With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar? 1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection. 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Zamindars were not merely revenue collectors without other obligations. They often had military duties and responsibilities beyond revenue collection, including maintaining law and order and providing armed support when required. Statement 2 is incorrect. Land assignments to Jagirdars were generally not hereditary — they were transferable and could be reassigned by the emperor. In contrast, the revenue rights of Zamindars were typically hereditary. Since both statements are incorrect, the answer is D.

With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

The land reforms implemented in independent India had multiple objectives, but a primary and overarching goal was indeed to address the acute issue of landlessness and rural poverty by redistributing agricultural land. This included the abolition of zamindari and other intermediary systems, consolidation of landholdings, and the imposition of land ceilings. The aim of land ceilings, for instance, was to acquire surplus land from large landowners for distribution among landless labourers and marginal farmers, directly supporting the objective stated in option B. Option A is incorrect because ceiling laws were primarily aimed at limiting individual landholdings, although some later amendments might have considered family holdings. Option C is incorrect as land reforms aimed at equitable distribution and increased productivity, not specifically promoting cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation. Cultivation patterns are influenced by various economic and agricultural factors. Option D is incorrect because land reforms did include exemptions to ceiling limits for certain categories of land, such as plantations or specialized farms, which often diluted their effectiveness.

The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

The Global Competitiveness Report is an annual report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It assesses the competitiveness landscape of economies worldwide, providing insights into the drivers of productivity and prosperity. The report is widely used by governments, businesses, and civil society for policy-making and strategic planning.

United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813': 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China. 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company. 3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. The Charter Act of 1813 significantly curtailed the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India. It ended the Company's monopoly on trade with India, opening it to all British merchants, except for the trade in tea and trade with China, which remained the Company's exclusive domain for another 20 years. Statement 2 is correct. The Act explicitly asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company's territories in India. This was a crucial step towards direct British imperial rule and effectively underlined that the Company was a political agent of the Crown, not an independent sovereign entity. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the Act asserted the Crown's sovereignty, the revenues of India were not directly controlled by the British Parliament at this stage. The Company continued to administer the territories and collect revenues under the supervision of the Board of Control, which was set up by Pitt's India Act of 1784. Direct parliamentary control over Indian revenues came much later, particularly after the Government of India Act of 1858, following the Sepoy Mutiny.

With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements: 1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. 2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. The Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908), initiated in response to the Partition of Bengal, strongly advocated for the use of indigenous products and the boycott of foreign goods. This emphasis on 'Swadeshi' (of one's own country) goods directly stimulated and contributed to the revival and growth of indigenous artisan crafts, small-scale industries, and even larger industries like textiles and match factories, fostering economic self-reliance. Statement 2 is correct. As a part of the broader Swadeshi Movement, there was a significant push for 'National Education'. This led to the establishment of numerous national schools and colleges, aiming to provide education free from colonial influence. The National Council of Education was established in 1906 to organize and promote a system of education on national lines, with an emphasis on vernacular languages, technical education, and the country's history and culture. This was a direct outcome and integral part of the Swadeshi Movement's objectives.

Consider the following pairs: Movement/Organization Leader 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi 2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati 3. Self-Respect Movement : E. V. Ramaswami Naicker Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

All three pairs are correctly matched: 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League — Mahatma Gandhi: Correct. Gandhi founded this league in 1932 to campaign against untouchability. 2. All India Kisan Sabha — Swami Sahajanand Saraswati: Correct. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936 to address peasant grievances. 3. Self-Respect Movement — E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar): Correct. Periyar started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu to fight caste discrimination and Brahminical dominance. Therefore, all three pairs (1, 2 and 3) are correctly matched.

Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

Chanhudaro (A) is a significant archaeological site associated with the Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan period), located in Sindh, Pakistan. It is known for its bead-making industry. Kot Diji (B) is another important archaeological site in Sindh, Pakistan, with evidence of both pre-Harappan and Early Harappan cultures, showing continuity and evolution towards the mature Harappan phase. Sohgaura (C) is an archaeological site in Gorakhpur district, Uttar Pradesh, India. It is famous for the Sohgaura copper plate inscription, which belongs to the Mauryan period (3rd century BCE) and provides insights into administrative measures during a famine. It is not a Harappan site. Desalpur (D) is a Harappan site located in Kutch, Gujarat, India, known for its fortified settlement and pottery. Therefore, Sohgaura is not a Harappan site.

