With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

Among the given investment options, two are treated as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs): I. Bonds: No, bonds are traditional debt securities and not classified as AIFs. They are conventional investment instruments traded in regular debt markets. II. Hedge Funds: Yes, hedge funds are classified as Alternative Investment Funds under SEBI regulations. They use complex strategies and are available to sophisticated investors. III. Stocks: No, stocks (equity shares) are traditional investment instruments traded on stock exchanges and are not classified as AIFs. IV. Venture Capital: Yes, venture capital funds are classified as Alternative Investment Funds, specifically under Category I AIFs as they invest in startups and emerging companies. Therefore, only hedge funds and venture capital qualify as AIFs under Indian regulatory framework.

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The Reserve Bank of India derives income from the following sources: I. Buying and selling Government bonds: Yes, RBI earns income through its open market operations, earning interest on government securities it holds and trading gains/losses. II. Buying and selling foreign currency: Yes, RBI earns income from foreign exchange operations, including interest on foreign currency reserves and gains from currency trading. III. Pension fund management: No, RBI does not manage pension funds. Pension fund management is handled by specialized pension fund managers and PFRDA. IV. Lending to private companies: No, RBI does not directly lend to private companies. It lends to banks and financial institutions, which then lend to private companies. V. Printing and distributing currency notes: Yes, RBI has the sole authority to issue currency and earns seigniorage (the difference between the cost of printing money and its face value).

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization Some of its functions It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

Analyzing the organization-function-ministry matches: I. Directorate of Enforcement - Enforcement of Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 - Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs: Incorrect. The Directorate of Enforcement works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence - Enforces provisions of Customs Act, 1962 - Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance: Correct. DRI is indeed responsible for customs enforcement and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management - Big data analytics for tax policy and catching tax evaders - Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance: Correct. This directorate uses data analytics to assist tax administration and policy formulation under the Ministry of Finance. Therefore, only two rows have correct information.

Consider the following statements : I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Analyzing statements about Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR): I. RBI mandates all listed companies to submit BRSR: Incorrect. It is SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not RBI, that mandates BRSR for the top 1000 listed companies by market capitalization. II. Companies submitting BRSR make largely non-financial disclosures: Correct. BRSR focuses on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) parameters, which are predominantly non-financial in nature, including sustainability practices, social impact, governance structures, and stakeholder engagement. BRSR replaced the earlier Business Responsibility Report (BRR) and provides a more comprehensive framework for sustainability reporting by Indian companies.

Consider the following statements : Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Incorrect. Income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is NOT completely exempt from tax. While agricultural income from land is exempt under Section 10(1), allied activities like poultry and dairy farming may be subject to taxation depending on the scale and nature of operations. Statement II: Correct. Under the Income Tax Act, 1961, rural agricultural land is indeed not considered a capital asset, and therefore gains from its sale are not subject to capital gains tax. This exemption applies specifically to agricultural land in rural areas. The exemption for agricultural land reflects the policy to support agricultural activities, but allied agricultural activities may have different tax treatment based on their commercial nature.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Consider the following statements : I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Analyzing statements about India and critical minerals: I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member: Correct. India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) led by the United States to secure supply chains for critical minerals essential for clean energy transition and national security. II. India is resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals identified: Incorrect. India is not resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals it has identified. While India has significant reserves of some critical minerals, it lacks adequate domestic reserves of several key minerals and depends on imports for many critical minerals. III. Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals Act in 2023 empowering Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases for certain critical minerals: Correct. The amendment gave the Central Government exclusive authority to auction mining leases and composite licenses for certain critical minerals to ensure strategic control over these resources.

Consider the following statements : Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III : For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Bondholders are indeed considered to be at relatively lower risk than stockholders regarding returns from company investments. Statement II: Correct and explains Statement I. Bondholders are lenders to the company (creditors) while stockholders are owners (equity holders). This fundamental difference affects their risk-return profile - lenders have contractual rights to fixed payments while owners bear residual risks. Statement III: Correct and explains Statement I. For repayment purposes, bondholders have priority over stockholders. In case of bankruptcy or liquidation, debt obligations (bonds) must be paid before any distribution to equity holders, making bondholders' position more secure. Both the creditor-debtor relationship and payment priority explain why bondholders face lower risk compared to stockholders.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements : I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Analyzing statements about India's stock market and options trading: I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally: Correct. India has become one of the largest markets for equity options trading globally, with the NSE being among the top derivatives exchanges worldwide by volume. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly and even overtaken Hong Kong's at some point: Correct. India's stock market capitalization has indeed grown rapidly and has overtaken Hong Kong's market cap at various points, reflecting the strong performance of Indian equities. III. There is no regulatory body to warn small investors about risks or act on unregistered financial advisors: Incorrect. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) actively regulates the market, issues investor warnings about risky trading practices, and takes action against unregistered financial advisors and market manipulators.

Consider the following statements : Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III : Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Circular economy does indeed reduce greenhouse gas emissions by changing production and consumption patterns. Statement II: Correct and explains Statement I. Circular economy reduces the use of virgin raw materials by promoting reuse, recycling, and regeneration of materials, which reduces the energy-intensive extraction and processing of new materials, thereby reducing emissions. Statement III: Correct and explains Statement I. Circular economy minimizes waste in production processes through better design, efficiency improvements, and waste-to-resource conversion, reducing the emissions associated with waste disposal and the need for new material production. Both reduced raw material use and waste reduction contribute to lower greenhouse gas emissions by decreasing energy consumption and environmental impact throughout the value chain.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements : I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Analyzing statements about government receipts: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in assets: Correct. Capital receipts either create a liability for the government (like borrowings that must be repaid) or reduce government assets (like disinvestment of public sector enterprises). II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts: Correct. Both borrowings (which create liabilities) and disinvestment proceeds (which reduce government assets) are classified as capital receipts in government accounting. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability: Incorrect. Interest received on loans given by the government is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, and it does not create any liability for the government. It actually represents income earned on government assets.

