What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

The correct answer is A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. Here's a detailed explanation: Money Bills and Rajya Sabha's Power: The Rajya Sabha has limited power over Money Bills. It can only recommend amendments, but it cannot reject the Bill outright. Lok Sabha's Discretion: If the Rajya Sabha proposes amendments to a Money Bill, the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept them. It can either accept or reject the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. The Lok Sabha retains the final say. Why other options are incorrect: B) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further: This is incorrect. The Lok Sabha *can* consider the Bill further, even after Rajya Sabha amendments. C) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration: There's no provision for sending a Money Bill back to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration after it has been amended and returned. D) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill: A joint sitting is called for Bills where the two Houses disagree, but it's not automatically triggered by Rajya Sabha amendments to a Money Bill. The Lok Sabha has the power to override Rajya Sabha's recommendations. Therefore, the Lok Sabha has the ultimate authority to decide on the fate of a Money Bill, even if the Rajya Sabha proposes amendments.

The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration

The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: C) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post This is correct. The Constitution of India does not specify any formal procedure for the removal of a Governor. While the Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President (Article 156), this doesn't translate to a defined removal process like impeachment. The President can remove a Governor without stating any reason. Let's analyze why other options are incorrect: A) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time - This is incorrect. The President can appoint the same person as Governor for multiple states simultaneously. This practice has been followed in the past to address administrative convenience. B) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President - This is incorrect. High Court Judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. The Governor plays no direct role in their appointment. Supreme Court Judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the CJI and other senior judges. D) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support - This is incorrect. In UTs with legislative assemblies, the Lt. Governor appoints the Chief Minister who commands the majority in the assembly. However, this is done based on the election results and the support demonstrated by the elected representatives, not simply 'on the basis of majority support' as a continuous process.

In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time

The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President

No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post

In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

The correct answer is B) Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa. The Atlas Mountains are a major mountain range in North-Western Africa, extending through Morocco, Algeria, and Tunisia. Let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia - The Abyssinian Plateau (also known as the Ethiopian Highlands) is located in Ethiopia, which is in East Africa, not Arabia. C) Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa - The Guiana Highlands are located in South America, spanning across Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana, and parts of Brazil. D) Okavango Basin : Patagonia - The Okavango Basin is located in Southern Africa, primarily in Botswana. Patagonia is a region in South America, shared by Argentina and Chile. Therefore, only option B correctly matches a geographical feature with its location.

Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa

Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa

With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements: 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India. 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. The oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India are the Barabar Caves (3rd century BCE, Mauryan period), not the Badami caves, which date to the 6th century CE (Chalukyan period). Statement 2 is incorrect. The Barabar rock-cut caves were indeed made for Ajivikas, but they were commissioned by Emperor Ashoka (grandson of Chandragupta Maurya), not Chandragupta Maurya himself. Statement 3 is correct. The Ellora Caves complex includes rock-cut structures dedicated to three different faiths: Buddhism (caves 1-12), Hinduism (caves 13-29), and Jainism (caves 30-34), showcasing religious harmony. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. across different species of plants 2. from animals to plants 3. from microorganisms to higher organisms Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Recombinant DNA technology, also known as genetic engineering, is a powerful tool that allows scientists to cut DNA from one organism and insert it into another, regardless of the natural reproductive barriers. This technology is essentially species-agnostic. 1. across different species of plants: This is a common application. For example, genes for disease resistance or herbicide tolerance can be transferred from one plant species to another to create improved crop varieties. So, statement 1 is correct. 2. from animals to plants: Genetic engineering allows genes to be transferred across kingdoms. While less common in commercial agriculture than plant-to-plant or microorganism-to-plant transfers, the technology fundamentally allows for the transfer of animal genes into plants, for instance, to produce specific proteins or enhance nutritional value. So, statement 2 is correct. 3. from microorganisms to higher organisms: This is a very widespread application. A classic example is the transfer of the Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) gene from bacteria into crop plants (like Bt cotton or Bt corn) to confer insect resistance. Another example is using modified viruses (microorganisms) as vectors in gene therapy to introduce genes into human cells (higher organisms). So, statement 3 is correct. Since all three statements describe valid capabilities of recombinant DNA technology, the correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3.

The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery. 2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person. 3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Yuan Chwang himself recorded instances of being robbed during his travels in India, indicating that roads and river-routes were not "completely immune" from robbery. Statement 2 is correct. Yuan Chwang's accounts detail the use of ordeals by fire, water, poison, and weighing as methods to determine guilt or innocence in judicial proceedings. Statement 3 is correct. Yuan Chwang observed and recorded that tradesmen and merchants were required to pay duties and taxes at ferries and barrier stations, which was a common source of revenue for the state. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making option B the right answer.

Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 5. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The correct answer is C because Arsenic, Fluoride, and Uranium are well-documented and widespread pollutants found in drinking water in various parts of India. 1. Arsenic: Highly prevalent in groundwater, especially in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region (e.g., West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam), causing severe health issues. 2. Sorbitol: This is a sugar alcohol used as a sweetener and laxative. It is not a known or recognized pollutant in drinking water in India or globally. 3. Fluoride: A major pollutant, particularly in groundwater, leading to fluorosis in many states (e.g., Rajasthan, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana). 4. Formaldehyde: While formaldehyde can be a pollutant from industrial discharges or as a byproduct of water disinfection, it is not as widely recognized or prevalent as a major, widespread drinking water pollutant across "some parts of India" in the same manner as arsenic, fluoride, or uranium. 5. Uranium: Recent studies have confirmed significant uranium contamination in groundwater in several Indian states, including Punjab, Rajasthan, Haryana, and others. Therefore, Arsenic, Fluoride, and Uranium are the most accurate selections for widespread drinking water pollutants in India among the given options.

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

The correct answer is C) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. Here's a detailed breakdown: Correct Explanation: The Constituent Assembly members representing the provinces were indeed elected by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies (PLAs). This was a key feature of the process outlined in the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. Each PLA elected representatives proportional to its strength, using the single transferable vote system. Why other options are incorrect: A) directly elected by the people of those Provinces: This is incorrect. While there was a desire for direct election, the Cabinet Mission Plan opted for indirect election through PLAs due to time constraints and the complex political situation. B) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League: While the INC and Muslim League played a significant role in the formation of the Assembly, they did not *nominate* all provincial members. They nominated members from the Chief Commissioner's Provinces and Princely States. D) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters: This is incorrect. The selection wasn't based on expertise alone; it was a political process involving elected representatives from the PLAs. Understanding the Cabinet Mission Plan and the method of Constituent Assembly formation is crucial for this question.

directly elected by the people of those Provinces

nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League

elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies

selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why? 1. It occupies a linear rift valley. 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. 3. The land slopes to the west from Central India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The Narmada river flows westward, unlike most other large peninsular rivers, because: Statement 1 is correct. The Narmada occupies a linear rift valley (the Narmada-Son rift valley), which is a geological fault line running east to west. This rift valley provides a natural westward-sloping channel for the river. Statement 2 is incorrect as a reason for westward flow. While the Narmada does rise on the eastern side of the Amarkantak plateau, this alone does not explain why it flows west rather than east. Statement 3 is incorrect. The land does not uniformly slope westward from Central India. The westward flow is primarily due to the rift valley structure. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion (a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers (c) exists as groundwater (d) exists as soil moisture