In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

The unique relief sculpture inscription featuring 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) along with a stone portrait of Ashoka was discovered at Kanganahalli, near Sannati in Karnataka. This discovery is highly significant because it provides the only known sculptural portrait of Emperor Ashoka with his name explicitly mentioned, confirming his physical representation during his reign. Other inscriptions mention Ashoka by his titles like 'Devanampriya Priyadasi', but Kanganahalli stands out for this explicit portrayal.

Consider the following: 1. Deification of the Buddha 2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas 3. Image worship and rituals Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?

Mahayana Buddhism, which emerged around the 1st century CE, introduced several distinct features compared to earlier forms of Buddhism (like Theravada, or Hinayana as it was sometimes referred to by Mahayanists). 1. Deification of the Buddha: In Mahayana, Buddha is revered as a divine being, a savior, and a god, rather than just an enlightened human teacher. This led to the development of elaborate worship rituals and temples dedicated to him. This statement is correct. 2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas: Mahayana emphasizes the Bodhisattva ideal. A Bodhisattva is an enlightened being who postpones their own nirvana to help all sentient beings achieve enlightenment out of compassion. This path is considered superior to individual liberation (Arhat ideal) in Mahayana. This statement is correct. 3. Image worship and rituals: Along with the deification of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas, Mahayana Buddhism incorporated extensive image worship (idols, stupas, etc.) and developed more complex rituals and ceremonies as part of its devotional practices. This statement is correct. Therefore, all three statements are features of Mahayana Buddhism.

With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

During the Gupta period, 'Vishti' referred to forced labour, a common practice where individuals, particularly the Shudras and various artisans, were compelled to work for the state without remuneration. This unpaid labour was indeed considered a significant source of income for the State, functioning as a form of tax or tribute extracted from the populace. It helped in the construction of public works, military activities, and other state needs, without requiring the state to expend its monetary resources. Option B is incorrect because forced labour (Vishti) was prevalent across various parts of the Gupta Empire, including regions like Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar. Option C is incorrect as the very definition of 'Vishti' implies unpaid labour; forced labourers were generally not entitled to weekly wages. Option D is incorrect; there is no historical evidence to suggest that only the eldest son was specifically designated for forced labour.

It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

The construction of elaborate 'Kalyana Mandapas' (ceremonial halls or marriage halls) became a distinctive and notable feature in the temple architecture during the period of the Vijayanagara Empire (14th to 16th centuries). These mandapas were typically highly ornate, with richly carved pillars and intricate sculptures, used for various religious ceremonies, including the symbolic marriage of the deity to the goddess. This architectural innovation reflects the grand scale and devotional fervor characteristic of Vijayanagara art and architecture.

Consider the following statements: 1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'. 2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution. 3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. In the revenue administration of the Delhi Sultanate, the 'Amil' (or Amalguzar) was a key official responsible for the collection of land revenue from a specific area or district. They played a crucial role in ensuring the state's income. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Iqta system was a land revenue assignment system introduced by the Delhi Sultans, notably Iltutmish, based on a Persian institution. It was not an ancient indigenous Indian institution; rather, it was a system imported and adapted by the Turkish rulers to manage their vast empire and pay their military and administrative officials. Statement 3 is incorrect. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' was a central military administrative post that came into prominence and was fully developed during the reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar, not during the Khalji Sultans of Delhi. Mir Bakshi was the head of the military department, responsible for intelligence, recruitment, and the payment of soldiers and mansabdars.