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy : I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Both statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy are correct: I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East: Correct. Ram Mohan Roy was deeply versed in Sanskrit, Persian, and Arabic texts and had profound respect for Indian philosophical traditions, particularly Vedanta and Upanishads, which formed the basis of his religious and social reforms. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality: Correct. Roy advocated for rational thinking, scientific temper, and social equality. He opposed practices like sati, promoted women's education, and founded the Brahmo Samaj to promote rational religion and social reform based on human dignity and equality. Ram Mohan Roy successfully synthesized respect for traditional wisdom with progressive, rational thinking.

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme : I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

Analyzing components of the Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth: Correct. These were central elements of the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Gandhi in 1920, aimed at withdrawing cooperation from British institutions. II. Observance of strict non-violence: Correct. Non-violence (ahimsa) was a fundamental principle of the movement, and Gandhi repeatedly emphasized that the success of non-cooperation depended on maintaining non-violent methods. III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public: Incorrect. The programme actually called for the surrender and renunciation of titles and honours granted by the British government, not their retention. IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes: Correct. Setting up arbitration courts and panchayats was part of creating alternative institutions to replace British legal systems during the boycott of law courts.

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

The Araghatta was an ancient Indian irrigation device consisting of a large wheel with earthen pots (or leather bags) attached to its rim or spokes. This wheel was typically operated by bullocks or other draft animals. As the wheel rotated, the pots would dip into a water source (well or tank) at the bottom of the rotation, fill with water, and then empty the water into irrigation channels at the top of the rotation. This created a continuous water-lifting mechanism for irrigation purposes. This technology was widely used in ancient and medieval India and represented an efficient method of lifting water from lower levels to irrigate fields at higher elevations. The system is still used in some parts of rural India today.

a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks

a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara?

Mahendravarman I, the Pallava ruler (ruled c. 600-630 CE), had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta', and 'Gunabhara'. Mattavilasa: This title reflects his patronage of arts and possibly his authorship of the Sanskrit play 'Mattavilasa Prahasana' (The Farce of the Drunkards). Vichitrachitta: Meaning 'one with a curious mind' or 'having various thoughts', indicating his intellectual pursuits and artistic interests. Gunabhara: Meaning 'one who is full of virtues', reflecting his qualities as a ruler. Mahendravarman I was known for his literary accomplishments, architectural innovations (rock-cut temples), and religious tolerance, making him one of the most cultured rulers of ancient India.

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, traveled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II (ruled c. 380-415 CE), also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya. Fa-hien visited India between 399-414 CE to study Buddhism and collect Buddhist texts. His account provides valuable insights into the Gupta period, describing a prosperous and well-administered empire with religious tolerance and cultural flourishing. During Chandragupta II's reign, the Gupta Empire reached its zenith in terms of territorial extent, economic prosperity, and cultural achievements. Fa-hien's writings particularly praised the efficiency of administration, the absence of harsh punishments, and the general prosperity of the people during this 'Golden Age' of Indian history.

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

Rajendra I (ruled c. 1014-1044 CE), also known as Rajendra Chola, led successful military campaigns against the Srivijaya kingdom, the powerful maritime state that controlled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and neighboring islands. Rajendra I's naval expeditions to Southeast Asia (c. 1025 CE) were motivated by the desire to control the lucrative maritime trade routes and establish Chola dominance over the strategic Malacca Strait. These campaigns resulted in the temporary subjugation of several Srivijaya territories and the establishment of Chola influence in the region. This naval expedition demonstrated the Chola Empire's maritime power and their ability to project force across the Indian Ocean, making them one of the few Indian kingdoms to successfully conduct overseas military campaigns.

With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region River flowing in the region I. Asmaka : Godavari II. Kamboja : Vipas III. Avanti : Mahanadi IV. Kosala : Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Analyzing the territorial region-river pairs for ancient India (600-322 BC): I. Asmaka - Godavari: Correct. Asmaka was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas located in the Deccan region, and the Godavari river indeed flowed through this territory. II. Kamboja - Vipas: Incorrect. Kamboja was located in the northwestern region (modern Afghanistan-Pakistan border area), while Vipas (modern Beas) flowed through the Punjab region, not through Kamboja territory. III. Avanti - Mahanadi: Incorrect. Avanti was located in central India (modern Madhya Pradesh region) around Ujjain and Mahishmati. The Mahanadi flows through eastern India (Odisha), not through Avanti territory. IV. Kosala - Sarayu: Correct. Kosala was located in the modern Uttar Pradesh region, and the Sarayu river (modern Ghaghara) indeed flowed through this territory. Ayodhya, the capital of Kosala, was situated on the banks of Sarayu.

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a pioneering music training school, was established by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in 1901 in Lahore (then part of British India, now in Pakistan). Paluskar founded this institution to systematize Indian classical music education and make it accessible to common people, breaking away from the traditional guru-shishya parampara system that was often secretive and exclusive. The Gandharva Mahavidyalaya introduced a formal curriculum, notation system, and structured learning approach to Indian classical music. Later, Paluskar established similar institutions in other cities, with the most famous being the one in Mumbai. His efforts revolutionized music education in India and played a crucial role in the revival and popularization of Indian classical music during the nationalist movement.

