilized the network of the Home Rule League, whose members were already active and familiar with the idea of mass mobilization and direct action. 3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha: This statement is incorrect. The Rowlatt Satyagraha took place in 1919. The Simon Commission, on the other hand, arrived in India in 1928, nearly a decade later. Therefore, there was no temporal coincidence between the two events.

Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?

The Ebola virus outbreak that gained significant international attention and was frequently in the news around 2014-2016 primarily affected countries in West Africa. The three countries that experienced the most widespread and intense transmission, and were therefore most frequently mentioned in the news, were Guinea, Sierra Leone, and Liberia. These nations bore the brunt of the epidemic in terms of cases and fatalities, necessitating a massive global health response.

Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia

Philippines and Papua New Guinea

With reference to 'fly ash' produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction. 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete. 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction: This statement is correct. Fly ash is a common pozzolanic material used to produce fly ash bricks, which are an eco-friendly and often more durable alternative to traditional clay bricks. It helps conserve topsoil and reduces the amount of waste sent to landfills. 2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete: This statement is correct. Fly ash, due to its pozzolanic properties, reacts with the calcium hydroxide in cement hydration to form cementitious compounds. It is widely used as a supplementary cementitious material (SCM) in concrete, improving its strength, durability, and workability, while reducing cement consumption and carbon emissions. 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements: This statement is incorrect. While fly ash is primarily composed of silicon dioxide (SiO2), aluminium oxide (Al2O3), iron oxide (Fe2O3), and calcium oxide (CaO), its composition varies depending on the type of coal burned. Crucially, it often contains various trace elements, some of which can be toxic, such as arsenic, lead, mercury, chromium, and cadmium. Therefore, it is not composed 'only' of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide, and it 'does' contain toxic elements, necessitating careful management and disposal.

With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal. 2. It is found along the entire coast of India. 3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. It is a herbivorous marine animal: This statement is correct. Dugongs (also known as sea cows) are the only strictly herbivorous marine mammals. They primarily feed on seagrasses found in shallow coastal waters. 2. It is found along the entire coast of India: This statement is incorrect. Dugongs have a fragmented distribution along the Indian coast. Significant populations and habitats in India are found in the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands. They are not found uniformly along the entire coastline, being highly dependent on the presence of seagrass beds. 3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: This statement is correct. Dugongs are highly vulnerable to extinction due to habitat loss, hunting, and incidental capture in fishing gear. Recognizing their endangered status, they are accorded the highest level of legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which offers absolute protection to listed species.

Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India? 1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. G. Subramania Iyer 3. R. C. Dutt Select the correct answer using the code given below.

All three individuals listed – Dadabhai Naoroji, G. Subramania Iyer, and R. C. Dutt – were prominent economic critics of colonialism in India during the late 19th and early 20th centuries. They meticulously analyzed and exposed the exploitative nature of British economic policies, which they argued were responsible for the impoverishment of India. 1. Dadabhai Naoroji: He is famously known for propounding the 'Drain of Wealth' theory through his book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', arguing how British rule systematically drained India's wealth. 2. G. Subramania Iyer: A prominent journalist and nationalist, he was a vocal critic of the British economic exploitation and advocated for economic self-reliance. He co-founded 'The Hindu' newspaper. 3. R. C. Dutt (Romesh Chunder Dutt): A retired Indian Civil Service (ICS) officer, he authored 'The Economic History of India' (in two volumes), which provided a comprehensive and critical account of the British economic policies and their devastating impact on India's economy.

Which one of the following issues the 'Global Economic Prospects' report periodically?

The 'Global Economic Prospects' report is a flagship publication of the World Bank. It is released twice a year (typically in January and June) and provides a comprehensive analysis of global economic developments and prospects, with a particular focus on developing countries. The report analyzes key trends and risks affecting the global economy and offers projections for various regions and countries.

The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development

When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?

The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It mandates commercial banks to maintain a certain percentage of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold, or approved securities. When the RBI reduces the SLR by 50 basis points (0.50%), it means banks are now required to set aside a smaller proportion of their deposits as reserves. This reduction frees up more funds for the scheduled commercial banks to lend to the public. With increased liquidity and more funds available for credit, banks typically face less pressure on their funds, making them more likely to cut their lending rates to attract borrowers and increase their loan book. This move aims to stimulate credit growth in the economy.