Consider the following statements: 1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar. 2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. Saint Nimbarka was a prominent philosopher and Vaishnavite saint who lived in the 13th century CE. He was the founder of the Dvaitadvaita (dualistic monism) school of thought. Emperor Akbar ruled in the 16th century (1556-1605 CE), approximately three centuries after Nimbarka. Thus, Nimbarka was not a contemporary of Akbar. Statement 2 is incorrect. Saint Kabir was a 15th-century mystic poet and saint, known for his syncretic philosophy that blended elements of Hinduism and Islam. He was a contemporary of Sikandar Lodi. Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was a prominent Naqshbandi Sufi saint and scholar who lived from 1564 to 1624 CE, primarily active during the late 16th and early 17th centuries, which means he lived much later than Kabir. Furthermore, Sirhindi was known for his orthodox revivalist views and for advocating for strict adherence to Islamic law, often opposing the syncretic trends encouraged by Akbar and prevalent in Sufism, which makes it highly improbable that Kabir was influenced by him. Their timelines and philosophies do not align for such influence.

With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'. 2. In 'Lord Chelmsford's War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War. 3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. Mahatma Gandhi played a crucial role in campaigning against the system of 'indentured labour' or 'girmitiya' system, especially after his experiences in South Africa, where Indian indentured labourers faced severe exploitation. His efforts, along with those of other Indian nationalists, contributed significantly to the eventual abolition of this system by the British Indian government in 1917. Statement 2 is incorrect. In 'Lord Chelmsford's War Conference' in 1918, Mahatma Gandhi, contrary to what the statement suggests, actually supported the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War I. He believed that by cooperating with the British war effort, Indians could secure greater political concessions or even Swaraj. He even earned the epithet 'recruiting sergeant' for his efforts. Statement 3 is correct. Following the breaking of the Salt Law during the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-34), which saw widespread participation and defiance against British rule, the Indian National Congress was indeed declared an illegal organization by the colonial government. Many leaders were arrested, and government tried to suppress the movement severely.

With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs: Person Position held 1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation 2. K. C. Neogy : Member, The Constituent Assembly 3. P. C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was a prominent Indian liberal politician, lawyer, and statesman. He was a key figure in the Indian Liberal Federation and indeed served as its President. He advocated for constitutional reforms and participated in the Round Table Conferences. Pair 2 is correctly matched. K. C. Neogy (Kartick Chandra Neogy) was a distinguished Indian politician. He was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, which was responsible for drafting the Indian Constitution. After independence, he also served as India's first Minister of Commerce. Pair 3 is correctly matched. P. C. Joshi (Puran Chand Joshi) was a significant figure in the Indian communist movement. He served as the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India (CPI) from 1935 to 1948, playing a crucial role in shaping the party's early policies and growth. All three pairs are correctly matched.

With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

The statement that 'Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar' is not correct. Tansen's original name was Ramtanu Pandey. The epithet 'Tansen', meaning 'The King of Melody', was already associated with him due to his exceptional musical talent, and he was known by this name even before he joined Emperor Akbar's court. Akbar recognized and honored his genius, but did not bestow the title 'Tansen' upon him. Other statements are correct: Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses: Tansen was a devout Hindu and composed many Dhrupads dedicated to various Hindu deities. Tansen composed songs on his patrons: He famously composed compositions in praise of Emperor Akbar, his primary patron. Tansen invented many Ragas: Tansen is credited with creating several new ragas and modifying existing ones, such as Miyan Ki Todi, Darbari Kanhra, Multani, and others, showcasing his innovative musical genius.

Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

Tansen composed songs on his patrons.

Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

While Mughal miniature painting flourished under various emperors, Emperor Jahangir's reign (1605-1627) is particularly noted for a distinct shift in artistic emphasis. Jahangir was a keen connoisseur and patron of art, and during his time, there was a pronounced move from elaborate illustrated manuscripts (which were more characteristic of Akbar's reign) towards individual portraiture, naturalistic studies of flora and fauna, and the development of royal albums. Jahangir encouraged artists to focus on realistic depiction and highly detailed work, reflecting his personal interest in observation and scientific accuracy.

Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

The Valley of Flowers National Park is located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, India, high in the Himalayas. It is renowned for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and is also home to rare and endangered animals. This national park is situated entirely within the temperate alpine zone, characterized by its high altitude, specific floral and faunal biodiversity, and cold climate. The other national parks listed are primarily located in different climatic zones: Manas National Park (Assam) is predominantly in the tropical and subtropical zones. Namdapha National Park (Arunachal Pradesh) spans a wide altitudinal range, from subtropical to temperate, but not exclusively alpine. Neora Valley National Park (West Bengal) is located in the Eastern Himalayas and features subtropical to temperate forests, not exclusively alpine. Therefore, the Valley of Flowers National Park is the correct answer.

Valley of Flowers National Park

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative launched by the Government of India to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country. It is set up under the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), which serves as the premier policy 'Think Tank' of the Government of India. AIM's objectives include creating Atal Tinkering Labs in schools, Atal Incubation Centres, and promoting innovation challenges.

Department of Science and Technology

Ministry of Labour and Employment

Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

On 21st June, the Sun

June 21st marks the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere. On this day: - The Sun shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degrees N), not the Tropic of Capricorn. - The Sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle, resulting in 24 hours of daylight (midnight sun phenomenon). - The Southern Hemisphere experiences its shortest day. The correct statement is that the Sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle.

does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?

This question pertains to the Columbian Exchange, which describes the widespread transfer of plants, animals, culture, human populations, technology, and ideas between the Americas (the 'New World') and the Old World (Europe, Africa, and Asia) in the 15th and 16th centuries. Among the options: Tobacco: Native to the Americas, it was introduced to Europe and then globally. Cocoa: Native to Mesoamerica and South America, it was brought to the Old World. Rubber: The rubber tree (Hevea brasiliensis) is native to the Amazon rainforest in South America, and its cultivation was later introduced to Southeast Asia and other parts of the Old World. Cotton: While some species are native to the New World, cultivated cotton also has ancient origins in the Old World (e.g., India, Africa). Coffee: Native to Africa (Ethiopia). Sugarcane: Native to Southeast Asia. Wheat: Native to the Fertile Crescent in the Old World. Therefore, the group 'Tobacco, cocoa and rubber' exclusively represents plants domesticated in the 'New World' and subsequently introduced to the 'Old World'.

Consider the following statements: 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. The Asiatic lion (Panthera leo leo) is naturally found only in India. The last remaining wild population of Asiatic lions exists exclusively in the Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat, India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Double-humped camel (Bactrian camel, Camelus bactrianus) is naturally found in Central Asia, including parts of Mongolia, China, and Kazakhstan, with a small wild population in the Gobi Desert. While there are domestic populations in India (e.g., Ladakh), it is not naturally found *only* in India. Statement 3 is incorrect. The One-horned rhinoceros (Indian rhinoceros, Rhinoceros unicornis) is naturally found in the grasslands and forests of India and Nepal. Significant populations exist in Assam (India) and the Terai region of Nepal, so it is not found *only* in India.

Consider the following pairs: Famous place River 1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga 2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery 3. Hampi : Malaprabha Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Pandharpur is a famous pilgrimage town in Maharashtra, situated on the banks of the Chandrabhaga River, which is a local name for the Bhima River as it takes a crescent-moon shape there. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Tiruchirappalli (also known as Trichy) is a major city in Tamil Nadu, located on the banks of the Cauvery River, one of the most important rivers in South India. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Hampi, the UNESCO World Heritage Site and former capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River, a major tributary of the Krishna River. The Malaprabha River is another tributary of the Krishna, flowing through Karnataka, but Hampi is specifically on the Tungabhadra.

In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

Official poverty lines in India are determined based on a minimum expenditure required to meet basic needs, including food and non-food items. Since the cost of living, reflected in the price levels of essential goods and services, varies significantly from one state to another, the poverty lines are adjusted accordingly. A certain basket of goods and services might cost more in one state compared to another, leading to different poverty thresholds to ensure that the minimum standard of living is consistent across states, despite varying prices. Option A (poverty rates vary) is an outcome, not the reason for varying poverty lines. Option C (Gross State Product varies) relates to economic output, not directly to the cost of meeting basic needs for poverty calculation. Option D (quality of public distribution varies) might influence actual poverty levels but is not the basis for setting different official poverty lines.