On planet Earth, most freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers (about 68.7%). Of the remaining freshwater, groundwater constitutes the largest proportion at about 30.1% of total freshwater. This is followed by surface water in lakes, rivers, and swamps (about 0.3%), soil moisture, and atmospheric water vapor. Therefore, the largest proportion of remaining freshwater exists as groundwater.

is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds

is found in freshwater lakes and rivers

Consider the following pairs : 1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve: Garo Hills 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range 3. Namdapha National Park: Dafla Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

The question tests knowledge of geographical locations of important Biosphere Reserves and National Parks in India. Let's analyze each pair: 1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve: Garo Hills - Correct. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya. It is known for its rich biodiversity and the wild citrus (Citrus indica) gene pool. 2. Loktak Lake: Barail Range - Incorrect. Loktak Lake lies in the Central Manipur valley, surrounded by hills of the Manipur Hills (with the Loktak depression flanked by ranges like the Khoirentak and Thangjing hills). The Barail Range runs through southern Assam, Nagaland and Manipur, but the lake itself is not situated in/near the Barail Range. 3. Namdapha National Park: Dafla Hills - Incorrect. Namdapha National Park is located in the Patkai/Mishmi Hills of Changlang district in eastern Arunachal Pradesh, not in the Dafla (Nyishi) Hills, which lie in western Arunachal Pradesh. Therefore, only pair 1 is correctly matched. Why other options are incorrect: B) 2 and 3 only - Incorrect as both pairs 2 and 3 are wrongly matched. C) 1, 2 and 3 - Incorrect as pairs 2 and 3 are wrongly matched. D) None - Incorrect as pair 1 is correctly matched.

Consider the following : 1. Electromagnetic radiation 2. Geothermal energy 3. Gravitational force 4. Plate movements 5. Rotation of the earth 6. Revolution of the earth Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

Correct Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Dynamic changes on the Earth's surface are produced by both endogenic (internal) and exogenic (external) forces. All six factors listed contribute, directly or indirectly, to these changes: 1. Electromagnetic radiation - Solar radiation (a form of EM radiation) is the primary driver of weathering, evaporation, the hydrological cycle, atmospheric circulation and the resulting erosion/deposition that constantly reshape the surface. 2. Geothermal energy - The Earth's internal heat drives plate tectonics, volcanism, mountain building and earthquakes — the principal endogenic forces. 3. Gravitational force - Gravity drives mass movements (landslides, slumping), the flow of rivers and glaciers, and tidal forces that erode coasts; it underlies almost every gradational process. 4. Plate movements - Cause continental drift, orogeny, ocean-basin formation, earthquakes and volcanism, producing large-scale surface change. 5. Rotation of the earth - Generates the Coriolis effect, influencing wind systems, ocean currents and the diurnal cycle, all of which affect weathering and erosion. 6. Revolution of the earth - Produces the seasons, controlling temperature and precipitation regimes, glaciation cycles and biogeographic processes that shape the surface over time. Since every listed factor contributes to dynamic changes on the Earth's surface, option D is correct.

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3 The question asks which of the listed bodies are not mentioned in the Constitution of India. Let's analyze each: National Development Council (NDC): The NDC was established in 1952 by a resolution of the Government of India. It is not a constitutional body. Planning Commission: Similarly, the Planning Commission was established by a Government Resolution in 1950 and wasn't a constitutional body. It was replaced by NITI Aayog in 2014. Zonal Councils: Zonal Councils were established in 1956 under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which itself is a parliamentary act and not a constitutional provision. Therefore, Zonal Councils are also not mentioned in the Constitution. Since none of the bodies find mention in the Constitution, option D is the correct answer. Why other options are incorrect: A) 1 and 2 only: Incorrect because Zonal Councils are also not constitutional bodies. B) 2 only: Incorrect because both NDC and Zonal Councils are also not constitutional bodies. C) 1 and 3 only: Incorrect because the Planning Commission is also not a constitutional body.

The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third (b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land (c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom (d) writing off all peasant debts

The correct answer is (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third. The Tebhaga Movement, primarily active in Bengal during 1946-47, was a significant peasant uprising. 'Tebhaga' refers to the sharecropping system where peasants paid landlords two-thirds of the produce and retained one-third. The movement demanded a reduction of the landlords’ share to one-third, leaving the peasants with two-thirds. Why other options are incorrect: (b) While the ultimate goal of many peasant movements was land ownership, the immediate demand of Tebhaga was not ownership but a fairer share of the crop. (c) The movement didn't explicitly call for the complete uprooting of the Zamindari system, although it challenged its exploitative nature. It focused on the immediate issue of crop sharing. (d) Debt relief was a concern for peasants generally, but it wasn't the central demand of the Tebhaga Movement. Understanding the specific demands of each movement is crucial for answering such questions. The Tebhaga movement was unique in its focus on the crop-sharing ratio.

the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third

the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land

the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom

On the earth planet, most of the non-saline water exists as ice caps and glaciers. The largest part of the remaining non-saline water is found as

Correct Answer: C) Groundwater Let's break down why: Groundwater constitutes the largest reservoir of freshwater after ice caps and glaciers. Approximately 30.1% of the world's freshwater is found underground. This is a significant amount, crucial for sustaining ecosystems and human populations. A) Humidity and clouds in the atmosphere: While atmospheric water is vital for the water cycle, the *total volume* of water held in humidity and clouds is relatively small compared to groundwater. It's a transient reservoir. B) Non-saline water lakes and rivers: Lakes and rivers hold a substantial amount of freshwater, but their combined volume is significantly less than that of groundwater – only about 0.3% of the world’s freshwater. D) Soil moisture: Soil moisture is important for plant life, but the quantity of water stored in the soil is far less than groundwater. It's a very small percentage of the total non-saline water. Therefore, after ice caps and glaciers, groundwater is the largest remaining reservoir of non-saline water on Earth.

Humidity and clouds in the atmosphere

Non-saline water lakes and rivers

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

All three bodies - National Development Council, Planning Commission, and Zonal Councils - are extra-constitutional or statutory bodies and do not find direct mention in the Constitution of India. 1. National Development Council: It was established in 1952 by an executive resolution, not by the Constitution. 2. Planning Commission: It was established in 1950 by an executive resolution and was an extra-constitutional body. It has since been replaced by NITI Aayog. 3. Zonal Councils: These were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, which is an Act of Parliament, making them statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies. Since none of these bodies are mentioned in the Constitution, option D is correct.

What was the demand of the Bengal Trikati Kisan Andolan?

