Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake: This statement is correct. Wular Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir. The Jhelum River flows into the lake and then drains out, playing a crucial role in its hydrology. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake: This statement is incorrect. Kolleru Lake is a large freshwater lake in Andhra Pradesh, located between the deltas of the Krishna and Godavari rivers. It is primarily fed by seasonal rivers like Budameru, Tammileru, and Ramileru, and is also connected to the Krishna and Godavari river systems through various channels, but the Krishna river does not directly feed it. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake: This statement is incorrect. Kanwar Lake (Kabar Taal) is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake, located in Bihar. It was formed by the meandering of the Burhi Gandak River, not the Gandak River itself. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following pairs: Port Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port: Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam Port: Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Let's examine each pair: 1. Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company: This pair is correctly matched. Kamarajar Port, formerly known as Ennore Port, was corporatized and registered as a company (Ennore Port Ltd.) in 1999, making it India's first major port to operate as a company rather than a trust. 2. Mundra Port: Largest privately owned port in India: This pair is correctly matched. Mundra Port, located in Gujarat, is owned and operated by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited (APSEZ) and is indeed the largest privately owned port in India by cargo handling capacity and volume. 3. Visakhapatnam Port: Largest container port in India: This pair is incorrectly matched. While Visakhapatnam Port is one of India's major and busiest ports, the largest container port in India is Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) located near Mumbai. Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following trees: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees?

Let's classify each tree: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus): Jackfruit trees are typically evergreen. They retain their leaves throughout the year, especially in tropical climates where they are native. 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica): Mahua is a fast-growing tree that is commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions of India. It is a deciduous tree, shedding its leaves, typically in the dry season, before the new leaves emerge. 3. Teak (Tectona grandis): Teak is a large, deciduous tree species native to south and southeast Asia. It sheds its leaves during the dry season. Therefore, Mahua and Teak are deciduous trees, while Jackfruit is evergreen. So, only two of the given trees are deciduous.

Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. India has more arable area than China: This statement is correct. Despite China being geographically larger, India generally has a larger net sown area or arable land area compared to China. India's plains and river valleys contribute to a significant proportion of its land being suitable for cultivation. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China: This statement is incorrect. China has made significant investments in irrigation infrastructure and typically has a higher proportion of its agricultural land under irrigation compared to India. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: This statement is incorrect. China's agricultural productivity per hectare, across most major crops, is generally higher than India's. This is often attributed to factors like higher levels of mechanization, better use of quality inputs, advanced agricultural technologies, and larger farm sizes in some regions. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

The Rann of Kutch, located in Gujarat, is widely recognized as the best example of an extensive marshland formed by repeated falls in sea level and tectonic activity. Historically, the Rann was an arm of the Arabian Sea. Geological evidence suggests that due to uplifting of the seabed and repeated regressions (falls) of sea level over geological time, combined with sediment deposition by rivers, it transformed into the vast salt marsh it is today. During monsoons, it gets inundated, appearing like a shallow sea, and dries up in other seasons, forming a salt desert. This dynamic process of sea-level fluctuations and land emergence best fits the description. Other options: Bhitarkanika Mangroves are known for their dense mangrove forests. Marakkanam Salt Pans are primarily human-made salt production facilities. Naupada Swamp is a coastal wetland, but not as extensively or historically linked to repeated sea-level falls on the scale of the Rann of Kutch.

Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and rutile (TiO2) are the two most economically important minerals that are primary sources of titanium. These minerals are typically found in heavy mineral sand deposits, which are abundant along certain coastal tracts of India, particularly in states like Kerala, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu. Titanium is a strong, lightweight, corrosion-resistant metal used in various industries, including aerospace, medical implants, and pigments.

About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is by far the world's dominant producer of cobalt. It accounts for a significant majority, often cited as two-thirds to three-quarters, of the global cobalt supply. Cobalt is a critical metal, especially with the increasing demand for rechargeable batteries used in electric motor vehicles and portable electronic devices.

the Democratic Republic of the Congo

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

The Congo Basin is a vast sedimentary basin in Central Africa, primarily drained by the Congo River and its tributaries. It encompasses a large tropical rainforest ecosystem. Countries that are part of the Congo Basin include the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, Gabon, Equatorial Guinea, and parts of Cameroon and Angola. Among the given options, Cameroon has a significant portion of its territory, particularly its southern parts, lying within the Congo Basin. Nigeria is largely part of the Niger Basin. South Sudan is primarily within the Nile Basin. Uganda is largely within the Nile Basin and East African Rift system, though some western parts may be close to the Congo Basin watershed, it is not a part of the basin itself.

Consider the following statements: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges: This statement is incorrect. The Amarkantak Hills are part of the Maikal range, which itself is part of the Satpura range system. They are located at the meeting point of the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, not the Sahyadri Range (which is another name for the Western Ghats). 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range: This statement is incorrect. The Biligirirangan Hills (BR Hills) are located in southern Karnataka and form a crucial link between the Western and Eastern Ghats. The Satpura Range is located much further north in central India. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats: This statement is incorrect. The Seshachalam Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, located in Andhra Pradesh. The southernmost part of the Western Ghats extends into Tamil Nadu and Kerala, including ranges like the Anaimalai Hills and Cardamom Hills. As all three statements are incorrect, the answer is 'None'.

With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat: This statement is incorrect. The East-West Corridor, part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), connects Silchar (Assam) in the east to Porbandar (Gujarat) in the west. Dibrugarh and Surat are not the terminal points. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar: This statement is incorrect. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway connects Moreh (Manipur) in India to Mae Sot (Thailand) via Myanmar. Chiang Mai is a city in Thailand but is not the terminal point of this highway project. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China: This statement is incorrect. The BCIM Economic Corridor (which has seen limited progress) was proposed to connect Kolkata (India) with Kunming (China) via Dhaka (Bangladesh) and Mandalay (Myanmar). Varanasi is not the designated Indian starting point for this corridor. As none of the statements are correct, the answer is 'None'.