India's GDP growth rate increases drastically

Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country

Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates

It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system

With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology. 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology: This statement is correct. Nanotechnology, through the use of nanoparticles and nanocarriers, enables the precise delivery of drugs to specific cells, tissues, or organs in the body. This targeted approach minimizes the drug's impact on healthy cells, reduces side effects, and often increases the efficacy of the treatment, particularly in areas like cancer therapy. 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy: This statement is correct. Nanotechnology plays a crucial role in overcoming challenges in gene therapy, primarily in delivering genetic material (like DNA or RNA) into target cells. Nanocarriers can protect the genetic material from degradation, facilitate its entry into cells, and guide it to the correct location within the cell, making gene therapy more efficient and safer.

In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the

In India, the marketing of agricultural produce is primarily regulated by the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act. These Acts are enacted by individual State Governments. Under these Acts, various agricultural commodities are notified, and specific market areas are designated where trading of these commodities can take place through regulated market yards (mandis). The APMCs are responsible for regulating the sale and purchase of agricultural produce, ensuring fair trade practices, and collecting market fees. Other acts mentioned have different purposes: the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 deals with control over production, supply, and distribution; the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 deals with quality standards; and the Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973 relate to food processing standards.

Essential Commodities Act, 1955

Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States

Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937

Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973

Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

The Gangetic dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared the National Aquatic Animal of India on October 5, 2009. It is a freshwater dolphin species primarily found in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna river system in India, Nepal, and Bangladesh. This declaration aimed to raise awareness about the conservation of the species and its riverine habitat, which is under severe threat from pollution, habitat degradation, and overfishing.

With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements: 1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes. 2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat. 3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was formed in 1934 by a group of younger leaders within the Indian National Congress who believed in socialist ideology. Let's analyze each statement: 1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes: While the CSP participated in the nationalist movement and supported various forms of protest, its primary focus was on establishing a socialist society and transforming the socio-economic structure of India, rather than solely advocating for basic boycott and tax evasion. Such actions were part of broader civil disobedience, but not the defining unique advocacy of the CSP. 2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat: The CSP, while socialist in its outlook, did not explicitly advocate for a 'dictatorship of the proletariat' in the strict Marxist-Leninist sense, which implies a violent revolution and a one-party state. They aimed for democratic socialism and worked within the framework of the Indian National Congress, seeking to achieve their goals through constitutional and democratic means (after independence) and mass movements. 3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes: The CSP was strongly opposed to separate electorates, viewing them as divisive and detrimental to national unity. They believed that such divisions would hinder the struggle for independence and the establishment of a unified socialist society. They championed the cause of the oppressed but within the framework of a united national movement. Based on the above analysis, none of the statements accurately represent the core ideologies and positions of the Congress Socialist Party.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding the powers of the Rajya Sabha: 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill: This statement is correct. According to Article 109 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Once passed by the Lok Sabha, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within 14 days, with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept these recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Thus, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants: This statement is correct. Demands for Grants are part of the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) and are presented to the Lok Sabha for voting. The Rajya Sabha discusses the Budget, including the Demands for Grants, but it does not have the power to vote on them. Voting on Demands for Grants is the exclusive prerogative of the Lok Sabha. 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement: This statement is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha has the power to discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) in its entirety. While it cannot vote on the demands for grants, a general discussion on the Budget takes place in both Houses of Parliament. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

The Government of India Act of 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, was a significant constitutional reform during British rule in India. One of its key features was the introduction of 'dyarchy' in the provinces. To implement this system, the Act clearly demarcated and separated the subjects of administration into two lists: Central and Provincial. The Central subjects remained under the direct control of the Governor-General-in-Council, while the Provincial subjects were further divided into 'reserved' and 'transferred' subjects. This explicit division for the first time clearly defined the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments, laying the groundwork for federal principles in Indian administration.

the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature

the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments

the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy

Which of the following brings out the 'Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers?

In India, the Consumer Price Index (CPI) numbers for different categories of workers are compiled by different agencies. Specifically, the 'Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers' (CPI-IW) is compiled and maintained by the Labour Bureau, which is an attached office of the Ministry of Labour & Employment. The CPI-IW is a crucial economic indicator, primarily used for determining the Dearness Allowance (DA) for government employees and for wage revisions in various industrial sectors.

The Department of Economic Affairs

The Department of Personnel and Training

In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about 'IceCube', a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news: 1. It is the world's largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice. 2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter. 3. It is buried deep in the ice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

IceCube is a state-of-the-art particle detector located deep within the ice at the South Pole. Let's analyze the given statements: 1. It is the world's largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice: This statement is correct. IceCube consists of thousands of optical sensors embedded in a cubic kilometer of clear Antarctic ice, making it the world's largest neutrino observatory. 2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter: This statement is correct. While its primary mission is to detect high-energy neutrinos from cosmic sources, IceCube's capabilities also allow it to be used in the search for dark matter, specifically by looking for neutrinos produced from dark matter annihilation or decay in the galactic halo or other astronomical objects. 3. It is buried deep in the ice: This statement is correct. The sensors of the IceCube detector are deployed at depths between 1,450 and 2,450 meters (nearly a mile and a half) in the glacial ice at the geographic South Pole. The deep ice provides a stable and ultra-transparent medium necessary for detecting the faint light signals produced by neutrino interactions. Therefore, all three statements are correct regarding the IceCube particle detector.