The Bengal Trikati Kisan Andolan (1938-1946) primarily focused on the grievances of the sharecroppers (bargardars) and landless labourers in Bengal. The core demand was a reduction in the exorbitant share demanded by zamindars. Initially, zamindars often took half of the crop, leaving the actual tillers with a meager share. The movement demanded this share be reduced to one-third. Option A is correct: This accurately reflects the primary demand of the movement. Option B is incorrect: While land ownership was a long-term aspiration for many peasants, the Trikati Kisan Andolan didn't initially focus on outright land ownership for all tillers. It was a more immediate demand for fairer sharecropping terms. Option C is incorrect: Abolishing the zamindari system was a later development in peasant movements, and not the initial demand of the Trikati Kisan Andolan. The movement aimed for reform *within* the zamindari system, not its complete dismantling at the outset. Option D is incorrect: Debt cancellation was a concern for peasants, but not the central demand of this specific movement.

To reduce the share of zamindars from half of the crop to one-third

To provide land ownership to the actual tillers of the land

To abolish the zamindari system and end agricultural slavery

To cancel all debts of the farmers

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

Correct Answer: D) without the consent of any State Article 253 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate for the implementation of any treaty or agreement with other countries or international organizations. This power is exercised even without the consent of the states. This is based on the principle that foreign affairs and international treaties are within the exclusive domain of the Union government. Let's analyze why other options are incorrect: A) with the consent of all the States: This is incorrect. Requiring unanimous consent would render the treaty implementation process impractical and vulnerable to obstruction by a single state. B) with the consent of the majority of States: Similar to option A, requiring a majority consent is not constitutionally mandated and would create unnecessary hurdles. C) with the consent of the States concerned: While states *may* be consulted, their consent is not a constitutional requirement for Parliament to enact laws implementing international treaties. The power rests solely with the Union. Key Constitutional Provision: Article 253 – Legislation for Implementing Treaties.

with the consent of all the States

with the consent of the majority of States

with the consent of the States concerned

without the consent of any State

In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

The correct answer is C) water limits and fire. Grasslands are maintained as grasslands due to a combination of factors that prevent tree establishment. These are primarily related to water availability and the frequency of fires. Water Limits: Grasslands often exist in regions with seasonal drought or where the water table is too deep for tree roots to access. This limits tree growth. Fire: Frequent fires, often started by lightning or human activity, kill tree seedlings before they can become established. Grasses, however, are adapted to survive fires due to their growth points being near the ground. Fire also recycles nutrients back into the soil, benefiting grasses. Let's examine why the other options are incorrect: A) insects and fungi: While insects and fungi play a role in ecosystems, they don't *prevent* trees from replacing grasses. They might affect individual trees, but aren't the primary reason grasslands persist. B) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients: Grasslands generally receive sufficient sunlight. While nutrient levels can vary, they aren't typically so low as to completely prevent tree growth, especially considering trees are more efficient at nutrient uptake. D) None of the above: As explained above, water limits and fire are the key factors.

limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

The correct answer is C) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans. Here's a detailed explanation: Mangroves are highly productive ecosystems due to high nutrient availability, sunlight, and decomposition rates. They support a rich biodiversity and have a high rate of primary production. Grasslands are also highly productive, though generally less so than mangroves. They have a significant amount of biomass production, supporting large grazing animals. Lakes have moderate productivity. Productivity varies depending on nutrient levels (oligotrophic vs. eutrophic), but generally, they are less productive than mangroves and grasslands. Oceans, despite their vast size, have relatively low productivity overall. While certain areas (upwelling zones) are highly productive, the average productivity across the entire ocean is the lowest among these options. This is due to factors like limited nutrient availability in many areas and light penetration. Let's analyze why other options are incorrect: A) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves - Incorrect because oceans are the least productive, and mangroves are the most. B) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes - Incorrect because oceans are generally less productive than grasslands. D) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands - Incorrect because oceans are the least productive and grasslands are more productive than lakes.

Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves

Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes

Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans

Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

Contour bunding is a soil conservation method used on sloping lands, not the areas described in the options. It involves constructing bunds (embankments) along the contour lines of the slope. These bunds reduce the velocity of runoff water, allowing it to infiltrate the soil and preventing soil erosion. Option A (desert margins): Windbreaks and shelterbelts are used for soil conservation in desert margins, not contour bunding. Option B (low flat plains): Drainage improvement and embankments are more suitable for flood-prone areas, not contour bunding. Option C (scrublands): While weed control is important in scrublands, contour bunding isn't the primary method for addressing that issue. Other methods like controlled burning or manual removal are preferred. Therefore, the correct answer is D) None of the above. Contour bunding is most effective on moderate slopes where rainfall is significant and erosion is a concern. It's a crucial technique in areas like the hilly regions of India.

desert margins, liable to strong wind action

low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding

scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

The correct answer is C) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas. The PESA Act, 1996, aims to empower Panchayats at the appropriate level, especially in Scheduled Areas, to enable them to function as institutions of self-governance. It does not aim to create fully autonomous regions. A) To provide self-governance: This is a core objective of PESA. It aims to promote self-rule through Gram Sabhas and Panchayats. B) To recognize traditional rights: PESA explicitly recognizes and protects the traditional rights of tribal communities, including their customary laws and practices. D) To free tribal people from exploitation: By empowering tribal communities and giving them control over their resources, PESA aims to reduce exploitation and promote their socio-economic development. PESA focuses on strengthening existing governance structures within the framework of the Constitution, rather than creating separate autonomous entities. The Act is about devolution of powers *to* Panchayats, not creating separate regions *from* the existing state structure.

To recognize traditional rights

To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

To free tribal people from exploitation

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

The correct answer is D) Gram Sabha. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, explicitly states that the Gram Sabha is the primary authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights. Why Gram Sabha? The Act emphasizes participatory forest management and recognizes the traditional rights of forest dwellers. The Gram Sabha, being the lowest tier of self-governance and representing the local community, is best positioned to identify and verify these rights. Why other options are incorrect: A) State Forest Department: The Forest Department plays a role in verification and implementation *after* the Gram Sabha initiates the process, but they do not initiate it. Their role is more regulatory. B) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner: The District Collector/Deputy Commissioner is involved in the overall administration and coordination, but the initial process starts at the Gram Sabha level. They are part of the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC). C) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer: These officials are involved in supporting the Gram Sabha and the SDLC, but they do not have the primary authority to initiate the process. Section 6(1) of the Act clearly mandates the Gram Sabha to play this crucial role.

District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer

Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by

Aflatoxins are a family of toxins produced by certain fungi, specifically moulds, that can contaminate food crops like cereal grains and oilseeds. These toxins are highly dangerous and can cause serious health problems, including liver cancer. Why Moulds (C) is correct: Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus are the primary moulds responsible for aflatoxin production. They thrive in warm, humid conditions and can infect crops before or after harvest. Why Bacteria (A) is incorrect: Bacteria generally produce different types of toxins, and aflatoxins are not bacterial in origin. Bacterial toxins often involve different mechanisms of production and are typically destroyed by cooking. Why Protozoa (B) is incorrect: Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms, and they do not produce aflatoxins. They are associated with diseases like malaria and amoebiasis, not mycotoxin contamination. Why Viruses (D) is incorrect: Viruses are infectious agents that replicate inside living cells. They do not produce aflatoxins; their pathogenic effects stem from cellular damage during replication. The question specifically mentions that aflatoxins are not destroyed by normal cooking, which is characteristic of mycotoxins – toxins produced by fungi that are heat-stable.

‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

Correct Answer: B) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy Explanation: 'Economic Justice' is explicitly mentioned as an objective in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. The Preamble declares the aim of establishing a socialist pattern of society, which inherently includes economic justice. Furthermore, the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), particularly Articles 38-49, are dedicated to establishing a welfare state and securing economic and social justice for all citizens. These principles guide the state in formulating policies to reduce inequalities in income, status, and opportunities. Why other options are incorrect: A) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights: While Fundamental Rights guarantee certain basic rights, they primarily focus on civil and political liberties. They don't directly address economic justice in a comprehensive manner. C) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy: As explained above, Fundamental Rights have limited direct bearing on economic justice. The core of economic justice lies within the DPSPs. D) None of the above: This is incorrect as both the Preamble and DPSPs are crucial in defining and pursuing economic justice.

the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights

the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy

Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? 1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonium Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The correct answer is B because Beryllium, Cadmium, Chromium, Mercury, and Lead are all hazardous heavy metals or their compounds commonly found in various components of electronic waste (e-waste). Analysis of each statement: 1. Beryllium: Used in connectors, switches, and some alloys in electronics. Correct. 2. Cadmium: Found in rechargeable batteries (NiCd), switches, and older CRT monitors. Correct. 3. Chromium: Used in steel alloys, corrosion protection, and some pigments in electronics. Hexavalent chromium is a particular concern. Correct. 4. Heptachlor: This is an organochlorine insecticide, not a component of computers or electronics. Incorrect. 5. Mercury: Used in switches, fluorescent lamps (e.g., backlights in older LCDs), and some batteries. Correct. 6. Lead: Historically a major component in solder, CRT glass, and some batteries. Correct. 7. Plutonium: A radioactive element associated with nuclear applications, not consumer electronics. Incorrect. Therefore, the substances released into the environment as e-waste from the given list are Beryllium, Cadmium, Chromium, Mercury, and Lead (1, 2, 3, 5, and 6). This matches option B.

Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

Acid rain is primarily caused by the release of sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere. These gases react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acids. These acids then fall to the earth as acid rain. Option A: carbon dioxide and nitrogen - While carbon dioxide contributes to climate change, it doesn't directly cause acid rain. Nitrogen, in its elemental form, is relatively inert. Option B: carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide - Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas, and carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas, but neither directly causes acid rain. Option C: ozone and carbon dioxide - Ozone is a component of smog and protects us from UV radiation. Carbon dioxide, as mentioned before, is a greenhouse gas. Option D: nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide - Nitrous oxide (N2O) is a nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide (SO2) are the primary pollutants responsible for acid rain. SO2 comes from burning fossil fuels containing sulfur, and NOx from high-temperature combustion processes. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements : 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. 2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species. 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: A) 1 only Let's break down each statement: Statement 1: A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. This is correct. A food chain depicts the linear sequence of organisms through which nutrients and energy pass as one organism eats another. Statement 2: Food chains are found within the populations of a species. This is incorrect. Food chains involve different species interacting through feeding relationships. A population consists of individuals of a single species. Food chains describe interactions between species. Statement 3: A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others. This is incorrect. While a food chain shows *who* eats *whom*, it doesn't necessarily illustrate the *quantities* or numbers of organisms consumed. Food webs, or ecological pyramids, are better suited to represent numerical relationships. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following pairs : National Park River flowing through the Park 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga 2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas 3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

The correct answer is (d) None. Let's break down why: Corbett National Park: This park is located in Uttarakhand and is traversed by the Ramganga River, not the Ganga. Kaziranga National Park: Situated in Assam, Kaziranga is famous for the Brahmaputra River flowing through it, not the Manas River. The Manas National Park is a separate park in Assam. Silent Valley National Park: Located in Kerala, Silent Valley is fed by rivers originating from the Nilgiri Hills, primarily the Kunnathipuzha, Meenmutty, and Bhavani rivers, not the Kaveri. Therefore, all the given pairs are incorrectly matched. This question tests precise factual knowledge of Indian geography and national parks.

Consider the following organisms : 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. Spirogyra Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?

The correct answer is B) 2 only (Nostoc). Nostoc is a cyanobacterium (blue-green algae) capable of nitrogen fixation. This means it converts atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, a form usable by plants. Therefore, it's widely used as a biofertilizer, particularly in rice paddies. Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms. While beneficial as a food source and in decomposition, it doesn't fix nitrogen and isn't used as a biofertilizer. Spirogyra is a filamentous green algae. It contributes to oxygen production through photosynthesis but doesn't fix nitrogen and isn't a biofertilizer. Therefore: Option A (1 and 2) is incorrect because Agaricus is not a biofertilizer. Option C (2 and 3) is incorrect because Spirogyra is not a biofertilizer. Option D (3 only) is incorrect because Spirogyra is not a biofertilizer.

Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil? 1. Excretion of urea by animals 2. Burning of coal by man 3. Death of vegetation Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Statement 1: Excretion of urea by animals. Urea contains nitrogen. When animals excrete urea, it is deposited in the soil. Soil microorganisms convert urea into ammonium and then nitrates, which are forms of nitrogen usable by plants. Thus, it adds nitrogen to the soil. This statement is correct. Statement 2: Burning of coal by man. Burning coal releases nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere, contributing to air pollution and acid rain. While these gases contain nitrogen, they are primarily released into the atmosphere and do not directly add usable nitrogen to the soil as a nutrient. Their deposition on soil is indirect and often harmful. This statement is incorrect in the context of adding nitrogen to the soil as a nutrient. Statement 3: Death of vegetation. When plants die, their organic matter, rich in nitrogen, decomposes. Decomposers break down this matter, releasing nitrogen compounds (like ammonia and ammonium) into the soil. This process, known as ammonification, is a crucial part of the nitrogen cycle and directly adds nitrogen to the soil. This statement is correct. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 correctly describe processes that add nitrogen to the soil.