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

According to Ashokan inscriptions, 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka', and 'Yukta' were important officers at the district-level administration in the Mauryan Empire. Pradeshika: These were provincial governors or district heads responsible for administration of specific regions or districts within the empire. Rajuka: These were judicial officers at the district level who were responsible for administration of justice, maintaining law and order, and implementing royal edicts. Yukta: These were subordinate officers or clerks who assisted in various administrative functions at the district level, including revenue collection and record-keeping. This administrative structure shows the sophisticated bureaucratic system developed by the Mauryans, with clear hierarchies and specialized functions at different levels of governance.

level of the central administration

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement : I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Both statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement are correct: I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective: Correct. At the special session in Calcutta (September 1920) and later at Nagpur (December 1920), the Congress formally adopted the goal of attaining Swaraj through non-violent and legitimate means as part of the Non-Cooperation Movement. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression: Correct. The movement was planned in phases, with the more radical steps like civil disobedience and tax resistance reserved for later stages if the initial non-cooperation measures failed to achieve Swaraj within the stipulated timeframe.

Consider the following countries : I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

Among the listed countries, four are members of NATO: I. Austria: No, Austria is not a NATO member. Austria maintains a policy of neutrality and is not part of any military alliance. II. Bulgaria: Yes, Bulgaria joined NATO in 2004 as part of the eastward expansion. III. Croatia: Yes, Croatia became a NATO member in 2009. IV. Serbia: No, Serbia is not a NATO member and maintains a policy of military neutrality. Serbia has historically been aligned with Russia. V. Sweden: Yes, Sweden joined NATO in 2024, ending its long-standing neutrality policy following Russia's invasion of Ukraine. VI. North Macedonia: Yes, North Macedonia joined NATO in 2020, becoming the alliance's 30th member.

Consider the following countries : I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

The Andes mountains pass through four of the listed countries: I. Bolivia: Yes, the Andes run through western Bolivia, including major peaks and the Altiplano plateau. II. Brazil: No, the Andes do not pass through Brazil. Brazil's terrain is dominated by the Amazon Basin and Brazilian Highlands, not the Andes. III. Colombia: Yes, the Andes extend into Colombia, forming three distinct mountain ranges (Cordilleras). IV. Ecuador: Yes, the Andes run through the center of Ecuador, dividing the country into distinct geographical regions. V. Paraguay: No, Paraguay is located in the interior of South America, east of the Andes, and consists mainly of plains and low hills. VI. Venezuela: Yes, the Andes extend into western Venezuela, though they are less prominent than in other Andean countries.

Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

The equator does not pass through any of the listed water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika: No. Lake Tanganyika lies entirely between approximately 3°S and 9°S in East Africa. It is entirely south of the equator. The equator passes through the northern part of nearby Lake Victoria, not Lake Tanganyika. II. Lake Tonle Sap: No. Lake Tonle Sap is located in Cambodia at approximately 13°N, well north of the equator. III. Patos Lagoon: No. Patos Lagoon is located in southern Brazil at approximately 30°S, far south of the equator. Therefore, the equator does not pass through any of these water bodies.

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

All three statements about turmeric during 2022-23 are correct: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric: Correct. India accounts for about 80% of global turmeric production and is also the largest exporter, supplying turmeric to markets worldwide. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India: Correct. India cultivates numerous varieties of turmeric, with different states specializing in specific varieties based on climate and soil conditions. Each variety has distinct characteristics in terms of curcumin content, color, and aroma. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major producing states: Correct. These four states together account for a significant portion of India's turmeric production, with Telangana being the largest producer, followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

All three statements provide evidence for continental drift: I. Ancient rock belt from Brazil matches Western Africa: Correct. The geological formations along the Brazilian coast align remarkably with those of Western Africa, suggesting these continents were once joined. Similar rock types, ages, and structures provide strong geological evidence. II. Ghana's gold deposits derived from Brazil plateau when continents were adjacent: Correct. The gold-bearing formations in Ghana show geological continuity with the Brazilian plateau, indicating they were part of the same geological system before continental separation. III. Gondwana sediments from India match six Southern Hemisphere landmasses: Correct. The Gondwana rock formations found in India have counterparts in Antarctica, Australia, South America, Africa, and Madagascar, providing compelling evidence that these landmasses were once part of the supercontinent Gondwana.