The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures' and 'Peace Clause' appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the

The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures', and 'Peace Clause' are all significant concepts and agreements within the framework of international trade, specifically associated with the World Trade Organization (WTO). The Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) is a WTO agreement aimed at reforming trade in the agricultural sector and removing barriers to trade. The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement) sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards in international trade. The Peace Clause is a provision under the WTO's Agreement on Agriculture that protects developing countries from legal challenges at the WTO if they breach certain subsidy limits, provided they fulfill specific conditions, typically related to food security programs. All these terms are integral to the rules-based multilateral trading system overseen by the WTO.

Food and Agriculture Organization

United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change

United Nations Environment Programme

With reference to 'Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields. 2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other. 3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze the statements regarding 'Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology': 1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields: This statement is correct. NFC operates on the principles of radio-frequency identification (RFID) and uses electromagnetic induction to enable communication between devices that are in close proximity. 2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other: This statement is incorrect. NFC is specifically designed for very short-range communication, typically limited to a few centimeters (usually 4 cm or less). This close proximity requirement enhances security and prevents accidental communication. 3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information: This statement is correct. While NFC itself does not inherently provide strong encryption, it can be used in conjunction with security protocols and encryption methods (e.g., within payment systems or secure access applications) to protect sensitive data during transmission. The security of NFC transactions often relies on higher-layer protocols and software implementations. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The area known as 'Golan Heights' sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to

The 'Golan Heights' is a strategically important plateau and de facto region. It was part of Syria but was largely captured and occupied by Israel during the 1967 Six-Day War. Its status remains a point of significant contention in the Arab-Israeli conflict and broader Middle Eastern politics. Given its geographical location and its central role in the ongoing geopolitical disputes of the region, it is strongly associated with events in the Middle East.

Convertibility of rupee implies

Convertibility of a currency, such as the Indian Rupee, refers to the ease with which it can be exchanged for other foreign currencies, and vice versa, without significant governmental restrictions or controls. When a currency is convertible, individuals and businesses can exchange it for foreign currencies for various purposes, including trade, investment, and travel. This implies that the value of the currency is largely determined by market forces (demand and supply) rather than administrative controls. India's Rupee is currently fully convertible on the current account and partially convertible on the capital account.

being able to convert rupee notes into gold

allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces

freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa

developing an international market for currencies in India

Consider the following pairs: Medieval Indian State Present Region 1. Champaka : Central India 2. Durgara : Jammu 3. Kuluta : Malabar Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Let's examine each pair: 1. Champaka : Central India: This pair is incorrectly matched. Champaka, or Chamba, was a medieval Indian state located in the Western Himalayas, primarily corresponding to parts of present-day Himachal Pradesh, not Central India. 2. Durgara : Jammu: This pair is correctly matched. Durgara was an ancient and medieval kingdom that corresponds to the region of Jammu, in what is now Jammu and Kashmir. The Dogras, an ethnic group, trace their origins to this region. 3. Kuluta : Malabar: This pair is incorrectly matched. Kuluta was an ancient kingdom located in the Kullu Valley of Himachal Pradesh, in the Western Himalayas. Malabar, on the other hand, refers to the southwestern coast of India, primarily in present-day Kerala. Therefore, only pair 2 is correctly matched.

Consider the following rivers: 1. Vamsadhara 2. Indravati 3. Pranahita 4. Pennar Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

Let's analyze the given rivers to determine which are tributaries of the Godavari: 1. Vamsadhara: This is an important east-flowing river in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh, flowing directly into the Bay of Bengal. It is an independent river system and not a tributary of the Godavari. 2. Indravati: This is a major tributary of the Godavari River. It originates in the Kalahandi district of Odisha and flows through Chhattisgarh before joining the Godavari. 3. Pranahita: This is the largest tributary of the Godavari River. It is formed by the confluence of the Wardha, Wainganga, and Penganga rivers and joins the Godavari in Telangana. 4. Pennar: Also known as Penneru, this is an independent river system that flows through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, ultimately draining into the Bay of Bengal. It is not a tributary of the Godavari. Therefore, only Indravati and Pranahita are tributaries of the Godavari River.