In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat? 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala 3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) is an endangered primate species endemic to the Western Ghats mountain range in South India. 1. Tamil Nadu: The species is found in the Western Ghats regions of Tamil Nadu, particularly in areas like the Anamalai Hills and Kalakkad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. 2. Kerala: A significant population of lion-tailed macaques is found in the Western Ghats of Kerala, including Silent Valley National Park and Periyar Tiger Reserve. 3. Karnataka: The Western Ghats in Karnataka also host populations of this macaque, for instance, in Kudremukh National Park and Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary. 4. Andhra Pradesh: The natural habitat of the lion-tailed macaque is restricted to the Western Ghats. Andhra Pradesh is located to the east and is primarily associated with the Eastern Ghats, where this species is not found. Therefore, the lion-tailed macaque is found in its natural habitat in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka. The final answer is A because statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

The correct answer is (b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks. Let's break down why: Chaityas were prayer halls or sanctuaries, typically containing a stupa (a dome-shaped monument enshrining relics). They were designed for congregational worship. Viharas were monasteries, serving as living quarters for Buddhist monks. They included cells for individual monks, a common hall, and sometimes a courtyard. Now, let's examine why the other options are incorrect: (a) is incorrect because it reverses the roles of Chaitya and Vihara. (c) is partially correct in describing the stupa's location within a Chaitya, but it doesn't define the fundamental *purpose* of each. It's a descriptive detail, not the core difference. (d) is definitively incorrect; there *is* a material difference between the two. Understanding the functional difference – worship vs. residence – is key to answering this question.

(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks

(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks

(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it

(d) There is no material difference between the two

Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

The correct answer is A) The extinction of the flame of desire. Nirvana, in Buddhism, fundamentally represents the cessation of suffering. This suffering is rooted in tanha (desire, craving, attachment). Extinguishing this desire – the 'flame' – leads to liberation from the cycle of rebirth (samsara). Why other options are incorrect: B) The complete annihilation of self: While the concept of 'anatta' (no-self) is central to Buddhism, Nirvana isn't simply annihilation. It's the cessation of suffering *because* of the understanding of no-self, not the destruction of a pre-existing self. C) A state of bliss and rest: Nirvana is beyond simple descriptions of bliss or rest. While peace is a consequence, it's not the defining characteristic. It's a state beyond our conventional understanding of experience. D) A mental stage beyond all comprehension: While Nirvana is indeed difficult to comprehend with the ordinary mind, describing it as *completely* beyond comprehension is misleading. Buddhist teachings offer pathways and descriptions, even if ultimately ineffable. Understanding the core of Buddhist philosophy – the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path – is crucial to grasping the concept of Nirvana. The First Noble Truth identifies suffering, the Second identifies its cause (desire), the Third identifies its cessation (Nirvana), and the Fourth identifies the path to its cessation (the Eightfold Path).

(a) The extinction of the flame of desire

(b) The complete annihilation of self

(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

The correct answer is (c) Directive Principles of State Policy. While Fundamental Rights and Duties are crucial, the Constitution explicitly states that Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country, even if not legally enforceable. Article 37 of the Constitution states that these principles are 'not enforceable by any court' but 'shall be applicable to the making of laws'. They aim to create a welfare state. Why other options are incorrect: (a) Fundamental Rights: These are important, but they primarily protect citizens *from* the state. They don't, in themselves, define the overall governance framework. (b) Fundamental Duties: These were added later (42nd Amendment) and are meant to complement Fundamental Rights, but are not fundamental *for* governance in the same way as DPSP. (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties: While both are important components of the Constitution, they don't collectively define the fundamental basis of governance as comprehensively as the DPSP. The DPSP lay down the socio-economic objectives that the state should strive to achieve, guiding policy-making and legislation. They represent the positive obligations of the state towards its citizens.

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because

The correct answer is (c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission. The Simon Commission, officially known as the Indian Statutory Commission, was sent to India in 1928 to report on the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and to suggest reforms. The most significant reason for the widespread protests was that the Commission did not include a single Indian member. This was seen as a blatant disregard for the principle of self-determination and a symbol of British colonial arrogance. Why other options are incorrect: (a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919: This is incorrect. Indians *did* want a review, but they wanted Indians to be involved in the review process. (b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces: While the Commission *did* recommend abolishing Dyarchy, this wasn't the primary reason for the agitation. The lack of Indian representation was the core issue. (d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country: The Simon Commission did not directly suggest the partition of the country. The idea of partition gained momentum later, particularly with the Muslim League's demands and the Government of India Act 1935.

(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919

(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces

(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission

(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

Quit India Movement was launched in response to

The correct answer is (b) Cripps Proposals. The Quit India Movement of 1942 was a direct response to the failure of the Cripps Mission. Here's a breakdown: Cripps Proposals (1942): Sir Stafford Cripps was sent to India to negotiate with Indian leaders for their support in the Second World War. The proposals offered Dominion Status after the war and provisions for a constituent assembly, but they were rejected by the Congress due to several reasons: Offer of Dominion Status, not complete independence. Provision for the partition of India (the 'opt-out' clause). Insufficient transfer of power to Indian hands during the war. This rejection led to growing discontent and ultimately, Gandhi's call for 'Do or Die' on August 8, 1942, launching the Quit India Movement. Let's look at why the other options are incorrect: (a) Cabinet Mission Plan (1946): This came after the Quit India Movement and aimed to discuss the transfer of power to India. It wasn't a cause of the movement. (c) Simon Commission Report (1930): This report predates the Quit India Movement by over a decade and led to protests, but wasn't the immediate trigger. (d) Wavell Plan (1945): Like the Cabinet Mission Plan, this came after the Quit India Movement and was an attempt to find a solution for India's future.

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

The correct answer is A) (a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year. The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a statistical statement that summarizes all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period (usually a year). It includes not just the trade in goods (exports and imports), but also services, income (like remittances), and financial capital (investments). Why other options are incorrect: B) (b) goods exported from a country during a year: This only refers to the trade balance (exports minus imports), which is a *component* of the BoP, not the BoP itself. C) (c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another: While government transactions are *included* in the BoP, it's not limited to just government-to-government transactions. It encompasses all residents (individuals, businesses, and the government). D) (d) capital movements from one country to another: Capital movements are *part* of the BoP (specifically the capital and financial account), but the BoP is much broader than just capital flows. Therefore, option A is the most comprehensive and accurate definition of the Balance of Payments.

(a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year

(b) goods exported from a country during a year

(c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another

(d) capital movements from one country to another

The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of 1. liquidity of assets 2. branch expansion 3. merger of banks 4. winding-up of banks Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the primary regulator of commercial banks in India, exercising comprehensive control over their operations to ensure financial stability and protect depositors' interests. 1. liquidity of assets: The RBI mandates banks to maintain certain levels of liquidity through measures like the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), and monitors their asset-liability management. This is a core regulatory function. 2. branch expansion: Banks require prior approval from the RBI to open new branches, shift existing ones, or close them, as part of the RBI's efforts to ensure balanced banking development and financial inclusion. 3. merger of banks: Any merger, amalgamation, or reconstruction involving banks requires the explicit approval of the RBI, which assesses the financial health, systemic impact, and competitive implications of such proposals. 4. winding-up of banks: In cases of financial distress or insolvency, the RBI has powers under the Banking Regulation Act to oversee the winding-up process of banks, including liquidation, or to facilitate their amalgamation with other banks to safeguard depositors' funds. Since the RBI regulates commercial banks in all four mentioned aspects, option D is correct.