Consider the following statements : Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Correct. Subtropical and temperate regions do have more dust particles in the atmosphere compared to equatorial and polar regions. This is due to factors like arid conditions, seasonal wind patterns, and human activities in these zones. Statement II: Incorrect. Subtropical and temperate areas actually have more dry winds, not less. These regions experience dry winds like trade winds, westerlies, and seasonal monsoon winds that contribute to dust particle suspension. Areas like the subtropical deserts (Sahara, Thar) are major sources of atmospheric dust due to persistent dry winds. The high dust content in subtropical regions is actually caused by the prevalence of dry winds, making Statement II incorrect as an explanation.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Consider the following statements : Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Correct. In January (Northern Hemisphere winter), isotherms do bend equatorward while crossing landmasses and poleward while crossing oceans due to differential heating properties of land and water. Statement II: Correct and explains Statement I. In January, oceans retain more heat from the previous warm season due to water's high specific heat capacity, making ocean air warmer than continental air masses. Land masses cool rapidly in winter, creating colder temperatures over continents. This temperature difference causes isotherms (lines of equal temperature) to deviate from their latitudinal pattern - bending toward the equator over cold landmasses and toward the poles over relatively warmer oceans.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Consider the following statements : Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II : Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III : Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Correct. Chalk is indeed very permeable (allows water to pass through) while clay is quite impermeable (prevents water movement). Statement II: Correct and explains Statement I. Chalk is porous with numerous interconnected pore spaces that allow water absorption and movement, making it highly permeable despite being a solid rock. Statement III: Incorrect. Clay is actually quite porous, but its pores are extremely small (micropores) and poorly connected, which prevents water movement. It's the size and connectivity of pores, not the absence of porosity, that makes clay impermeable. Only Statement II correctly explains the permeability difference, as chalk's effective porosity allows water flow while clay's microporous structure restricts it.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements : I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Which of the statements given above are correct?

All three statements about Earth's atmosphere and temperature are correct: I. Without atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing everywhere: Correct. Without the greenhouse effect of atmospheric gases, Earth's average temperature would be about -18°C (-0.4°F) instead of the current +15°C (+59°F), making the planet largely frozen. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by atmosphere maintains planet's average temperature: Correct. The atmosphere acts as a thermal blanket, absorbing solar radiation and trapping outgoing longwave radiation, maintaining Earth's habitable temperature range through the greenhouse effect. III. Atmospheric gases like CO₂ are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation: Correct. Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor effectively absorb infrared radiation emitted by Earth's surface and re-radiate it, creating the warming effect essential for life.

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission : I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Both statements about Rashtriya Gokul Mission are correct: I. Important for upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers: Correct. The mission targets improvement of indigenous cattle breeds, which are predominantly owned by small farmers and landless laborers. Improving these animals' productivity directly benefits the rural poor. II. Initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in scientific and holistic manner: Correct. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission was launched in 2014 to enhance productivity and genetic improvement of indigenous bovine breeds through scientific breeding, better management practices, and conservation of native germplasm. The mission addresses both socioeconomic goals (supporting rural livelihoods) and conservation objectives (preserving indigenous breeds).

Consider the following statements : Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III : Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I is correct. Studies indicate that cement industry CO2 emissions account for approximately 7-8% of global carbon emissions, which is more than 5%. Statement II is correct. Silica-bearing clay is indeed mixed with limestone as raw materials in cement manufacturing. Statement III is correct. Limestone (calcium carbonate, CaCO3) is converted into lime (calcium oxide, CaO) during clinker production through calcination, releasing CO2 in the process. Both Statements II and III are factually correct. However, only Statement III explains Statement I. The calcination of limestone (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2) directly releases CO2, accounting for about 60% of total cement industry emissions. Statement II merely describes the raw materials used and does not explain why cement production causes high carbon emissions.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements : Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II : The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III : If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: This appears to be about COP28 and India's position on health-related declarations. Statement II: Incorrect. The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is not a binding declaration. Most COP declarations are voluntary commitments and not legally binding international law. Countries can sign such declarations without mandatory legal obligations. Statement III: Incorrect. Decarbonizing the health sector would actually improve the resilience of healthcare systems by reducing dependency on fossil fuels, improving air quality (which affects public health), and making healthcare infrastructure more sustainable and less vulnerable to energy price volatility. Both explanatory statements contain inaccuracies about the nature of COP declarations and the effects of healthcare decarbonization.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements : Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III : As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Scientific studies do suggest that shifts are occurring in Earth's rotation and axis due to various factors including climate change and mass redistribution. Statement II: Correct. Solar flares and coronal mass ejections do bombard Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous energy. However, this does not explain Statement I — solar flares primarily affect electromagnetic systems and atmospheric conditions, not the planet's rotational axis or rotation speed. Statement III: Correct and explains Statement I. As polar ice melts due to global warming, the redistribution of water mass from poles toward the equator affects Earth's moment of inertia, causing measurable changes in rotation speed and polar motion. This is similar to how a figure skater slows down when extending their arms. Both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement III explains the phenomenon described in Statement I.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements : Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is indeed frequently discussed in global sustainability and climate discussions as it provides mechanisms for international cooperation. Statement II: Correct and explains Statement I. Article 6 establishes the framework for international carbon markets, allowing countries to trade carbon credits and use market mechanisms to achieve their climate targets more cost-effectively. Statement III: Correct and explains Statement I. Article 6 also promotes non-market approaches for international cooperation, such as technology transfer, capacity building, and climate finance, providing alternatives to market-based mechanisms for countries to collaborate on climate action. Both market and non-market approaches under Article 6 make it a central topic in international climate discussions.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific?

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'. This initiative is part of ADB's broader commitment to scaling up nature-based solutions and biodiversity finance in the Asia-Pacific region. The hub aims to mobilize private sector investment in nature-based solutions, develop innovative financing instruments for biodiversity conservation, and support countries in the region to integrate natural capital into their development planning and financial systems. This aligns with ADB's role as a regional development bank focused on sustainable development and climate resilience in Asia and the Pacific region.

The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

All three statements about Direct Air Capture (DAC) technology are correct: I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration: Correct. DAC technology directly removes CO₂ from the atmosphere, which can then be permanently stored underground or in other forms, making it a carbon sequestration method. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing: Correct. Captured CO₂ can be used as a feedstock for producing various chemicals, including those used in plastic manufacturing, and as a processing aid in food industries (carbonation, preservation, extraction processes). III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel: Correct. DAC-derived CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen through power-to-liquid processes to create sustainable aviation fuels (SAF), helping decarbonize the aviation sector.