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

Article 108 of the Indian Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in specific situations of disagreement over a Bill (excluding Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills). If a joint sitting is convened, the Bill is passed by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. This means that more than half of the members who are present and cast their vote must vote in favor of the Bill for it to be passed. This simple majority rule makes it easier to resolve deadlocks, as the Lok Sabha (which has a larger membership) usually prevails in a joint sitting.

a simple majority of members present and voting

three-fourths majority of members present and voting

two-thirds majority of the Houses

absolute majority of the Houses

Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are unique in India due to their geographical location (tropical), island ecosystem, and diverse topography. This allows them to host a combination of different forest types: Mangrove forests: Found extensively along the coasts, tidal creeks, and estuaries, adapting to saline and tidal conditions. Evergreen forests: Dense tropical evergreen forests dominate the islands, characterized by a multi-layered canopy and rich biodiversity, due to high rainfall and humidity. Deciduous forests: Moist deciduous forests, also known as semi-evergreen forests, are present in some areas, particularly in the northern parts of the islands, where there might be a short dry season leading to some leaf shedding. This distinct combination of these three major forest types makes the Andaman and Nicobar Islands stand out as a biodiversity hotspot compared to the other options which might have one or two, but not all three in such prominent and diverse forms.

Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? 1. Avanti 2. Gandhara 3. Kosala 4. Magadha Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze the association of each kingdom with the life of Gautama Buddha: 1. Avanti: While Avanti was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas and a significant kingdom, there is no strong historical evidence to suggest that Buddha spent a significant amount of time or had a direct and extensive association with Avanti during his lifetime and preaching period. His activities were concentrated primarily in the Gangetic plains. 2. Gandhara: Gandhara was located in the present-day Afghanistan and Pakistan region. Although it later became a crucial center for Buddhist art and learning (Gandhara school of art), it was geographically distant and not directly associated with the life and early teachings of Gautama Buddha. Buddha's early life and enlightenment were centered in the Gangetic plain. 3. Kosala: This statement is correct. Buddha spent a considerable part of his monastic life, particularly many rainy seasons, in Kosala. Its capital, Sravasti (Sahet-Mahet), was a frequent residence of Buddha, where he delivered numerous discourses and established important monasteries like Jetavana. 4. Magadha: This statement is correct. Magadha was the kingdom where many pivotal events of Buddha's life occurred. He attained enlightenment in Bodh Gaya (then part of Magadha), delivered his first sermon in Sarnath (near Varanasi, which was influenced by Magadha), and spent extensive periods teaching in its cities like Rajagriha (the capital) and Nalanda. Many of his significant disciples also hailed from Magadha. Therefore, only Kosala and Magadha are directly and significantly associated with the life of the Buddha.

Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. It was agreed upon in 1987 and entered into force in 1989. It is widely considered one of the most successful international environmental agreements. The Bretton Woods Conference (1944) led to the establishment of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. The Kyoto Protocol (1997) is an international treaty aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions to combat climate change. The Nagoya Protocol (2010) is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity, focused on access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their utilization. Therefore, the Montreal Protocol is the correct answer.

Consider the following: The arrival of Babur into India led to the 1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent 2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region's architecture 3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze the statements regarding Babur's arrival in India: 1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent: This statement is incorrect. Gunpowder was present and used in India before Babur's arrival. For instance, the Bahmani Kingdom and other regional powers had employed gunpowder and firearms. However, Babur's effective and strategic use of artillery (cannons) and gunpowder in battles like Panipat certainly revolutionized warfare in India, but he did not 'introduce' it. 2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region's architecture: This statement is incorrect. The architectural styles incorporating arches and domes were introduced to India much earlier with the advent of Islamic rule during the Delhi Sultanate period (e.g., Qutub Minar complex, Alai Darwaza). These features were prevalent long before the Mughals. 3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region: This statement is correct. Babur was a direct descendant of Timur (Tamerlane) on his father's side. When he established his rule in India by defeating Ibrahim Lodi at the Battle of Panipat in 1526, he founded the Mughal Empire, which was essentially a branch of the Timurid dynasty in India. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

The Government of India established NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on January 1, 2015, through a resolution of the Union Cabinet. NITI Aayog was set up to replace the 65-year-old Planning Commission, which had been in existence since 1950. The new institution was envisioned as a premier policy 'think-tank' of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs, in contrast to the Planning Commission's role in centralized planning and allocation.

What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

The Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news, is officially known as the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD). It was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 2012, twenty years after the landmark 1992 Earth Summit (also known as the UN Conference on Environment and Development or UNCED) held in the same city. The main objectives of Rio+20 were to secure renewed political commitment for sustainable development, assess the progress and implementation gaps concerning the agreed commitments, and address new and emerging challenges.