An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the

The correct answer is D) Central Bank is following a tight money policy. Here's a detailed explanation: Bank Rate: The Bank Rate is the rate of interest at which a central bank (like the Reserve Bank of India) lends money to commercial banks. Tight Money Policy: When the central bank increases the Bank Rate, it becomes more expensive for commercial banks to borrow money. This, in turn, leads to commercial banks increasing their lending rates to customers. Higher lending rates discourage borrowing and investment, thus reducing the money supply in the economy. This is known as a 'tight money policy' and is used to control inflation. Why other options are incorrect: A) market rate of interest is likely to fall: This is incorrect. An increase in the Bank Rate generally leads to an increase in market interest rates. B) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks: This is incorrect. The Bank Rate refers to the rate of lending, not the cessation of lending. The central bank continues to lend, but at a higher cost. C) Central Bank is following an easy money policy: This is the opposite of what happens when the Bank Rate is increased. An easy money policy involves lowering interest rates to encourage borrowing and investment.

market rate of interest is likely to fall

Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks

Central Bank is following an easy money policy

Central Bank is following a tight money policy

In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

Deficit financing refers to the practice of the government spending more money than it collects in revenue. This shortfall is covered by borrowing. Let's break down why the correct answer is A) economic development: Economic Development: The primary purpose of deficit financing in India (and most economies) is to fund developmental projects – infrastructure, social welfare schemes, healthcare, education, etc. When tax revenues are insufficient to meet these needs, the government borrows to bridge the gap and stimulate economic growth. B) Redemption of public debt: While borrowing *can* be used to refinance existing debt, it's not the primary *reason* for deficit financing. Redemption is a consequence of debt management, not the initial driver. C) Adjusting the balance of payments: Balance of payments issues are typically addressed through exchange rate policies, export promotion, and import substitution – not primarily through deficit financing. While borrowing can *temporarily* alleviate pressure, it doesn't solve the underlying structural issues. D) Reducing the foreign debt: Deficit financing, especially if it involves borrowing from foreign sources, actually *increases* foreign debt, rather than reducing it. Therefore, the most accurate answer is that deficit financing is used to raise resources for economic development.

adjusting the balance of payments

Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of Indus Civilization? 1. They possessed great palaces and temples. 2. They worshipped both male and female deities. 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Explanation: 1. They possessed great palaces and temples. This statement is incorrect. Archaeological evidence from Indus Valley Civilization sites does not suggest the existence of great palaces or monumental temples. The structures found were primarily residential, public baths (like the Great Bath), granaries, and assembly halls, but not dedicated palaces for rulers or large-scale temples for deities. 2. They worshipped both male and female deities. This statement is correct. Numerous terracotta figurines of women, often interpreted as Mother Goddesses, indicate the worship of a female deity associated with fertility. Additionally, a seal depicting a seated horned figure, often identified as 'Pashupati Mahadeva' (proto-Shiva), surrounded by animals, suggests the worship of a male deity. 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare. This statement is incorrect. While the wheel was known, there is no conclusive archaeological evidence to suggest the widespread use of horses or horse-drawn chariots for warfare in the Indus Valley Civilization. The presence of horses itself is debated and limited to certain later Harappan sites, and their use in chariots for warfare is not characteristic of the civilization. Based on the analysis, only statement 2 is correct. The final answer is B.

None of the statements given above is correct

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? 1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 3. HIV-AIDS Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Chikungunya is a mosquito-borne disease and is not transmitted through tattooing. Hepatitis B is a blood-borne virus that can be transmitted through contact with infected blood, including via unsterilized needles used in tattooing. HIV-AIDS is also a blood-borne virus that can be transmitted through contact with infected blood, such as through the sharing of unsterilized needles during tattooing. Therefore, Hepatitis B and HIV-AIDS can be transmitted through tattooing, making option B (2 and 3 only) the correct answer.

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine? 1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance. 2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul. 3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

All three statements are applicable to Jain doctrine. Statement 1: Jainism strongly emphasizes penance (tapasya) and asceticism as the primary means to burn off accumulated karma (nirjara) and prevent new karma from attaching to the soul (samvara), thus leading to liberation. Statement 2: Jain philosophy is characterized by its extreme animism, believing that souls (jivas) exist in all living beings, plants, water, air, fire, and even in what appear to be inanimate objects and the smallest particles. Statement 3: In Jainism, karma is understood as a subtle, material substance that adheres to the soul, binding it to the cycle of rebirth and suffering. The ultimate goal of Jain practice is to purify the soul by completely eradicating all karmic matter, thereby achieving moksha (liberation). Since all three statements accurately describe aspects of Jain doctrine, option D is the correct answer.

Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

The correct answer is Ecological Niche. Let's break down why: Ecological Niche: This term precisely describes an organism's 'role' or 'profession' in its community. It encompasses not just where an organism lives (its habitat), but also how it lives – what it eats, what eats it, its behavior, its reproductive strategies, its interactions with other species, and its impact on the environment. It's a multi-dimensional description. Habitat: This refers solely to the physical environment where an organism lives – its address. It doesn't describe what the organism *does* there. Ecotone: This is a transitional zone between two different ecological communities. While important, it doesn't define an organism's role. Home Range: This is the area a single animal uses regularly. It's about space used, not the organism's functional role within the community. Therefore, only the ecological niche captures both the physical space and the functional role of an organism.

Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among

Photochemical smog is a complex mixture of pollutants formed through the interaction of sunlight with certain primary pollutants. Here's a breakdown: Correct Answer (A): NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) in the presence of sunlight. This is the correct answer because these are the key components formed during photochemical reactions. NO2 absorbs sunlight and breaks down, releasing oxygen atoms that combine with O2 to form ozone (O3). PAN is a strong oxidant formed from the reaction of unburnt hydrocarbons with NOx in sunlight, and is a major contributor to the irritating effects of smog. Incorrect Option (B): CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight. While PAN is involved, CO doesn't directly participate in the *formation* of photochemical smog. CO is a pollutant, but not a primary reactant in the smog-forming process. Incorrect Option (C): CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature. Photochemical smog is formed by reactions initiated by sunlight (high energy), not at low temperatures. CO2 is a greenhouse gas but not a direct component of smog formation. Incorrect Option (D): high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening. Smog formation is highest during the day when sunlight is available. Concentrations may *persist* into the evening, but the formation process requires sunlight. Therefore, understanding the role of sunlight and the key reactants (NO2, O3, and PAN) is crucial to answering this question.

NO2, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature

high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening

Consider the following minerals: 1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Sodium Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?

Calcium is essential for muscle contraction as it binds to troponin, initiating the sliding filament mechanism. Sodium is crucial for nerve impulse transmission and the depolarization of muscle cells, which triggers contraction. Iron is required for the production of myoglobin, which stores oxygen in muscle cells, and for enzymes involved in energy production (ATP) necessary for muscle function and sustained contraction. Therefore, all three minerals are required for muscle contraction.