poverty rates vary from State to State

price levels vary from State to State

Gross State Product varies from State to State

quality of public distribution varies from State to State

In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

The techniques of 'cirrus cloud thinning' and 'injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere' are both prominent concepts within geoengineering or climate engineering. These are proposed large-scale interventions in the Earth's climate system designed to counteract global warming. Cirrus cloud thinning aims to reduce the radiative forcing (warming effect) of cirrus clouds by making them less opaque, thus allowing more heat to escape from Earth. Injecting sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere aims to mimic the cooling effect observed after large volcanic eruptions by reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space, thereby reducing the amount of solar energy absorbed by the Earth's surface and atmosphere. Both methods are explored as potential ways to mitigate the adverse effects of climate change and reduce global temperatures.

Creating the artificial rains in some regions

Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are advanced thermal treatment processes used to convert various types of waste materials (such as municipal solid waste, industrial waste, and biomass) into energy. Pyrolysis involves heating waste in the absence of oxygen to produce bio-oil, syngas, and char. Plasma gasification, on the other hand, uses extremely high temperatures generated by an electrically heated plasma torch to break down waste into a synthesis gas (syngas) and a vitrified inert slag. Both technologies are designed to minimize landfill waste and generate energy, aligning perfectly with waste-to-energy initiatives. Therefore, these terms are directly associated with waste-to-energy technologies.

Extraction of rare earth elements

Natural gas extraction technologies

Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR) is a significant ecological region located in the Western Ghats of South India, spanning across the states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It was designated as a UNESCO World Biosphere Reserve in 2016. The reserve encompasses several protected areas. The core and buffer zones of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve include the Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries in Kerala, and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu. This combination of protected areas makes up a vital biodiversity hotspot within the Western Ghats.

Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park

Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Consider the following statements: 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. This is correct. Many species of turtles, especially terrestrial tortoises (e.g., Aldabra giant tortoise) and some aquatic turtles (e.g., green sea turtle in its adult stage), are primarily herbivorous, feeding on plants, fruits, and algae. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. This is correct. There are numerous herbivorous fish species that graze on algae and aquatic plants, such as parrotfish (coral reef herbivores), certain carp species, and many aquarium fish. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. This is correct. Manatees and dugongs, often referred to as 'sea cows', are prominent examples of marine mammals that are strictly herbivorous, feeding on seagrass and other aquatic vegetation. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. This is correct. While many snakes are oviparous (egg-laying), a significant number of snake species are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young. Well-known examples include boa constrictors, anacondas, and most vipers. Since all the statements are factually correct, the correct answer is D.

Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Naturally found in 1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River 3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Let's evaluate each pair: 1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River: This pair is correctly matched. The Blue-finned Mahseer (Tor khudree), an endangered species of freshwater fish, is indeed found in the Cauvery River basin, particularly in its upstream stretches and tributaries. Conservation efforts often focus on its habitat in this region. 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River: This pair is incorrectly matched. Irrawaddy Dolphins (Orcaella brevirostris) are primarily found in coastal areas and large rivers in Southeast Asia, such as the Mekong, Irrawaddy, and Mahakam rivers, as well as some brackish waters. The Chambal River is known for being a habitat for the critically endangered Gharial and Gangetic Dolphins, not Irrawaddy Dolphins. 3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats: This pair is correctly matched. The Rusty-spotted Cat (Prionailurus rubiginosus) is one of the smallest wild cats in the world, found in parts of India and Sri Lanka. Its habitat in India includes deciduous forests and grasslands, and it is known to be found in various regions, including the Eastern Ghats. Therefore, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?

Microbeads are tiny plastic particles, typically less than 5 millimeters in size, found in various personal care products (like exfoliants, toothpaste, and cleansers) and industrial applications. When these products are used, microbeads are washed down drains and, due to their small size, often pass through wastewater treatment plants into rivers, lakes, and oceans. Once in aquatic environments, they become a significant source of plastic pollution. Marine animals, including fish, filter feeders, and birds, often mistake these plastic particles for food and ingest them. This ingestion can lead to physical harm (like blockages in digestive tracts), starvation, and exposure to toxic chemicals that the microbeads absorb from the water. Therefore, the primary concern about microbeads is their detrimental impact on marine ecosystems and the broader aquatic food web.