None of the above statements is correct

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements : I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Analyzing statements about the Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula): I. It is an omnivorous crustacean: Incorrect. The Peacock tarantula is not a crustacean but an arachnid (spider). It's also not omnivorous but primarily carnivorous, feeding on insects and other small prey. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas: Correct. The Gooty tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is endemic to a small region in Andhra Pradesh, India, with very limited distribution in specific forest areas, making it critically endangered. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species: Correct. Peacock tarantulas are arboreal spiders that live in trees and construct tube webs in tree holes or between branches, unlike ground-dwelling tarantula species.

Consider the following statements : I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/ capita. II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Analyzing statements about India's CO₂ emissions: I. CO₂ emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita: Incorrect. India's per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 1.9-2.0 tonnes per capita, which is significantly higher than 0.5 tonnes, though still much lower than global average and developed countries. II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region: Correct. India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region after China in total CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, reflecting its large population and growing industrial activity. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India: Correct. The power sector, primarily coal-based electricity generation and heat production, accounts for the largest share of India's CO₂ emissions, followed by industry and transportation.

Consider the following pairs : Plant Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V. Papaya : Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Analyzing each plant-description pair: I. Cassava - Woody shrub: Incorrect. Cassava is a herbaceous perennial plant with woody stems, but it's more accurately described as a shrubby herb rather than a true woody shrub. II. Ginger - Herb with pseudostem: Correct. Ginger is an herbaceous plant that has a pseudostem (false stem) formed by overlapping leaf sheaths, similar to banana plants. III. Malabar spinach - Herbaceous climber: Correct. Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is indeed a herbaceous climbing vine that grows by twining around supports. IV. Mint - Annual shrub: Incorrect. Mint is typically a perennial herb, not an annual shrub. It spreads through runners and can be quite persistent. V. Papaya - Woody shrub: Incorrect. Papaya is better described as a large herbaceous plant or tree-like herb with a hollow trunk, not a woody shrub.

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements : I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photo-synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Analyzing statements about oxygen production on Earth: I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans: Incorrect. Oceans, particularly marine phytoplankton, produce significantly more oxygen than rainforests. Mature rainforests actually consume almost as much oxygen as they produce through respiration. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen: Correct. Marine phytoplankton are responsible for approximately 50-70% of global oxygen production through photosynthesis, making oceans the largest oxygen producers on Earth. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air: Incorrect. Even well-oxygenated water contains much less dissolved oxygen than atmospheric air. Water can hold only about 8-10 mg/L of dissolved oxygen, while air contains about 21% oxygen by volume.

None of the above statements is correct

Consider the following types of vehicles : I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

All three vehicle types mentioned are considered alternative powertrain vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles: These run entirely on electric power stored in batteries, producing zero direct emissions and representing a complete departure from fossil fuel dependency. II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles: These use hydrogen to generate electricity through fuel cells, emitting only water vapor and offering rapid refueling capabilities similar to conventional vehicles. III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles: These combine fuel cell technology with battery storage, offering flexibility in power delivery and optimized energy management for different driving conditions. All three represent alternatives to conventional internal combustion engines and are part of the global clean mobility transition strategy.

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements : I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?

None of the statements about UAVs are universally correct: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing: False. Fixed-wing UAVs typically require runways for takeoff and landing, unlike rotary-wing drones that can perform vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL). II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering: False. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover as they need forward motion to generate lift. Only multirotor and helicopter-type UAVs can hover in place. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power: False. While many small UAVs use batteries, larger military and commercial UAVs often use fuel engines, solar panels, or hybrid power systems for extended flight times.

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements : I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

In electric vehicle batteries, typically three elements make up battery cathodes: I. Cobalt: Yes, cobalt is a key component in many lithium-ion battery cathodes, particularly in NCM (Nickel-Cobalt-Manganese) and NCA (Nickel-Cobalt-Aluminum) chemistries. II. Graphite: No, graphite is primarily used in the anode (negative electrode) of lithium-ion batteries, not the cathode. III. Lithium: Yes, lithium compounds like lithium cobalt oxide (LiCoO2) or lithium iron phosphate (LiFePO4) form the base of most EV battery cathodes. IV. Nickel: Yes, nickel is increasingly used in high-energy density cathodes, especially in NCM and NCA chemistries for better performance and reduced cobalt dependency.

Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?

All three items contain plastic materials: I. Cigarette butts: Yes, cigarette filters are made primarily of cellulose acetate, which is a form of plastic. These filters are one of the most common forms of plastic pollution worldwide. II. Eyeglass lenses: Yes, modern eyeglass lenses are predominantly made from various types of plastic polymers such as polycarbonate, CR-39 (allyl diglycol carbonate), or high-index plastics, rather than traditional glass. III. Car tyres: Yes, car tyres contain synthetic rubber which is essentially plastic polymer, along with natural rubber, steel belts, and various chemical additives. The synthetic rubber component makes up a significant portion of modern tyre composition.

Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of two of the mentioned substances: I. Ethanol: Yes, coal gasification produces syngas (synthesis gas) which can be converted to ethanol through the Fischer-Tropsch process or other catalytic processes. II. Nitroglycerin: No, nitroglycerin is typically produced from glycerol and nitric acid through nitration processes, not from coal gasification products. III. Urea: Yes, coal gasification produces hydrogen and carbon monoxide, which can be further processed to produce ammonia. Urea is then synthesized from ammonia and carbon dioxide, making it possible to produce urea from coal gasification derivatives. Therefore, ethanol and urea can be produced using coal gasification technology.