Consider the following statements : The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha 2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government 3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only. Let's break down why: Statement 1: Incorrect. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC) consists of 22 Members – 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. Statement 2: Correct. The PAC scrutinizes the appropriation accounts of the Government of India to ensure that money granted by Parliament has been spent for the purposes for which it was intended and with due authorization. It also examines finance accounts. Statement 3: Correct. A crucial function of the PAC is to examine the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). It calls for explanations from government officials regarding discrepancies or issues highlighted in the CAG reports. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Option A is incorrect because statement 1 is false. Option C is incorrect because it only includes statement 3. Option D is incorrect because statement 1 is false.

Consider the following Bhakti Saints : 1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

Correct Answer: B) 2 only Let's analyze each saint: Guru Nanak (1469-1539): He was born in 1469 and began preaching his message of unity and universal brotherhood during the reign of the Lodi dynasty. The Lodi dynasty fell in 1526 with the First Battle of Panipat, and Babur established the Mughal Empire. Therefore, Guru Nanak was actively preaching during this transition. Dadu Dayal (1540-1603): Dadu Dayal was born much later, in 1540, well after Babur had established Mughal rule. He was a prominent figure in the 16th and 17th centuries. Tyagaraja (1816-1876): Tyagaraja was a Carnatic music composer and a saint who lived in the 19th century, centuries after the Lodi dynasty and Babur. Therefore, only Guru Nanak was preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over. Why other options are incorrect: A) 1 and 3: Tyagaraja lived much later. C) 2 and 3: Tyagaraja lived much later. D) 1 and 2: Dadu Dayal lived after Babur's reign.

With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms? 1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Decomposer organisms break down dead organic matter, returning nutrients to the ecosystem. 1. Virus: Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites; they replicate within living cells and do not decompose dead organic material. So, viruses are not decomposers. 2. Fungi: Fungi are primary decomposers. They secrete enzymes to break down complex organic compounds in dead organisms and absorb the nutrients. 3. Bacteria: Many types of bacteria are also crucial decomposers, breaking down dead plants and animals and recycling nutrients. Therefore, only Fungi and Bacteria are known as decomposer organisms. The final answer is B) 2 and 3 only.

The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where

The correct answer is C) warm and cold oceanic currents meet. Here's a detailed explanation: Upwelling: The meeting of warm and cold currents creates zones of upwelling. Upwelling brings nutrient-rich water from the bottom of the ocean to the surface. Phytoplankton Bloom: These nutrients fuel the growth of phytoplankton, the base of the marine food chain. Abundant Fish Populations: Phytoplankton supports zooplankton, which in turn supports fish populations, making these areas highly productive fishing grounds. Examples: The Grand Banks of Newfoundland (meeting of Gulf Stream and Labrador Current), the North Sea (North Atlantic Drift and colder currents), and the coasts of Peru and Chile (Humboldt Current) are prime examples. Why other options are incorrect: A) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet: While atmospheric currents influence weather patterns, they don't directly create the nutrient-rich conditions necessary for abundant fish populations. B) rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea: River mouths can be locally productive, but the effect is limited compared to the large-scale upwelling caused by ocean currents. Excessive freshwater can also be detrimental to marine life. D) continental shelf is undulating: Undulating continental shelves can create varied habitats, but this is not the primary factor determining the most important fishing grounds globally.

warm and cold atmospheric currents meet

rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea

warm and cold oceanic currents meet

continental shelf is undulating

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UPSC Prelims 2013 Question Paper & Solutions

UPSC Prelims 2013 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Prelims 2013 solved paper

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General Studies — Paper 1

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Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?	polity-and-governance	A	View
2	Which one of the following statements is correct?	polity-and-governance	C	View
3	Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?	geography	B	View
4	With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements: 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surv…	art-and-culture	C	View
5	Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. across different species of plants 2. from animals to pla…	science-and-technology	D	View
6	The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this…	history	B	View
7	Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride 4. Formal…	geography	C	View
8	With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were	history	C	View
9	The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why? 1. It occupies a linear rift valley. 2.…	geography	A	View
10	On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion (a) is …	geography	C	View
11	Consider the following pairs : 1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve: Garo Hills 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range 3. Namdapha National Park: Da…	geography	A	View
12	Consider the following : 1. Electromagnetic radiation 2. Geothermal energy 3. Gravitational force 4. Plate movements 5. Rotation of the eart…	geography	D	View
13	Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zo…	polity-and-governance	D	View
14	The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to o…	history	A	View
15	On the earth planet, most of the non-saline water exists as ice caps and glaciers. The largest part of the remaining non-saline water is fou…	geography	C	View
16	Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zo…	polity-and-governance	D	View
17	What was the demand of the Bengal Trikati Kisan Andolan?	history	A	View
18	The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties	polity-and-governance	D	View
19	In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of	geography	C	View
20	Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?	geography	C	View
21	Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in	geography	D	View
22	The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its ob…	polity-and-governance	C	View
23	Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to ini…	polity-and-governance	D	View
24	Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally d…	science-and-technology	C	View
25	‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in	polity-and-governance	B	View
26	Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment a…	geography	B	View
27	Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by	geography	D	View
28	With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements : 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of o…	geography	A	View
29	Consider the following pairs : National Park River flowing through the Park 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga 2. Kaziranga National Park : Ma…	geography	D	View
30	Consider the following organisms : 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. Spirogyra Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?	science-and-technology	B	View
31	Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil? 1. Excretion of urea by animals 2. Burning of coal by man 3. Death of vegetation Selec…	geography	C	View
32	In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat? 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala 3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh…	geography	A	View
33	Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?	art-and-culture	B	View
34	Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?	art-and-culture	A	View
35	According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?	polity-and-governance	C	View
36	The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because	history	C	View
37	Quit India Movement was launched in response to	history	B	View
38	The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of	economy	A	View
39	The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of 1. liquidity of assets 2. branch expansion 3. merger of banks 4. wind…	economy	D	View
40	An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the	economy	D	View
41	In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for	economy	A	View
42	Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of Indus Civilization? 1. They possessed great palaces and temples. 2. They wor…	history	B	View
43	Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? 1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 3. HIV-AIDS S…	science-and-technology	B	View
44	Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine? 1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance. 2. Eve…	art-and-culture	D	View
45	Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the communit…	geography	B	View
46	Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among	geography	A	View
47	Consider the following minerals: 1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Sodium Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contra…	geography	D	View
48	Consider the following statements : The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha …	polity-and-governance	B	View
49	Consider the following Bhakti Saints : 1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty…	history	B	View
50	With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms? 1. …	geography	B	View
51	The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where	geography	C	View
52	Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests? 1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crown…	geography	D	View
53	Which of the following constitute Capital Account? 1. Foreign Loans 2. Foreign Direct Investment 3. Private Remittances 4. Portfolio Investm…	economy	B	View
54	Consider the following historical places: 1. Ajanta Caves 2. Lepakshi Temple 3. Sanchi Stupa Which of the above places is/are also known for…	art-and-culture	B	View
55	With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school : 1. Sankhya doe…	art-and-culture	B	View
56	In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 1. Members of the…	polity-and-governance	A	View
57	The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons? 1. T…	geography	A	View
58	Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal? 1. High ash content 2. Low sulphur content 3. Low ash fusio…	geography	A	View
59	Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct? 1. They are generally red in colour. 2. They are rich in ni…	geography	C	View
60	Consider the following statements : 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds. 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma. 3. Dharwars are famo…	geography	B	View
61	Consider the following crops : 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Wheat Which of these are Kharif crops?	geography	C	View
62	"Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders." The above statement best describes which of the followin…	geography	B	View
63	Consider the following statements : 1. Inflation benefits the debtors. 2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders. Which of the statements given…	economy	A	View
64	Disguised unemployment generally means	economy	C	View
65	Consider the following statements : 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Un…	polity-and-governance	B	View
66	Consider the following statements : 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. 2. The Economic and Social Plann…	polity-and-governance	B	View
67	Consider the following statements : 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While t…	polity-and-governance	B	View
68	With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements : 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent l…	polity-and-governance	C	View
69	During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky 1. 2. lightning that separates …	geography	D	View
70	Consider the following pairs : Tribe State 1. Limboo (Limbu): Sikkim 2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh 3. Dongaria Kondh: Odisha 4. Bonda : Tamil …	geography	A	View
71	Consider the following liquid assets: 1. Demand deposits with the banks 2. Time deposits with the banks 3. Savings deposits with the banks 4…	economy	D	View
72	In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to	economy	C	View
73	Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to	economy	D	View
74	Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?	economy	D	View
75	To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?	economy	A	View
76	In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called 'Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from an…	art-and-culture	A	View
77	Annie Besant was 1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement 2. the founder of the Theosophical Society 3. once the President of the …	history	C	View
78	The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the	history	C	View
79	A rise in general level of prices may be caused by	economy	D	View
80	Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?	economy	B	View
81	Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?	economy	D	View
82	Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be	economy	B	View
83	Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because	science-and-technology	C	View
84	Consider the following fauna of India : 1. Gharial 2. Leatherback turtle 3. Swamp deer Which of the above is/are endangered?	geography	A	View
85	Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because	science-and-technology	C	View
86	Consider the following phenomena : 1. Size of the sun at dusk 2. Colour of the sun at dawn 3. Moon being visible at dawn 4. Twinkle of stars…	geography	C	View
87	Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?	science-and-technology	D	View
88	Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because	geography	C	View
89	Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if	economy	C	View
90	Which of the following statements is/are correct?	science-and-technology	A	View
91	Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?	geography	D	View
92	The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. W…	science-and-technology	A	View
93	The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importa…	science-and-technology	A	View
94	Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to 1. resist drought and incr…	geography	D	View
95	Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission 3. Ministers …	polity-and-governance	B	View
96	The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the	economy	D	View
97	Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households? 1. Regional Rural Banks 2. National Bank for Agriculture a…	economy	C	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