It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development

It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization

It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change

It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity

Consider the following statements : 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the given statements: 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister: This statement is incorrect. According to Article 53(1) of the Indian Constitution, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution. While the Prime Minister is the real executive head and exercises most of the executive powers in practice, the formal and constitutional vesting of executive power is in the President. 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board: This statement is incorrect. The Civil Services Board is typically chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, who is the senior-most civil servant in India. The Prime Minister is the head of the government and the political executive, but not the ex-officio chairman of the Civil Services Board. Therefore, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is often seen in the news in the context of

The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is frequently used in astrophysics and exoplanetary science. It refers to the habitable zone around a star where conditions are 'just right' for liquid water to exist on a planet's surface. This means the planet is neither too close to its star (where water would evaporate) nor too far (where water would freeze). Liquid water is considered a fundamental requirement for life as we know it. Therefore, the concept of the Goldilocks Zone is central to the ongoing search for Earth-like planets in outer space that could potentially harbor extraterrestrial life.

the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth

regions inside the Earth where shale gas is available

search for the Earth-like planets in outer space

search for meteorites containing precious metals

Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March, similar salt satyagrahas were organized across different parts of India. In the Madras Presidency (present-day Tamil Nadu), C. Rajagopalachari, a prominent Congress leader, led a Salt March. He marched from Tiruchirappalli (Trichy) to Vedaranyam on the Tanjore (Thanjavur) coast in April 1930 to break the Salt Law. This was a significant regional demonstration of the larger national movement.

Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?

Harihara I, along with his brother Bukka Raya I, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336 AD. They established their capital on the southern bank of the Tungabhadra River, which is a major tributary of the Krishna River, in what is present-day Hampi. The rulers of Vijayanagara, particularly the early ones, considered themselves as the agents or representatives of Lord Virupaksha (a form of Shiva), the presiding deity of the Virupaksha Temple at Hampi. They believed that all the land south of the Krishna River belonged to this deity, and they were ruling on his behalf, providing a strong religious legitimacy to their empire.

Consider the following statements: 1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu. 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding the Presidents of the Indian National Congress: 1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu: This statement is incorrect. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant, who presided over the Calcutta Session in 1917. Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman President of the Congress, presiding over the Kanpur Session in 1925. 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji: This statement is correct. Badruddin Tyabji presided over the third session of the Indian National Congress, held in Madras (Chennai) in 1887, becoming the first Muslim to hold this prestigious position. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct? 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze the statements regarding the 'Green Climate Fund' (GCF): 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change: This statement is correct. The Green Climate Fund was established to support developing countries' efforts to address climate change. Its mandate is to finance adaptation and mitigation projects, programs, policies, and other activities in these nations. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank: This statement is incorrect. The Green Climate Fund was established by 194 countries at the 2010 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP 16) in Cancun, Mexico, as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). While organizations like UNEP, the World Bank, and regional development banks might be involved in various capacities (e.g., as implementing agencies or providers of expertise), they are not the founding bodies or direct aegis under which the GCF was established. Its foundation is rooted directly in the UNFCCC process. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarma-ment and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the following?

The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was awarded to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). ISRO was recognized for its path-breaking achievements in space science and technology, and its peaceful applications for national development and international cooperation. This included its successful Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) which was a significant scientific and technological feat.

Indian Space Research Organization

Tata Institute of Fundamental Research

With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It recommended a federal government. 2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts. 3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The Cabinet Mission Plan, proposed in 1946, primarily aimed at devising a framework for India's independence and the formation of a Constituent Assembly. One of its key recommendations was the establishment of a Union of India, which would comprise both British India and the princely states. This Union was to have powers over foreign affairs, defence, and communications, while all residuary powers would vest in the provinces. This structure, with a division of powers between the centre and the provinces/states, clearly indicates a recommendation for a federal government. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. The Mission's proposals did not directly address the enlargement of powers of Indian courts (statement 2) or the provision for more Indians in the Indian Civil Service (ICS) (statement 3). Its focus was on the constitutional machinery for the transfer of power, not the specifics of judicial or administrative reforms in that manner.