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Let's examine the statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. This statement is correct. India has significant coal reserves and coal-fired thermal power plants dominate its electricity generation mix, accounting for the largest share. While India does have some uranium deposits (e.g., in Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh), they are not sufficient to meet its full nuclear energy potential, and nuclear power currently contributes a much smaller percentage to the national grid compared to coal. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. This statement is incorrect. For most commercial nuclear power reactors (specifically Light Water Reactors, which are common globally), uranium is typically enriched to 3-5% U-235 (fissile isotope). Highly enriched uranium (HEU), often above 20% or even much higher (e.g., 90% for weapons-grade), is not required for commercial electricity production. 60% enrichment would be far too high for standard power reactors. Therefore, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Let's examine the statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. This statement is correct. Marsupials, a group of mammals characterized by carrying their young in a pouch (like kangaroos, koalas, opossums), are native primarily to Australia, New Guinea, and the Americas. They are not indigenous to the Indian subcontinent. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. This statement is incorrect. Marsupials inhabit a wide variety of habitats, including forests, woodlands, deserts, and grasslands, depending on the species. They are certainly not restricted to montane grasslands and naturally face a range of predators in their native environments (e.g., dingoes, raptors, snakes). Their geographical distribution is primarily a result of evolutionary history and continental drift, not a highly specific habitat requirement or absence of predators. Therefore, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

The 'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts that provides advice on invasive alien species. The ISSG is part of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It develops and manages resources like the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD) to facilitate the prevention and management of biological invasions worldwide.

The International Union for Conservation of Nature

The United Nations Environment Programme

The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development

Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

Let's examine the activity patterns of the given fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque: These primates are diurnal, meaning they are primarily active during the day. They forage for food and engage in social activities during daylight hours. 2. Malabar Civet: The Malabar Civet (Viverra civettina) is a critically endangered species native to the Western Ghats of India. It is primarily nocturnal, meaning it is most active after sunset and during the night for foraging and other activities. 3. Sambar Deer: Sambar deer are largely crepuscular, meaning they are most active during twilight hours (dawn and dusk). While their activity often extends into the night for foraging, they are not strictly nocturnal in the same way as many other animals that are exclusively active after dark. However, given the option asks 'generally nocturnal or most active after sunset', they do fit this description to some extent alongside their crepuscular nature. Considering the strict interpretation of 'generally nocturnal or most active after sunset' implying a primary nocturnal habit, the Malabar Civet is the clearest fit. While Sambar deer do have nocturnal activity, their primary activity peak is crepuscular. Therefore, only one of the given animals is primarily or generally nocturnal.

Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

The 'waggle dance' is a famous and complex form of communication used by honeybees. When a foraging honeybee discovers a valuable food source (like a patch of flowers with nectar or pollen) or a new potential nest site, it returns to the hive and performs a specific dance pattern. The angle and duration of the 'waggle' part of the dance communicate the direction and distance of the resource to other worker bees, enabling them to locate it efficiently.

Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's evaluate each statement regarding mushrooms: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties: This statement is correct. Many mushroom species, such as Reishi, Shiitake, Chaga, and Cordyceps, have been traditionally used and are being studied for their medicinal properties, including immune-boosting, anti-cancer, and anti-inflammatory effects. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties: This statement is correct. Certain mushroom species, commonly known as 'magic mushrooms', contain psychoactive compounds like psilocybin and psilocin, which can induce altered states of consciousness. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties: This statement is correct. Some fungi, including certain mushroom-forming species or their close relatives, produce compounds that are toxic to insects or are parasitic to insects (e.g., entomopathogenic fungi like Beauveria bassiana). These can be used as biological pest control agents. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties: This statement is correct. There are several species of fungi, including some mushrooms (e.g., Mycena species, Panellus stipticus), that exhibit bioluminescence, meaning they glow in the dark due to chemical reactions within their cells. Since all four statements are correct, the answer is 'All four'.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground: This statement is incorrect for most common Indian squirrels. Indian palm squirrels (e.g., the Three-striped Palm Squirrel), which are widely distributed, primarily build their nests (dreys) in trees, using leaves, twigs, and other plant material. While some squirrel species globally (like ground squirrels) do burrow, this is not a general characteristic of the prevalent Indian squirrels for nesting. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground: This statement is correct. Squirrels are well-known for their caching behavior, where they bury or hide nuts, seeds, and other food items in the ground or in tree cavities for later consumption. This behavior also aids in seed dispersal. 3. They are omnivorous: This statement is correct. While their diet primarily consists of nuts, seeds, fruits, and bark, Indian squirrels are opportunistic feeders. They are known to supplement their diet with insects, bird eggs, and even small vertebrates, making them omnivorous. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct. So, 'Only two' is the answer.

Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's evaluate each statement about microorganisms: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water: This statement is correct. These are known as hyperthermophiles, a type of extremophile. They thrive in extremely hot environments, such as hydrothermal vents in the deep sea or hot springs, with optimal growth temperatures often exceeding 80°C and some capable of growing above 100°C (e.g., certain Archaea species). 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water: This statement is correct. These are called psychrophiles or psychrotrophs. They are adapted to cold environments like polar regions, glaciers, and deep-sea waters, and can grow optimally at low temperatures, including below 0°C. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3: This statement is correct. These are known as acidophiles. They thrive in extremely acidic conditions, such as acid mine drainage, volcanic soils, or the stomach of animals. Their enzymes and cellular structures are adapted to function at very low pH levels (e.g., some Archaea and bacteria can grow at pH 1 or 2). Since all three statements are correct, the answer is 'All three'.