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all high-energy explosive compounds used in military applications: CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane): One of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives known, used in advanced military munitions and rocket propellants. HMX (Cyclotetramethylene-tetranitramine): A powerful and relatively insensitive explosive used in military applications, including nuclear weapon triggers and advanced conventional munitions. LLM-105 (2,6-diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide): A relatively insensitive high explosive developed for military use, offering good performance with improved safety characteristics. These compounds represent advanced explosive technology designed to provide maximum energy output while maintaining handling safety for military applications.

These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants

These are explosives in military weapons

These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles

These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Analyzing each statement: I. Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing: Correct. The Majorana 1 chip is designed to create and manipulate Majorana fermions, which are crucial for topological quantum computing due to their natural error-correction properties. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS): Incorrect. The Majorana 1 chip was developed by Microsoft, not AWS. Microsoft has been investing heavily in topological quantum computing research. III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning: Correct. Deep learning uses artificial neural networks with multiple layers (hence 'deep') and is indeed a specialized subset of machine learning, which itself is a subset of artificial intelligence.

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements : I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?

All three statements about monoclonal antibodies are correct: I. They are man-made proteins: Correct. Monoclonal antibodies are artificially produced antibodies created in laboratories using hybridoma technology, where specific B-cells are fused with immortal cancer cells. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens: Correct. Monoclonal antibodies work by specifically binding to target antigens, which can neutralize pathogens, mark them for destruction by immune cells, or block specific biological pathways. III. They are used in treating viral infections like Nipah virus: Correct. Monoclonal antibodies have been developed and used for various viral infections, including experimental treatments for Nipah virus, as well as approved treatments for COVID-19, RSV, and other viral diseases.

Consider the following statements : I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?

All three statements about viruses are incorrect: I. No virus can survive in ocean waters: False. Many viruses can survive in ocean waters, and marine viruses play crucial ecological roles. Ocean waters contain billions of viruses per milliliter that infect marine organisms. II. No virus can infect bacteria: False. Bacteriophages (or phages) are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are among the most abundant biological entities on Earth and play important roles in bacterial population control. III. No virus can change cellular transcriptional activity in host cells: False. Many viruses actively modify host cell transcription by hijacking cellular machinery, introducing viral transcription factors, or integrating viral DNA into host genomes, fundamentally altering gene expression patterns.

Consider the following statements : Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II : Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III : Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I: Activated carbon is indeed an excellent tool for removing pollutants from effluent streams and remediating industrial contaminants due to its unique properties. Statement II: Correct and explains Statement I. Activated carbon has an extremely large surface area (500-3000 m²/g) due to its porous structure, and this high surface area combined with chemical properties gives it strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals and other contaminants. Statement III: Correct and explains Statement I. Activated carbon can be synthesized from various environmental wastes with high carbon content such as coconut shells, wood chips, agricultural residues, and even sewage sludge, making it an environmentally sustainable solution. Both statements II and III explain why activated carbon is such an attractive and effective tool for pollution control.

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Analyzing statements about Ordinances: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act: Correct. The President can promulgate an Ordinance to amend any existing Central Act when Parliament is not in session, provided the circumstances require immediate action. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right: Incorrect. An Ordinance cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights, as these are protected under the Constitution and can only be amended through the constitutional amendment process. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date: Correct. An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect and can come into operation from a date earlier than the date of its promulgation, if so specified in the Ordinance.