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UPSC Prelims 2015 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2015 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Prelims 2015 solved paper

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General Studies — Paper 1

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Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	'Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana' has been launched for	economy	C	View
2	With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It has increased the share of Stat…	polity-and-governance	A	View
3	The 'Fortaleza Declaration', recently in the news, is related to the affairs of	polity-and-governance	B	View
4	A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? 1. Slowing economic growth rate 2. Less equitable distribution…	economy	A	View
5	In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?	geography	B	View
6	Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?	geography	D	View
7	Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: 1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democra…	polity-and-governance	C	View
8	In the 'Index of Eight Core Industries', which one of the following is given the highest weight?	economy	B	View
9	Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?	geography	B	View
10	Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)? 1. NIF is an autonomous body of the D…	science-and-technology	A	View
11	What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? 1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microor…	geography	C	View
12	With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade …	geography	B	View
13	The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the	economy	A	View
14	What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?	geography	B	View
15	Consider the following pairs: Place of Pilgrimage Location 1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills 2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills 3. Pushkar : Mahade…	art-and-culture	A	View
16	With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations …	history	B	View
17	Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?	geography	B	View
18	With reference to 'fly ash' produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Fly ash ca…	geography	A	View
19	With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.…	geography	C	View
20	Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India? 1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. G. Subramania Iyer 3. R. C. Dutt Selec…	economy	D	View
21	Which one of the following issues the 'Global Economic Prospects' report periodically?	economy	D	View
22	When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?	economy	C	View
23	With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Targeted drug delivery i…	science-and-technology	C	View
24	In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the	economy	B	View
25	Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?	—	C	View
26	With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements: 1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of t…	history	D	View
27	Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote…	polity-and-governance	B	View
28	The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined	history	B	View
29	Which of the following brings out the 'Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers?	economy	C	View
30	In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about 'IceCube', a particle detector located at South Pole, …	science-and-technology	D	View
31	The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures' and 'Peace Clause' appear in the…	economy	C	View
32	With reference to 'Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a contactless comm…	science-and-technology	C	View
33	The area known as 'Golan Heights' sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to	geography	B	View
34	Convertibility of rupee implies	economy	C	View
35	Consider the following pairs: Medieval Indian State Present Region 1. Champaka : Central India 2. Durgara : Jammu 3. Kuluta : Malabar Which …	history	B	View
36	Consider the following rivers: 1. Vamsadhara 2. Indravati 3. Pranahita 4. Pennar Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?	geography	D	View
37	When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by	polity-and-governance	A	View
38	Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?	geography	D	View
39	Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? 1. Avanti 2. Gandhara 3. Kosala 4. Magadha Select the correct a…	history	D	View
40	Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?	geography	B	View
41	Consider the following: The arrival of Babur into India led to the 1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent 2. introduction of the a…	history	B	View
42	The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the	polity-and-governance	D	View
43	What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?	geography	A	View
44	Consider the following statements : 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime Minister is t…	polity-and-governance	D	View
45	The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is often seen in the news in the context of	science-and-technology	C	View
46	Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?	history	B	View
47	Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent…	history	C	View
48	Consider the following statements: 1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu. 2. The first Muslim Pres…	history	B	View
49	Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct? 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in ada…	geography	A	View
50	Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarma-ment and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the following?	polity-and-governance	C	View
51	With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It recommended a federal government. 2. It enlar…	history	A	View
52	Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?	geography	D	View
53	Amnesty International is	polity-and-governance	B	View
54	With reference to the art and archaeo-logical history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?	art-and-culture	B	View
55	With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of the feudal system? 1. A very strong centra…	history	B	View
56	'BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustain-able Forest Landscapes' is managed by the	economy	D	View
57	India is a member of which among the following? 1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation 2. Association of South-East Asian Nations 3. East Asia…	polity-and-governance	B	View
58	In India, the steel production industry requires the import of	economy	C	View
59	The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to	polity-and-governance	A	View
60	With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation o…	—	C	View
61	Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?	polity-and-governance	D	View
62	Consider the following statements : 1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance …	economy	B	View
63	The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the	science-and-technology	C	View
64	In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants? 1. Bangladesh…	polity-and-governance	C	View
65	'Basel III Accord' or simply 'Basel III', often seen in the news, seeks to	economy	B	View
66	Consider the following statements: 1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes through-out the year are known as westerlies. 2…	geography	B	View
67	With reference to Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)', consider the following statements: 1. It was established…	polity-and-governance	D	View
68	Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of 'moderates' an…	history	A	View
69	In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes…	geography	A	View
70	Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following? 1. Gravitational force of the Sun 2. Gravitational force of the Moon 3.…	geography	D	View
71	In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? 1. Assessment of crop productivity 2. Locating groundw…	science-and-technology	A	View
72	Consider the following States: 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Himachal Pradesh 3. Mizoram In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet Evergreen F…	geography	C	View
73	The term 'IndARC', sometimes seen in the news, is the name of	science-and-technology	D	View
74	With reference to 'Forest Carbon Partnership Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of g…	geography	C	View
75	Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?	art-and-culture	A	View
76	With reference to an organization known as 'BirdLife International', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a Global Par…	geography	C	View
77	Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?	geography	B	View
78	In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?	geography	A	View
79	'Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action', often seen in the news, is	polity-and-governance	C	View
80	"Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, da…	geography	B	View
81	With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements : 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily incr…	economy	B	View
82	Consider the following statements: 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembl…	polity-and-governance	D	View
83	"To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the	polity-and-governance	D	View
84	Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem?	geography	C	View
85	The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? 1. People's participation in development 2. Politica…	polity-and-governance	C	View
86	With reference to Indian economy, consider the following: 1. Bank rate 2. Open market operations 3. Public debt 4. Public revenue Which of t…	economy	C	View
87	With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?	economy	C	View
88	Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. France 3. India 4. Israel 5. Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as reco…	polity-and-governance	A	View
89	The ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its	polity-and-governance	B	View
90	The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of	economy	B	View
91	There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the	polity-and-governance	D	View
92	H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?	science-and-technology	D	View
93	With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements: 1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio…	science-and-technology	D	View
94	The problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of	economy	C	View
95	With reference to 'fuel cells' in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements: 1…	science-and-technology	A	View
96	Kalamkari painting refers to	art-and-culture	A	View
97	Which one of the following best describes the main objective of 'Seed Village. Concept?	economy	B	View
98	There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the defi…	economy	A	View
99	Which of the following has/have been accorded 'Geographical Indication' status? 1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churm…	economy	C	View
100	With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is…	economy	C	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