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

Among the given options, the Orangutan is well-known for its sophisticated tool use in the wild. Orangutans have been observed using sticks to extract insects from tree holes, to open fruits, or even to scratch themselves. This behavior demonstrates a high level of cognitive ability and problem-solving skills. While other animals listed exhibit forms of clever behavior or tool use (e.g., otters using rocks to crack shells, fishing cats using paws to catch fish), the specific action of using a stick to scrape insects from a hole is a documented behavior of orangutans.

Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are potent greenhouse gases that were widely adopted as substitutes for ozone-depleting substances like CFCs and HCFCs, primarily in refrigeration and air conditioning. Let's examine their uses in the given options: 1. Aerosols: HFCs are commonly used as propellants in various aerosol products, including medical inhalers and some consumer aerosols. 2. Foam agents: HFCs are used as blowing agents in the production of foams (e.g., insulation foams, packaging foams) to create their cellular structure. 3. Fire retardants: Some HFCs, particularly those like HFC-227ea (also known as FM-200), are used as gaseous fire suppression agents in fire protection systems. 4. Lubricants: HFCs themselves are generally not used as lubricants. Lubricants are typically oils, greases, or other substances designed to reduce friction between moving parts. While some specialized lubricants might contain fluorine, HFCs are primarily known for their refrigerant, propellant, or blowing agent properties, not as lubricants. Therefore, HFCs are used in aerosols, foam agents, and fire retardants. So, 'Only three' is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I is incorrect. Interest income from Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to investors is taxable under the Income Tax Act. The Finance Act 2023 further clarified that all InvIT distributions, including interest, are subject to tax. Statement-II is correct. InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002. Since Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct, the answer is D.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both statements are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is correct: Following the COVID-19 pandemic, central banks worldwide (including the US Federal Reserve, European Central Bank, Bank of England, and Reserve Bank of India) carried out aggressive interest rate hikes to combat rising inflation caused by supply chain disruptions, pent-up demand, and geopolitical factors. Statement-II is correct: Central banks operate on the fundamental assumption that monetary policy tools — primarily interest rate adjustments — can effectively counteract rising consumer prices by influencing money supply, credit conditions, and aggregate demand. Statement-II explains Statement-I because the very reason central banks raised interest rates (Statement-I) is their belief that monetary policy can counteract rising prices (Statement-II). The rate hikes were a direct application of this assumption — central banks raised rates precisely because they believed doing so would curb inflation.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Let's analyze the statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. This statement is correct. Carbon markets, including cap-and-trade systems and carbon taxes, are market-based mechanisms that put a price on carbon emissions. This incentivizes industries and entities to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions, making them a powerful and increasingly adopted tool globally for climate action. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. This statement is correct. In carbon market mechanisms like carbon taxation, industries (private sector) pay a tax to the government (State) for their emissions. In a cap-and-trade system, polluters may have to purchase emission allowances from the government or from other entities that have reduced emissions, effectively transferring financial resources. This transfer provides incentives (or disincentives) for emission reduction and can generate revenue for the state, which can then be reinvested in climate initiatives. Relationship between Statement-I and Statement-II: Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I. The transfer of resources from the private sector to the state (or other entities within the market) is the fundamental mechanism through which carbon markets create economic incentives and disincentives for emissions. This financial mechanism is precisely what makes them an effective and widespread tool for driving emission reductions and combating climate change, as it internalizes the cost of pollution and drives behavioral change across the economy.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?

Sterilization, in the context of central banking, refers to the actions undertaken by a central bank to offset the monetary impact of its interventions in the foreign exchange market. For example, if the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) buys foreign currency to prevent the appreciation of the rupee, it injects an equivalent amount of Indian rupees into the domestic economy, thereby increasing the money supply. To 'sterilize' or neutralize this increase in money supply, the RBI would typically sell government securities in the open market (Open Market Operations or OMOs). This action absorbs the excess liquidity from the banking system, preventing it from fueling inflation. The other options describe different functions of the RBI: Oversight of settlement and payment systems: This is part of the RBI's role in maintaining financial stability and efficiency. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments: This is a banking function of the RBI for the government. Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions: This is part of the RBI's regulatory and supervisory role in the financial sector. Therefore, conducting 'Open Market Operations' is the activity considered part of sterilization.

Conducting 'Open Market Operations'

Oversight of settlement and payment systems

Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments

Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions

Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?

Financial markets are broadly categorized into two main types based on the maturity of the financial instruments traded: Money Market: Deals with short-term funds, typically with a maturity period of less than one year. Instruments include Treasury Bills, Commercial Papers, Certificates of Deposit, and Call Money. Capital Market: Deals with long-term funds, typically with a maturity period of more than one year. It includes both equity (stocks) and debt instruments. Instruments include shares, debentures, bonds (government bonds, corporate bonds), and mutual funds. Let's classify the given markets: 1. Government Bond Market: Government bonds are typically long-term debt instruments issued by the government. Hence, it is included in the Capital Market. 2. Call Money Market: This market deals with very short-term (mostly overnight) lending and borrowing between banks. It is a key component of the Money Market. 3. Treasury Bill Market: Treasury Bills (T-Bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government, typically with maturities of 91, 182, or 364 days. They are part of the Money Market. 4. Stock Market: The Stock Market (or equity market) deals with the trading of company shares, which represent long-term ownership. It is a fundamental part of the Capital Market. Therefore, only the Government Bond Market and the Stock Market are included in capital markets. So, 'Only two' is the correct answer.

Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?

The concept of "Small Farmer Large Field" (SFLF) describes a model where many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups to synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations. By coordinating activities like sowing, irrigation, and harvesting, they achieve economies of scale, reduce input costs, and increase bargaining power — effectively operating as a large field while retaining individual land ownership.

Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds: This statement is correct. The Government of India, through the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), regularly announces the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for niger seeds as part of its policy to support farmers and encourage cultivation of oilseeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop: This statement is partially correct and can be a point of nuance. While Niger is primarily a Kharif (monsoon) crop, sown during July-August and harvested in November-December, it is also grown as a Rabi crop in some parts of Southern India. If the statement implies exclusivity, it would be incorrect; however, as a general classification, it is indeed a major Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking: This statement is correct. Niger seed oil is a traditional edible oil, particularly consumed by tribal and rural populations in various parts of India, especially in regions where niger is cultivated. Given that the correct answer is 'Only two', and statements 1 and 3 are broadly and accurately correct, statement 2, while largely true, likely contains the subtle inaccuracy that makes it not entirely correct in all contexts (i.e., not exclusively a Kharif crop).

Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

Intangible investments are non-physical assets that derive value from intellectual or legal rights rather than physical substance. 1. Brand recognition: Intangible. It represents the value a company derives from consumer familiarity, trust, and positive associations with its brand. It cannot be physically touched or measured directly. 2. Inventory: NOT intangible. Inventory consists of physical goods — raw materials, work-in-progress, and finished goods held for sale. It is a tangible current asset that can be seen, touched, and measured. 3. Intellectual property: Intangible. This encompasses patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secrets — legal rights that provide exclusive control over creations of the mind. 4. Mailing list of clients: Intangible. It represents customer relationships, customer data, and market reach. It holds significant value for marketing and sales but has no physical form. Three out of four (brand recognition, intellectual property, and mailing list of clients) are intangible investments. Inventory is a tangible asset.

Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

The Fifteenth Finance Commission used several criteria for horizontal tax devolution (distribution of divisible pool among states) apart from population, area, and income distance. The specific criteria and their weights were: 1. Demographic Performance: This criterion was introduced to reward states that have performed well in controlling population growth. It was given a weight of 12.5%. 2. Forest and Ecology: This criterion recognized the importance of forest cover and environmental conservation, allocating a weight of 10%. 3. Governance reforms: This was a recommendation or consideration by the Finance Commission in its report, but it was not adopted as a specific criterion with a weightage for horizontal tax devolution in the final scheme. 4. Stable government: This is not a criterion used for horizontal tax devolution by the Finance Commission. 5. Tax and fiscal efforts: This criterion rewarded states that have shown prudence and effort in their own tax collection and fiscal management. It was given a weight of 2.5%. Therefore, Demographic performance, Forest and ecology, and Tax and fiscal efforts were the three criteria used by the Fifteenth Finance Commission for horizontal tax devolution, in addition to population, area, and income distance.

Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative is designed to mobilize private sector investment into large-scale, high-impact sustainable infrastructure projects in developing countries, aligning with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The initiative specifically focuses on critical sectors that are essential for sustainable development and resilience. These key sectors include: Affordable housing: Addressing the global housing deficit, especially for vulnerable populations. Mass rapid transport: Developing efficient and sustainable urban transportation systems to reduce congestion and pollution. Health care: Investing in healthcare infrastructure to improve access to quality medical services. Renewable energy: Supporting the transition to clean energy sources to combat climate change and ensure energy access. Therefore, the UNOPS S3i initiative focuses its investments across all four mentioned infrastructure sectors.

In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?

'Due Process of Law' is a concept that originated in the United States. In essence, it means that a person should not be deprived of life, liberty, or property without fair and just legal proceedings. It implies that not only should the procedure established by law be followed, but the law itself must also be fair, just, and reasonable. This is a broader concept than 'procedure established by law', which only checks if the prescribed procedure is followed, irrespective of the fairness of the law itself. The principle of natural justice, which includes rules like 'Audi alteram partem' (hear the other side) and 'Nemo judex in causa sua' (no one should be a judge in their own cause), aligns very closely with 'due process of law' because both emphasize fairness, reasonableness, and impartiality in legal and administrative actions. Therefore, 'Due Process of Law' encompasses the spirit and application of natural justice to ensure that the law is not arbitrary and its application is equitable.

The principle of natural justice

The procedure established by law

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Let's analyze the statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. This statement is correct. 'Prisons/Reformatories/Borstal Institutions and other institutions of a like nature, and persons detained therein; arrangements with other States for the use of prisons and other similar institutions' is Entry 4 under List II (State List) of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. This means states have primary legislative and administrative control over prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. This statement is also correct. The Prisons Act, 1894, is a central legislation that predates the Constitution. It laid down the framework for prison administration and placed the subject under the control of Provincial Governments, which after independence, became the State Governments. Relationship between statements: Statement-II provides the historical and legislative basis for Statement-I. The fact that the 1894 Act placed prisons under provincial control directly explains why, even today, they remain a state subject managed by State Governments. Thus, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?

While all the given options describe important functions or goals associated with a Constitution, the chief or fundamental purpose of a Constitution is to establish a framework for governance and, critically, to define and limit the powers of the government. This limitation of power is essential to prevent tyranny, ensure accountability, and protect the rights and liberties of citizens. By delineating the powers of different branches of government, specifying their functions, and often including a Bill of Rights, a constitution prevents the arbitrary exercise of authority and ensures that the government operates within prescribed boundaries. The other options, such as determining objectives for laws, enabling creation of offices, or securing social justice, are either secondary functions or ultimate goals that are achieved through the primary mechanism of defining and limiting governmental power.

It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

It defines and limits the powers of government.

It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

The 1st Constitutional Amendment (1951) was enacted primarily to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court in cases like Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950) and Brij Bhushan v. State of Delhi (1950) had struck down restrictions on freedom of speech. The 1st Amendment added reasonable restrictions to Article 19, inserted Articles 31A and 31B with the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review, and added Article 15(4) to enable special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes. Note: This question was dropped by UPSC from the 2023 Prelims exam.

Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

Let's examine the status of each organization/body: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC): This body was initially established as a statutory body under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. However, it was granted constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, inserting Article 338B into the Constitution. Thus, it is a constitutional body. 2. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): The NHRC is a statutory body, established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It is not a constitutional body as it was created by an Act of Parliament, not directly by the Constitution. 3. The National Law Commission: This is an executive body, constituted by an order of the Government of India. It is not a statutory or constitutional body. 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC): The NCDRC is a statutory body, established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (now replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019). It is not a constitutional body. Therefore, among the given options, only the National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body.

Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding the President of India: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. This statement is incorrect. Article 71(2) of the Constitution explicitly states that acts done by the President or Vice-President in the exercise of their powers and duties of office, before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court declaring their election to be void, shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. This statement is incorrect. The election of the President cannot be postponed or challenged on the ground that some legislative assemblies are dissolved. The electoral college is deemed complete for the purpose of the election, and the election must be held within the prescribed time frame (Article 62). 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. This statement is incorrect. Unlike some other constitutions (e.g., USA), the Indian Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which the President must give assent to a bill. This allows the President to exercise a 'pocket veto' by simply keeping a bill pending indefinitely. Since all three statements are incorrect, the correct answer is 'None'.

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding Finance Bill and Money Bill: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. This statement is correct. A Finance Bill, which deals with revenue and expenditure, is usually introduced in the Lok Sabha. While some Finance Bills (specifically Finance Bill I under Article 110(1) (a) to (f)) are similar to Money Bills, other Finance Bills (Finance Bill II) are treated as ordinary bills regarding the powers of the Rajya Sabha. For such Finance Bills that are not exclusively Money Bills, the Rajya Sabha has the power to amend or reject them, similar to any ordinary bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. This statement is correct. This is a fundamental difference between Money Bills and other bills. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers over Money Bills; it can only make recommendations which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. This statement is incorrect. The first part, 'there is no joint sitting for Money Bill', is correct because of the limited powers of the Rajya Sabha over Money Bills. However, the second part, 'a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill', is incorrect. A joint sitting (under Article 108) is possible for Finance Bills (which are considered ordinary bills in this context if they face a deadlock), but it is not 'necessary' or an automatic outcome in every case of disagreement. The President 'may' summon a joint sitting, it's not a mandatory step for every disagreement. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a Community Reserve under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Statement 1 is incorrect. The governing authority of a Community Reserve is the Community Reserve Management Committee, not solely the Chief Wildlife Warden. Statement 2 is correct. Hunting is not allowed in Community Reserves, as they are protected areas under the Act. Statement 3 is correct. Collection of non-timber forest products by local communities is permitted in Community Reserves. Statement 4 is incorrect. Traditional agricultural practices like shifting cultivation (jhum) are not permitted in Community Reserves. Therefore, only two statements (2 and 3) are correct.

With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding 'Scheduled Areas' in India: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. This statement is correct. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution empowers the President to declare any area to be a Scheduled Area. Changes to such areas (increasing, decreasing, rescheduling) also require a Presidential Order. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. This statement is correct. Scheduled Areas are typically notified at the district, sub-district, or block level, and their boundaries can extend down to clusters of villages, recognizing indigenous populations within these administrative units. So, district is the largest, and clusters of villages (or even individual villages in some cases) can be the lowest demarcation. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. This statement is incorrect. According to the Fifth Schedule (Para 3), the Governor of each state having Scheduled Areas is required to submit a report to the President annually (or whenever required) regarding the administration of such areas in their state, not the Chief Minister to the Union Home Ministry. Therefore, only two statements (1 and 2) are correct.

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement-I is correct. The Supreme Court of India, in landmark judgments such as Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) and M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006), has held that reservation policies under Article 16(4) are limited by Article 335, which requires that claims of SCs and STs be considered consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II is incorrect. Article 335 merely mentions "efficiency of administration" but does not define the term. It states that claims of SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, without providing a definition of what constitutes such efficiency. Since Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect, the answer is C.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

Dhanyakataka, also widely known as Amaravati, was a very prominent ancient city and a significant Buddhist centre. It was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty in ancient South India. Located on the banks of the Krishna River, in present-day Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, it flourished as a major hub for Buddhist learning and art, particularly under the patronage of the Mahasanghika school of Buddhism. Its stupas and sculptures are famous examples of ancient Indian art.

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding Stupas: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. This statement is incorrect. While stupas became intrinsically linked with Buddhism and served as its primary architectural manifestation, their origins predate Buddhism. Early stupa-like mounds served as pre-Buddhist burial or funerary mounds in India, possibly for venerated individuals or as part of a funerary cult. Buddhism later adopted and transformed this existing tradition into a central element of its architectural and spiritual practice. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. This statement is correct. A primary function of stupas in Buddhism was to house the corporeal relics of the Buddha (e.g., bones, hair, teeth) or those of important Buddhist monks and saints, as well as their belongings or sacred texts. These are known as 'sararika stupas'. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. This statement is correct. Stupas were often built to commemorate significant events in the Buddha's life or important figures ('paribhogika stupas') or as objects of devotion and merit-making ('votive stupas' built by pilgrims). Buddhists would circumambulate them as a form of worship and to accumulate merit. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

Korkai, Poompuhar (also known as Kaveripattinam), and Muchiri (also known as Muziris) were all highly significant ancient port cities in South India during the Sangam period. Korkai: It was an important port city and the early capital of the Pandyas, known for its pearl fishing and trade. Poompuhar: This was the port city of the Cholas, located at the mouth of the Kaveri River. It was a bustling center of foreign trade mentioned in Sangam literature like Silappadikaram. Muchiri (Muziris): A prominent port city of the Cheras on the Malabar coast (modern-day Kerala), it was a key center for spice trade with the Roman Empire and other parts of the world. These cities played a crucial role in the maritime trade and economy of ancient South India, connecting the subcontinent with distant lands.

centres of iron-and-steel making

Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?