67 / 67

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	Read the following passage and answer the two items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Passage Ec…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
2	What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors? 1. Preservation of biodiversity. 2. Management of mi…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
3	In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more gold coins are added to the collection and the rat…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
4	A gardener has 1000 plants: He wants to plant them in such a way that the number of rows and the number of columns remains the same. What is…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
5	A sum of Rs. 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
6	Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are male and 80 have a driver's license. What is the ratio between the minimum to maximum number of m…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
7	In a garrison, there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After 10 days, 1000 more soldiers joined the garrison. How long would the sol…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
8	The tank-full petrol in Arun's motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25% more everyday, how many days will the tank-full petrol …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
9	A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much time will he take to driv…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
10	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only The l…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
11	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only The l…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
12	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only The l…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
13	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only . The…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
14	Read the following passages and answer the items that follow passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only . The…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
15	Passage - 2 The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man's nature changes, his physical needs will always aris…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
16	Passage - 2 The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man's nature changes, his physical needs will always aris…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
17	If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25 - 34 equals 25% of all the Physics professors in that age group, then what is…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
18	Passage-1 The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years,…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
19	Passage-1 The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years,…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
20	Passage-2 Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness, being transparent wit…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
21	Passage-2 Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness, being transparent wit…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
22	Passage-3 Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child's food requirements…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
23	Passage-3 Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child's food requirements…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
24	Passage-4 A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk- (-2.5, -0.83) averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is als…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
25	Passage-4 A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk- (-2.5, -0.83) averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is als…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
26	Consider the following statements: I. A primary group is relatively smaller in size. II. Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primar…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
27	Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D get…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
28	Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. Sand R…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
29	Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. Sand R…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
30	Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. Sand R…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
31	Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. Sand R…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
32	A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament. For this 7 players are available: males A, B…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
33	A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament. For this 7 players are available: males A, B…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
34	A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for the forthcoming tournament. For this 7 players are available: males A, B…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
35	The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on "different aspects of the composition of a piece of music. Seven person…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
36	Five people A, B, C, D and E are, seated about a round table, Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs, I. C is seated next to…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
37	Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three items that follow: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
38	Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three items that follow: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football …	Logical Reasoning	A	View
39	Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three items that follow: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football …	Logical Reasoning	B	View
40	Geeta is older than her cousin Meena, Meena's brother Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
41	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Financial mark…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
42	Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Financial mark…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
43	YOUI' answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Passage Financial markets J n India have acquired greater depth and liquid…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
44	Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
45	There are five hobby clubs in a college viz, photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
46	A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, Sand T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different ci…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
47	Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
48	There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow balls. There are twic…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
49	Passage Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many diffe…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
50	Passage Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many diffe…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
51	In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
52	A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time req…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
53	A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
54	Passage - 1 Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. "An old man and a little boy borrowed it," he explained. "Th…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
55	Passage - 1 Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. "An old man and a little boy borrowed it," he explained. "Th…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
56	English Passage - 2 It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on t…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
57	English Passage - 2 It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on t…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
58	English Passage - 2 It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on t…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
59	English Passage - 3 A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traf…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
60	English Passage - 3 A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traf…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
61	English Passage - 3 A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traf…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
62	Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level …	Decision Making	A	View
63	While travelling in a Delhi-registered commercial taxi from Delhi to an adjacent city (another State), your taxi driver informs you that as …	Decision Making	C	View
64	A person lives in a far off village which is almost two hours by bus. The villager's neighbour is a very powerful landlord who is trying to …	Decision Making	C	View
65	There IS a shortage of sugar in your District where you are the District Magistrate. The Government has ordered that only a maximum amount o…	Decision Making	C	View
66	You are in-charge of implementing the Family Planning programme in an area where there is a strong opposition to the present policy. You wan…	Decision Making	A	View
67	You are a teacher in a University and are setting a question paper on a particular subject. One of your colleagues, whose son is preparing f…	Decision Making	B	View

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

Questions

geography35 (36%)
economy19 (20%)
polity-and-governance16 (16%)
science-and-technology10 (10%)
history10 (10%)
art-and-culture7 (7%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2013 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2013 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2013 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2013 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2013 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2013 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

Prelims 2012 All years Prelims 2014

UPSC Prelims 2013 solved paper

General Studies — Paper 1

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

Subject-wise weightage

Frequently asked questions

Other UPSC Prelims years