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Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Human history abounds in claims and theories confining the right of governing to a few select citizens. Exclusion of the many is justified o…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
2	By 2050, the Earth's population will likely have swelled from seven to nine billion people. To fill all those stomachs while accounting for …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
3	Many people in India feel that if we cut our defence expenditure on weapon- building, we can create a climate of peace with our neighbours, …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
4	India accounts for nearly a fifth of the world's child deaths. In terms of numbers, it is the highest in the world - nearly 16 lakhs every y…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
5	Foods travel more than the people who eat them. Grocery stores and supermarkets are loaded with preserved and processed foods. This, however…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
6	I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact I can …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
7	I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact I can …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
8	I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact I can …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
9	Twelve people form a club. By picking lots, one of them will host a dinner for all once in a month. The number of dinners a particular membe…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
10	Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of a clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes at	Logical Reasoning	C	View
11	Consider the following matrix: 3 8 10 2 ? 1 6 56 90 2 20 0 What is the missing number at '?' in the matrix?	Logical Reasoning	A	View
12	What is the missing number 'X' of the series 7, X, 21, 31, 43?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
13	In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions. If he obtained a total of 40% in the test …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
14	A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The sum of the father's and the mother's age is 51…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
15	Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two married couples are in a group. Both the women are shorter than their respective husbands. A is…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
16	Consider the following statements : 1) A man had a wife, two sons and daughters in his family 2) The daughters were invited to a feast and t…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
17	Geeta: Naresh has become a better boxer since he started meditation. Radha: Impossible, A boxer's most important asset is his aggressiveness…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
18	All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet; therefore all athletes who do not eat a well- balan…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
19	The richer States have a responsibility to cut down carbon emissions and promote clean energy investments. These are the States that got ele…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
20	Set against a rural backdrop, 'Stench of kerosene' is the story of a couple, Guleri and Manak, who have been happily married for several yea…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
21	The ultimate aim of government is not to rule or control by fear, nor to demand obedience, but conversely, to free every man from fear, that…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
22	Our municipal corporation are understaffed. The issue of skills and competencies of the staff poses an even greater challenge. Urban service…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
23	Flamingos in large flock in the wild are social extremely loyal. They perform group mating dances. Parents are very fond of their chicks, ga…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
24	Vast numbers of Indian citizens without bank accounts live in rural areas, are financially and functionally illiterate, and have little expe…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
25	Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and political constraints that …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
26	Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and political constraints that …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
27	If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then, as compared to A, C runs	Logical Reasoning	B	View
28	Each of A, B, C and D has Rs 100. A pays Rs 20 to B, who pays Rs 10 to C, who gets Rs 30 from D. In this context, which one of the following…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
29	In a town, 45% population read magazine A, 55% read magazine B, 40% read magazine C, 30% read magazines A and B, 15% read magazines Band C, …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
30	Examine the following statements: 1) Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage. 2) Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger. 3) Cabbage is not …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
31	Shahid and Rohit start from the same point in opposite directions. After each 1 km, Shahid always turns left and Rohit always turns right. W…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
32	In a 500 metres race, B starts 45 metres ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35 metres behind. What is the ratio of the speeds …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
33	Two equal glasses of same type are respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are then filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
34	Out of 130 students appearing in an examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed in Mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both English and Mathe…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
35	In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can sp…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
36	In a parking area, the total number of wheels of all the cars (four- wheelers) and scooters/motorbikes (two-wheelers) is 100 more than twice…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
37	The mangroves can shed tons of leaves per acre every year; fungi and bacteria break down this leaf litter and consume it, they then are cons…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
38	"By liberty I mean the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves." Which one of the fol…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
39	Climate change is already making many people hungry all over the world, by disrupting crop yields and pushing up prices. And it is not just …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
40	The Global Financial Stability Report finds that the share of portfolio investments from advanced economies in the total debt and equity inv…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