'Vattakirutal' (also spelled Vatakkiruttal or Vadakkiruttal) was a ritualistic practice mentioned in ancient Tamil Sangam literature. It refers to a form of honorable suicide, usually undertaken by a king or a warrior who had suffered a significant defeat in battle or faced disgrace. The individual would sit facing north ('vadakku' meaning north) and undertake a fast unto death, often surrounded by their companions, as a heroic and self-respecting way to end their life rather than surrender or live in dishonor. It was considered a noble act of self-sacrifice.

Kings employing women bodyguards

Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals

A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

Let's examine the period of establishment and prominence for each dynasty: Hoysala: The Hoysala dynasty rose to prominence in the Karnataka region from the 10th century onwards, with their peak influence in the 12th-14th centuries. They did not establish their kingdom in the early 8th century AD. Gahadavala: The Gahadavalas ruled parts of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, with their significant rise to power in the late 11th century and dominance in the 12th century (c. 1089-1194 CE). They were not present in the early 8th century AD. Kakatiya: The Kakatiya dynasty rose in the Andhra region, gaining prominence from the 12th century and ruling till the 14th century (c. 1083-1323 CE). They were not established in the early 8th century AD. Yadava: The Yadava dynasty of Devagiri (Maharashtra) emerged as a significant power in the late 12th and 13th centuries (c. 1187-1317 CE). They were not established in the early 8th century AD. All the listed dynasties established their independent and prominent kingdoms much later than the early 8th century AD. Therefore, none of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.

With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: Literary work Author 1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri 3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna 4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Let's analyze each pair of literary work and author: 1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana - This pair is incorrectly matched. 'Devichandragupta' is a Sanskrit play attributed to Vishakhadatta, who also wrote 'Mudrarakshasa'. Bilhana was a Kashmiri poet who wrote 'Vikramankadevacharita', an epic poem on the life of the Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI. 2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri - This pair is correctly matched. 'Hammira-Mahakavya' is a historical epic poem (Mahakavya) about the Chahamana king Hammira-deva of Ranthambore, composed by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri. 3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna - This pair is incorrectly matched. 'Milinda-panha' (Questions of Milinda) is an important Buddhist text, which records a dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander I (Milinda) and the Buddhist monk Nagasena. Nagarjuna was a prominent Buddhist philosopher and the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism, who lived several centuries after Nagasena. 4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri - This pair is correctly matched. 'Nitivakyamrita' is a significant text on polity and ethics, composed by the Jain Acharya Somadeva Suri in the 10th century. Therefore, only two pairs (2 and 4) are correctly matched.

"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

The statement describes a core tenet of Jainism. Jain philosophy posits that souls (Jiva) are present not only in animate beings like animals and plants but also in seemingly inanimate objects or elements of nature, such as earth (rocks), water, fire, and air. This belief in the omnipresence of jivas extends the concept of life to all forms of existence. Consequently, Jainism emphasizes extreme non-violence (Ahimsa) towards all forms of life, including these elemental beings, as every entity is believed to possess a soul capable of experiencing suffering. This distinguishes Jainism from other religious sects which typically restrict the concept of soul or life to organic beings.

Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

Devaraya I (reigned 1406-1422 AD) of the Sangama dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire is renowned for his significant contributions to irrigation and water management infrastructure. He undertook major hydraulic projects to ensure water supply for agriculture and for the capital city of Vijayanagara. One of his notable achievements was the construction of a large dam across the Tungabhadra River, along with a canal-cum-aqueduct system several kilometers long, to bring water to the imperial city, addressing its growing water needs.

Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

Bahadur Shah was the Sultan of Gujarat who had significant interactions and conflicts with the Portuguese in the early 16th century. Facing pressure from the growing Mughal Empire under Humayun, Bahadur Shah sought assistance from the Portuguese. In 1534, he signed the Treaty of Bassein with the Portuguese, ceding the island of Bassein and its dependencies to them and promising to give them Diu. Later, he was killed by the Portuguese in 1537 during negotiations concerning the fort of Diu. This event eventually led to the Portuguese gaining complete control over Diu.

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

The Charter Act of 1833 was a pivotal piece of legislation in the constitutional history of British India. This Act significantly centralized the administration of British India. One of its most important provisions was the designation of the 'Governor-General of Bengal' as the 'Governor-General of India'. Lord William Bentinck, who was previously the Governor-General of Bengal, became the first Governor-General of India under this Act. The Act also vested him with all civil and military powers, further consolidating authority. Other options: The Regulating Act of 1773: Created the office of Governor-General of Bengal (first being Warren Hastings). The Pitt's India Act of 1784: Distinguished between commercial and political functions and established the Board of Control. The Charter Act of 1793: Extended the Company's trade monopoly for another 20 years and empowered the Governor-General to override his council's decisions.

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY): 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. While JSY is indeed a safe motherhood intervention, it is a centrally sponsored scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM) and is implemented by the State Health Departments. The phrasing 'of the State Health Departments' might be considered slightly ambiguous, as it is a national initiative rolled out through the states. However, its implementation is certainly driven by state departments. Given the provided answer, this statement is considered incorrect in the context of only two statements being correct, implying a more precise definition of 'of the State Health Departments' than 'implemented by'. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. This statement is correct. JSY's primary objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. This statement is correct. Promoting institutional delivery is a key strategy and core objective of JSY, as it provides a cash incentive to mothers for giving birth in a health facility. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. This statement is incorrect. While JSY contributes to neonatal health by encouraging institutional delivery, its direct scope does not explicitly extend to providing public health facilities for sick infants up to one year of age as a dedicated objective. Programs like Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) specifically address free services for sick newborns and infants up to one year. Based on the analysis, statements 2 and 3 are correct. Thus, only two statements are correct.