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UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2025 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2025 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are tr…	economy	B	View
2	Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and sellin…	economy	D	View
3	With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization Some of its functions It works under I. Director…	polity-and-governance	B	View
4	Consider the following statements : I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibil…	economy	B	View
5	Consider the following statements : Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing …	economy	D	View
6	Consider the following statements : I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country …	economy	C	View
7	Consider the following statements : Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered t…	economy	A	View
8	Consider the following statements : I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibitin…	economy	A	View
9	Consider the following statements : Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy …	geography	A	View
10	Consider the following statements : I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowi…	economy	A	View
11	Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy : I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical system…	history	C	View
12	Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme : I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of stri…	history	C	View
13	The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was	history	B	View
14	Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara?	history	A	View
15	Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of	history	B	View
16	Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Ma…	history	C	View
17	With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region River flowing in the region I. Asmaka : Godav…	history	B	View
18	The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in	art-and-culture	D	View
19	Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the	history	B	View
20	Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement : I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all le…	history	C	View
21	Consider the following countries : I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are m…	polity-and-governance	B	View
22	Consider the following countries : I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through ho…	geography	C	View
23	Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonlé Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass…	geography	D	View
24	Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the w…	economy	D	View
25	Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with…	geography	C	View
26	Consider the following statements : Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas t…	geography	C	View
27	Consider the following statements : Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the l…	geography	A	View
28	Consider the following statements : Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas…	geography	C	View
29	Consider the following statements : I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surf…	geography	C	View
30	Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission : I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low…	economy	C	View
31	Consider the following statements : Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5…	geography	B	View
32	Consider the following statements : Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing …	geography	D	View
33	Consider the following statements : Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. S…	geography	B	View
34	Consider the following statements : Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discus…	geography	A	View
35	Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific?	economy	A	View
36	With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way…	science-and-technology	C	View
37	Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements : I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habita…	geography	D	View
38	Consider the following statements : I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/ capita. II. In terms of CO2 emission…	geography	C	View
39	Consider the following pairs : Plant Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceou…	geography	B	View
40	With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements : I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II…	geography	B	View
41	Consider the following types of vehicles : I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid …	science-and-technology	C	View
42	With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements : I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All…	science-and-technology	D	View
43	In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements : I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of t…	science-and-technology	C	View
44	Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?	geography	C	View
45	Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how…	science-and-technology	B	View
46	What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in …	science-and-technology	B	View
47	Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introd…	science-and-technology	C	View
48	With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements : I. They are man-made proteins. II. The…	science-and-technology	D	View
49	Consider the following statements : I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the …	science-and-technology	D	View
50	Consider the following statements : Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent stream…	science-and-technology	A	View
51	With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abr…	polity-and-governance	C	View
52	Consider the following pairs : State Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Pa…	geography	C	View
53	With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many o…	polity-and-governance	A	View
54	Consider the following statements : I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in…	polity-and-governance	A	View
55	Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the publ…	polity-and-governance	C	View
56	Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under t…	polity-and-governance	D	View
57	With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization Union Ministry I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce …	economy	D	View
58	Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India : I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive …	polity-and-governance	A	View
59	With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the e…	polity-and-governance	D	View
60	Consider the following activities : I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale o…	economy	B	View
61	Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also…	economy	D	View
62	India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, whic…	polity-and-governance	A	View
63	Consider the following statements : Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of Amer…	economy	D	View
64	The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the follo…	geography	B	View
65	A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country'…	economy	A	View
66	Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended …	polity-and-governance	C	View
67	Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) : I. It provides loans and …	polity-and-governance	C	View
68	Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it ta…	economy	A	View
69	Consider the following countries : I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst th…	economy	B	View
70	Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana': I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in t…	economy	D	View
71	"Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of	history	B	View
72	The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of	history	C	View
73	Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?	history	B	View
74	Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all…	history	A	View
75	Consider the following fruits : I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the s…	history	C	View
76	Consider the following countries : I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries ha…	geography	B	View
77	Consider the following statements : I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking…	geography	A	View
78	Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement?	history	A	View
79	Consider the following pairs : Country Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel In how many of the…	geography	C	View
80	Consider the following pairs : Region Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France In how many of the above rows …	geography	D	View
81	Consider the following statements : Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and compute…	science-and-technology	A	View
82	Consider the following statements : I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by…	science-and-technology	A	View
83	Consider the following space missions : I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and suppor…	science-and-technology	C	View
84	With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs : Aircraft type Description I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL…	science-and-technology	B	View
85	Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of	science-and-technology	A	View
86	Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India : I. The exercise of this power by the President …	polity-and-governance	A	View
87	Consider the following statements : I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until imme…	polity-and-governance	C	View
88	Consider the following statements : I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqua…	polity-and-governance	D	View
89	Consider the following statements : Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in resp…	polity-and-governance	D	View
90	Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?	polity-and-governance	A	View
91	Consider the following statements : I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panc…	polity-and-governance	D	View
92	Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC : I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 20…	polity-and-governance	D	View
93	Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize? I. The President of India II. The Prime Mi…	polity-and-governance	C	View
94	GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statem…	science-and-technology	D	View
95	Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025 : I. Co-chaired with India, the ev…	science-and-technology	A	View
96	Consider the following pairs : I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism …	polity-and-governance	D	View
97	Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS : I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia…	polity-and-governance	D	View
98	Consider the following statements about Lokpal: I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public ser…	polity-and-governance	A	View
99	Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup : I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nep…	art-and-culture	A	View
100	Consider the following statements : I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest w…	art-and-culture	B	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