41	Open defecation is disastrous when practised in very densely populated areas, where it is impossible to keep away human faeces from crops, w…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
42	We generally talk about democracy but when it comes to any particular thing, we prefer a belonging to our caste or community or religion. So…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
43	The existence/establishment of formal financial institutions that offer safe, reliable and alternative financial instruments is fundamental …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
44	The existence/establishment of formal financial institutions that offer safe, reliable and alternative financial instruments is fundamental …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
45	Governments may have to take steps which would otherwise be an infringement on the Fundamental Rights of individuals, such as acquiring a pe…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
46	A selection is to be made for one post of Principal and two posts of Vice-Principal. Amongst the six candidates called for the interview, on…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
47	A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 subjects for a course, namely, Commerce, Economics, Statistics, Mathematics I and Mathematics I…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
48	A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. While prep…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
49	The number of persons who read magazine X only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine Y. The number of persons who read magazine …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
50	Two pipes A and B can independently fill a tank completely in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, h…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
51	Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y and O. Following information is given:…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
52	Consider the following statements: 1) Some claim to have seen UFOs (Unidentified Flying Objects). 2) Life on other heavenly bodies is consid…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
53	If ABC x DEED = ABCABC; where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
54	Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati, Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
55	India has suffered from persistent high inflation. Increase in administered prices, demand and supply imbalances, imported inflation aggrava…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
56	No Right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. The Right of personal property, similarly, has to be perceived in the larger context of its a…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
57	The conflict between man and State is as old as State history. Although attempts have been made for centuries to bring about a proper adjust…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
58	Climate change is a complex policy issue with major implications in terms of finance. All actions to address climate change ultimately invol…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
59	Climate change is a complex policy issue with major implications in terms of finance. All actions to address climate change ultimately invol…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
60	Climate change is a complex policy issue with major implications in terms of finance. All actions to address climate change ultimately invol…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
61	Climate change is a complex policy issue with major implications in terms of finance. All actions to address climate change ultimately invol…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
62	There are 5 tasks and 5 persons. Task-1 cannot be assigned to either person-1 or person-2. Task-2 must be assigned to either person-3 or per…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
63	The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in the ratio of 4:3. Their expenses are in the ratio of 3:2. If each saves Rs. 6,000 at the end of…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
64	Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
65	A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but everyone's birthday falls on the same date of the same month. The y…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
66	A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but everyone's birthday falls on the same date of the same month. The y…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
67	In a society it is customary for friends of the same sex to hug and for friends of opposite sex to shake hands when they meet. A group of fr…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
68	Two men, Anil and David, and two women, Shabnam and Rekha are in a sales group. Only two speak Tamil. The other two speak Marathi. Only one …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
69	In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z; line U is perpendicular to both lines V and W; line X is perpendicular…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
70	A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats. If a goat costs between Rs. 600 and Rs. 800, which of the following is a most valid con…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
71	A society consists of only two types of people fighters and cowards. Two cowards are always friends. A fighter and a coward are always enemi…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
72	In a box of marbles, there are three less white marbles than the red ones and five more white marbles than the green ones. If there are a to…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
73	Candidates in a competitive examination consisted of 60% men and 40% women. 70% men and 75% women cleared the qualifying test and entered th…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
74	An automobiles owner reduced his monthly petrol consumption when the prices went up. The price-consumption relationship is as follows: Price…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
75	Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions: Statements: Some men are great. Some men are wise. Conclusion I: Men are eith…	Logical Reasoning	D	View

Official cutoff — 2015

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2015 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 107.34
EWS: —
OBC: —
SC: —
ST: —

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

geography26 (26%)
economy24 (24%)
polity-and-governance21 (21%)
history12 (12%)
science-and-technology11 (11%)
art-and-culture4 (4%)
Others2 (2%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2015 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2015 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2015?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2015 was 107.34 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2015 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2015 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2015 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2015 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

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