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper & Solutions

Q: Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2023 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

Q: What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2023?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2023 was 75.41 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

Q: How is the UPSC Prelims 2023 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Q: Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Q: Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2023 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2023 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Q: Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Q: Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

Q: How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2023 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

UPSC Prelims 2023 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Prelims 2023 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of…	geography	A	View
2	Consider the following pairs: Port Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port: Larges…	geography	B	View
3	Consider the following trees: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the ab…	geography	B	View
4	Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compare…	geography	A	View
5	Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?	geography	D	View
6	Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?	geography	D	View
7	About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by	economy	C	View
8	Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?	geography	A	View
9	Consider the following statements: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constit…	geography	D	View
10	With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Proj…	geography	D	View
11	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity producti…	science-and-technology	C	View
12	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in mon…	geography	C	View
13	'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?	geography	A	View
14	Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most a…	geography	A	View
15	Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of thei…	geography	C	View
16	Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 3. Some mus…	science-and-technology	D	View
17	Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their f…	geography	B	View
18	Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Som…	science-and-technology	C	View
19	Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?	geography	B	View
20	Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluoroca…	science-and-technology	C	View
21	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed t…	economy	D	View
22	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate…	economy	A	View
23	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climat…	geography	A	View
24	Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?	economy	A	View
25	Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above…	economy	B	View
26	Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?	economy	B	View
27	Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger…	economy	B	View
28	Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How …	economy	C	View
29	Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal effort…	polity-and-governance	B	View
30	Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many …	polity-and-governance	D	View
31	In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?	polity-and-governance	A	View
32	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for …	polity-and-governance	A	View
33	Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?	polity-and-governance	C	View
34	In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of…	polity-and-governance	A	View
35	Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commissio…	polity-and-governance	A	View
36	Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts don…	polity-and-governance	D	View
37	With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits F…	polity-and-governance	B	View
38	Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the…	polity-and-governance	B	View
39	With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled…	polity-and-governance	B	View
40	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made un…	polity-and-governance	C	View
41	In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?	history	A	View
42	With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a …	art-and-culture	B	View
43	With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as	history	B	View
44	Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?	history	D	View
45	Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms …	history	D	View
46	With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: Literary work Author 1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahaka…	history	B	View
47	"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as …	art-and-culture	B	View
48	Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilo…	history	A	View
49	Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?	history	C	View
50	By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?	history	D	View
51	Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departm…	polity-and-governance	B	View
52	Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophy…	polity-and-governance	C	View
53	Consider the following statements: 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon f…	science-and-technology	A	View
54	Consider the following actions: 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Det…	science-and-technology	C	View
55	With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements: 1. Biofilters provide waste…	geography	B	View
56	Consider the following pairs: Objects in space Description 1. Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae: Stars which bright…	science-and-technology	A	View
57	Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?	science-and-technology	D	View
58	Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missile…	science-and-technology	D	View
59	Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coa…	geography	C	View
60	With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can…	science-and-technology	C	View
61	Consider the following countries: 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned…	geography	A	View
62	With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?	geography	C	View
63	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II: The high temperature a…	geography	D	View
64	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in wint…	geography	D	View
65	Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles v…	geography	C	View
66	With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of the…	economy	D	View
67	'Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?	science-and-technology	A	View
68	Consider the following activities: 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by…	geography	C	View
69	'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?	science-and-technology	A	View
70	'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?	science-and-technology	A	View
71	Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act,…	economy	B	View
72	With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital curren…	economy	C	View
73	In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to	economy	D	View
74	Consider the following statements: 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing m…	economy	B	View
75	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preve…	polity-and-governance	A	View
76	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more…	geography	C	View
77	Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from inter…	polity-and-governance	B	View
78	Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past f…	geography	D	View
79	Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the N…	polity-and-governance	C	View
80	Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliame…	polity-and-governance	A	View
81	With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with	history	A	View
82	Consider the following pairs: Site Well known for 1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine 2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine 3. Sittanavasal : Jain …	art-and-culture	B	View
83	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the S…	history	A	View
84	Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of th…	polity-and-governance	D	View
85	Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every…	polity-and-governance	C	View
86	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzer…	economy	C	View
87	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the '…	polity-and-governance	C	View
88	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and so…	economy	D	View
89	Consider the following statements: The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budget…	polity-and-governance	A	View
90	Consider the following statements: 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for internationa…	polity-and-governance	D	View
91	With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Centr…	polity-and-governance	B	View
92	With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Action The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or militar…	polity-and-governance	B	View
93	Consider the following pairs: Regions often mentioned in news Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia and Aze…	polity-and-governance	D	View
94	Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II: The 'Arab P…	polity-and-governance	C	View
95	Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards: 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding …	polity-and-governance	B	View
96	Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in Indi…	art-and-culture	B	View
97	Consider the following pairs: Area of conflict mentioned in news Country where it is located 1. Donbas : Syria 2. Kachin : Ethiopia 3. Tigra…	polity-and-governance	D	View
98	In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of …	polity-and-governance	D	View
99	Consider the following heavy industries: 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a signifi…	economy	C	View
100	Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Centr…	polity-and-governance	C	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