80 / 80

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecos…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
2	Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecos…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
3	]The history of renewable energy suggests there is a steep learning curve, meaning that, as more is produced, costs fall rapidly because of …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
4	]The history of renewable energy suggests there is a steep learning curve, meaning that, as more is produced, costs fall rapidly because of …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
5	A natural number N is such that it can be expressed as N = p + q + r , where p, q and r are distinct factors of N. How many numbers below 50…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
6	Three prime numbers p, q and r, each less than 20, are such that p - q = q - r . How many distinct possible values can we get for (p + q + r…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
7	How many possible values of (p + q + r) are there satisfying (1)/(p) + (1)/(q) + (1)/(r) = 1 , where p, q and r are natural numbers (not nec…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
8	What comes at X and Y respectively in the following sequence? January, January, December, October, X, March, October, Y, September	Logical Reasoning	B	View
9	Team X scored a total of N runs in 20 overs. Team Y tied the score in 10% less overs. Had team Y's average run rate (runs per over) been 50%…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
10	The price (p) of a commodity is first increased by k% ; then decreased by k% ; again increased by k% ; and again decreased by k% . If the ne…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
11	Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
12	Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
13	If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
14	If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
15	A solid cube is painted yellow on all its faces. The cube is then cut into 60 smaller but equal pieces by making the minimum number of cuts.…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
16	If 724 = 25 and 1216 = 20 , then what is 16*63 equal to?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
17	The petrol price shot up by 10% as a result of the hike in crude oil prices. The price of petrol before the hike was π 90 per litre. A perso…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
18	A 4-digit number N is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, 9 leaves a remainder 1, 3, 4, 7 respectively. What is the smallest value of N?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
19	Consider the following statements: I. If A≤ B > C E > F≥ G = H ; then B is always greater than E. II. If P > Q = R≥ S = T≤ U = V > W ; then …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
20	What is the unit digit in the multiplication of 1× 3× 5× 7× 9× … × 999 ?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
21	One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high- growth phase, unlike …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
22	One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high- growth phase, unlike …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
23	In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
24	In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
25	Consider the first 100 natural numbers. How many of them are not divisible by any one of 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
26	If 4 ≤ x ≤ 8 and 2 ≤ y ≤ 7 , then what is the ratio of maximum value of (x + y) to minimum value of (x - y) ?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
27	Let both p and k be prime numbers such that (p² + k) is also a prime number less than 30 What is the number of possible values of k?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
28	There are n sets of numbers each having only three positive integers with LCM equal to 1001 and HCF equal to 1. What is the value of n?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
29	Let PQR be a 3-digit number, PPT be a 3-digit number and PS be a 2-digit number, where P, Q, R, S, T are distinct non-zero digits. Further, …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
30	Consider the sequence AB_CC_A_BCCC_BBC_C that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
31	In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
32	In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
33	If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies bec…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
34	If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies bec…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
35	What is the maximum value of n such that 7 × 343 × 385 × 1000 × 2401 × 77777 is divisible by 35ⁿ ?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
36	What is X in the sequence 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90 ?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
37	P and Q walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in opposite directions. P walks at an average speed of 5 ro…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
38	If P = + , Q = - , R = × , S = ÷ , then insert the proper notations between the successive numbers in the equation 60\_ 15\_ 3\_ 20\_ 4 = 20…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
39	A tram overtakes 2 persons X and Y walking at an average speed of 3 km/hr and 4 km/hr in the same direction and completely passes them in 8 …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
40	If N² = 12345678987654321 , then how many digits does the number N have ?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
41	Over the next 30 years, many countries are promising to move to net- zero carbon, implying that household emissions will have to be cut to c…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
42	Over the next 30 years, many countries are promising to move to net- zero carbon, implying that household emissions will have to be cut to c…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
43	In only 50 years, the world's consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reu…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
44	In only 50 years, the world's consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reu…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
45	A set (X) of 20 pipes can fill 70% of a tank in 14 minutes. Another set (Y) of 10 pipes fills 3/8th of the tank in 6 minutes. A third set (Z…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
46	If n is a natural number, then what is the number of distinct remainders of (1ⁿ + 2ⁿ) when divided by 4?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
47	Let P = QQQ be a 3-digit number. What is the HCF of P and 481?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
48	What is the 489th digit in the number 123456789101112...?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
49	A mobile phone has been stolen. There are 3 suspects P, Q and R. They were questioned knowing that only one of them is guilty. Their respons…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
50	Three teams P, Q, R participated in a tournament in which the teams play with one another exactly once. A win fetches a team 2 points and a …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
51	It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere's chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural dis…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
52	It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere's chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural dis…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
53	"A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
54	"A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
55	P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. How many of the following statements are definitely true? I. S and T are a co…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
56	If NO is coded as 210, NOT is coded as 4200 and NOTE is coded as 21000, then how is NOTES coded?	Logical Reasoning	A	View
57	If FRANCE is coded as 654321 and GERMANY is coded as 9158437, then how is YEMEN coded?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
58	The 5-digit number PQRST (all distinct digits) is such that T ≠ 0. P is thrice T. S is greater than Q by 4, while Q is greater than R by 3. …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
59	X can complete one-third of a certain work in 6 days, Y can complete one-third of the same work in 8 days and Z can complete three-fourth of…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
60	What is X in the sequence 1, 3, 6, 11, 18, X, 42?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
61	There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the t…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
62	There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the t…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
63	"A network of voluntary associations stands as a 'buffer' between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State." W…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
64	Consider the following statements : There exists a natural number which I. when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged. T…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
65	There are 7 places A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a city connected by various roads AB, AC, CD, DE, BF, EG and FG. A is 6 km south of B. A is 10 …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
66	In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code ?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
67	What is the remainder when 9³ + 9⁴ + 9⁵ + 9⁶ + … + 9¹⁰⁰ is divided by 6 ?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
68	A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. What is the s…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
69	A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Let P, Q, R, …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
70	A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. How is Q rela…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
71	A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services - the price rise differs for different items of cons…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
72	Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others. Entrepreneurship implies trust in others and willingness to expose oneself to b…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
73	A question is given followed by two 73. Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. In a foot…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
74	A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Is (p + q)² -…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
75	In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs sc…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
76	Let p + q = 10 , where p , q are integers. Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p , q are positive integers. Value-II = Maximum value of p …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
77	Consider a set of 11 numbers: Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers ≥ - 5 . Va…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
78	The average of three numbers p , q and r is k . p is as much more than the average as q is less than the average. What is the value of r ?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
79	Let x be a real number between 0 and 1. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. x² > x³ . II. x > √(x) . Select the correct ans…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
80	The difference between any two natural numbers is 10. What can be said about the natural numbers which are divisible by 5 and lie between th…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View

Official cutoff — 2025

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 92.66
EWS: 89.34
OBC: 92.00
SC: 84.00
ST: 82.66

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

polity-and-governance23 (23%)
geography23 (23%)
economy19 (19%)
science-and-technology17 (17%)
history15 (15%)
art-and-culture3 (3%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2025 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2025?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2025 was 92.66 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2025 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2025 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2025 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2025 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2024 All years Prelims 2026

UPSC Prelims 2025 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

Official cutoff — 2025

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

Other UPSC Prelims years