80 / 80

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters. Of the 20 major river systems, 14 are already water- stress…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
2	More than half of Indian women and almost a quarter of Indian men of working age suffer from anaemia. According to studies, they are anywher…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
3	In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive capabilities to climate change, perhaps becau…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
4	Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by one (without replac…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
5	In how many ways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring s…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
6	There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one envelope with the correct address. If the lette…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
7	What is the remainder when 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 is divided by 100?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
8	What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242)^(9×7×5×3×1)?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
9	If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E and F are distinct non-zero digits such that ABC + DEF = 1111 , then what is…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
10	D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between the digit at the h…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
11	The emissions humans put into the atmosphere now will affect the climate in the middle of the century and onwards. Technological change, mea…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
12	Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea ap…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
13	Many people are not eating the right food. For some, it is simply a decision to stick with food they enjoy but which is not too healthy. Thi…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
14	Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following: 1. p …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
15	Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c. 1. p + c{p - c} can be even. 2. 2p + c can be odd. 3. pc can be …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
16	A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. What is the value of A + B + C …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
17	For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6-digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by:	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
18	125 identical cubes are arranged in the form of a cubical block. How many cubes are surrounded by other cubes from each side?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
19	How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions a…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
20	A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. A alone works on Monday, B alone works on Tuesday, C…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
21	Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
22	Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governanc…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
23	Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
24	If 7 ⊕ 9 ⊕ 10 = 8 , 9 ⊕ 11 ⊕ 30 = 5 , 11 ⊕ 17 ⊕ 21 = 13 , what is the value of 23 ⊕ 4 ⊕ 15 ?	Logical Reasoning	A	View
25	Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x . How many values of x are possible?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
26	If p , q , r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q)(r + s) ?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
27	A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
28	Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
29	What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
30	ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can b…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
31	Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
32	In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three- fourths of th…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
33	There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still y…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
34	There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still y…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
35	Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutr…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
36	A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following state…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
37	If 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR', then how is 'PLAYER' written?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
38	Consider the following statements: 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
39	Consider the following including the Question and the Statements: There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family. Question: What is the relat…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
40	Choose the group which is different from the others:	Logical Reasoning	D	View
41	## Passage - 1 Scientists studied the vernal window transition period from winter to the growing season. They found that warmer winters with…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
42	A global analysis of nitrogen use efficiency - a measure of the amount of nitrogen a plant takes in to grow versus what is left behind as po…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
43	Along with sustainable lifestyles, climate justice is regarded as a significant principle in environmental parlance. Both the principles hav…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
44	A principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of interest. If the same principal P becomes Q in 1 year w…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
45	How many natural numbers are there which give a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
46	Let pp, qq and rr be 2-digit numbers where p< q< r . If pp + qq + rr = tt0 , where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, consider the fo…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
47	What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated?	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
48	What is the number of selections of 10 consecutive things out of 12 things in a circle taken in the clockwise direction?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
49	If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 10¹⁰ th day?	Logical Reasoning	A	View
50	There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from red to green. The first signal takes 25 seconds,…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
51	Sourcing food from non- agricultural lands (uncultivated systems such as forests, wetlands, pastures, etc) in addition to agricultural lands…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
52	While awareness on use/misuse and abuse of antibiotics is common knowledge, as is the impact of dosing poultry with antibiotics, the environ…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
53	Benefits of good quality school education accrue only when students complete and leave school after having acquired the gateway skills. Like…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
54	40 children are standing in a circle and one of them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes on to child-2, c…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
55	What is the middle term of the sequence Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W,..., A?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
56	Question: Is p greater than q? Statement- 1: p x q is greater than zero. Statement- 2: p² is greater than q². Which one of the following is …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
57	Question: Is (p + q - r) greater than (p - q + r), where p, q and r are integers? Statement- 1: (p - q) is positive. Statement- 2: (p - r) i…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
58	In a party, 75 persons took tea, 60 persons took coffee and 15 persons took both tea and coffee. No one taking milk takes tea. Each person t…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
59	Consider a 3-digit number. Question: What is the number? Statement- 1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the di…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
60	For five children with ages a < b < c < d < e ; any two successive ages differ by 2 years. Question: What is the age of the youngest child? …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
61	The paradox of choice is illustrated by the story of Buridan's ass. Jean Buridan, the 14th century philosopher, wrote about free will and th…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
62	## Passage - 2 Household finance in India is unique. We have a tendency to invest heavily in physical assets such as gold and property. Step…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
63	Pharmaceutical patents grant protection to the patentee for the duration of the patent term. The patentees enjoy the liberty to determine th…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
64	India should ensure the growth of the digital economy while keeping personal data of citizens secure and protected. No one will innovate in …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
65	In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are 100. Marks scored by the students are in integers.…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
66	A flag has to be designed with 4 horizontal stripes using some or all of the colours red, green and yellow. What is the number of different …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
67	A rectangular floor measures 4 m in length and 2 · 2 m in breadth. Tiles of size 140 cm by 60 cm have to be laid such that the tiles do not …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
68	There are five persons P, Q, R, S and T each one of whom has to be assigned one task. Neither P nor Q can be assigned Task-1. Task-2 must be…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
69	There are large number of silver coins weighing 2gm , 5gm , 10gm , 25gm , 50gm each. Consider the following statements: 1. To buy 78gm of co…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
70	Consider the following: I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B. II. A - B means A is not greater than B. III. A× B means A is no…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
71	In India, while the unemployment rate is a frequently used measure of poor performance of the economy, under conditions of rising school and…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
72	"Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate them and point to a goal. It is no…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
73	"The last end of the state is not to dominate men, nor to restrain them by fear; rather it is so to free each man from fear that he may live…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
74	What is the remainder if 2¹⁹² is divided by 6?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
75	Consider the sequence ABC_ _ABC_DABBCD_ABCD that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
76	AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 9…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
77	Consider the following statements in respect of five candidates P, Q, R, S and T. Two statements are true and one statement is false. True S…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
78	Let P, Q, R, S and T be five statements such that: I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. Wh…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
79	A cuboid of dimensions 7 cm × 5 cm × 3 cm is painted red, green and blue colour on each pair of opposite faces of dimensions 7 cm × 5 cm , 5…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
80	The letters of the word "INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES" are arranged alphabetically in reverse order. How many positions of the letter/letters will …	Logical Reasoning	C	View

Official cutoff — 2023

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 75.41
EWS: 68.02
OBC: 74.75
SC: 59.25
ST: 47.82

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

polity-and-governance31 (31%)
geography26 (26%)
economy16 (16%)
science-and-technology13 (13%)
history10 (10%)
art-and-culture4 (4%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2023 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2023?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2023 was 75.41 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2023 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2023 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2023 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2023 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2022 All years Prelims 2024

UPSC Prelims 2023 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

Official cutoff — 2023

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

Other UPSC Prelims years