They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia), locally known as 'Allo' or 'Bhangra', is a perennial plant found predominantly in the Himalayan region. It has been traditionally recognized and utilized by indigenous communities for its strong and durable fibers. These fibers, extracted from the stem of the plant, are used to weave coarse fabrics, bags, ropes, and other textile products. There has been growing awareness about its potential as a sustainable source of natural textile fiber, promoting local craftsmanship and eco-friendly alternatives to synthetic materials.

For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Satellite images and remote sensing data are extensively used for various environmental and geographical monitoring purposes due to their ability to collect data from a distance across large areas. Let's examine each application: 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location: Correct. Satellite sensors measure the spectral reflectance of vegetation. Healthy vegetation with high chlorophyll content absorbs more red light and reflects more near-infrared light. Indices like the Normalized Difference Vegetation Index (NDVI) derived from satellite data are widely used to estimate chlorophyll content, vegetation health, and productivity. 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location: Correct. While direct measurement of all types of emissions can be complex, remote sensing can be used to identify and map the extent of rice paddies. Moreover, advanced satellite instruments are increasingly capable of directly measuring atmospheric concentrations of greenhouse gases like methane (a major emission from rice paddies) and CO2, allowing for estimations and monitoring of emission sources. 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location: Correct. Thermal infrared sensors on satellites detect the heat radiated from the Earth's surface. This data is used to derive Land Surface Temperature (LST), which is crucial for climate studies, urban heat island effect monitoring, agricultural applications, and understanding energy balance. Given the broad capabilities of remote sensing, all three applications are feasible and routinely carried out using satellite data.

Consider the following States: 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

To determine the correct ascending order of states based on their percentage of forest cover to total area, we refer to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) data, which is periodically released by the Forest Survey of India. Based on typical trends from recent ISFR reports (e.g., ISFR 2019, which would be relevant for such a question): Maharashtra: Generally has a forest cover percentage around 16-17%. Madhya Pradesh: Has a significantly higher forest cover, typically in the range of 25-26%. Odisha: Often boasts a forest cover percentage around 33-34%. Chhattisgarh: Is known for having one of the highest forest cover percentages among major states, often exceeding 41-42%. Therefore, the correct ascending order (from lowest to highest percentage of forest cover) is Maharashtra < Madhya Pradesh < Odisha < Chhattisgarh, which corresponds to option C (3-2-4-1).

Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Let's analyze each statement regarding 'methane hydrate': 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. Correct. Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid composed of methane and water, stable under high pressure and low temperature conditions. Rising ocean temperatures or thawing permafrost (due to global warming) can destabilize these deposits, leading to the release of large quantities of methane. Methane is a potent greenhouse gas, and its release could create a dangerous positive feedback loop for climate change. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. Correct. Significant methane hydrate deposits exist in two main geological settings: in deep-water continental margin sediments (under the seafloor) and within and beneath permafrost regions in the Arctic tundra. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Correct. Methane (CH4) has a relatively short atmospheric lifetime compared to carbon dioxide. It is oxidized in the atmosphere, primarily through reactions with hydroxyl radicals (OH), forming carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor over a period of approximately 9-12 years (often broadly stated as a decade or two). Although it eventually forms CO2, methane's short-term global warming potential is much higher than CO2. All three statements are correct.

Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

The burning of crop residue (stubble burning) and other forms of biomass is a major source of air pollution. Incomplete combustion of organic matter releases a complex mixture of gases and particulate matter into the atmosphere. All the listed substances are indeed released: 1. Carbon monoxide (CO): This is a product of incomplete combustion and is a highly toxic gas. 2. Methane (CH4): Another product of incomplete combustion and a potent greenhouse gas, released when biomass burns without sufficient oxygen. 3. Ozone (O3): While ozone itself is not directly emitted, its precursors, such as volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and nitrogen oxides (NOx), are released during biomass burning. These precursors then react in the presence of sunlight to form ground-level ozone, which is a harmful air pollutant. 4. Sulphur dioxide (SO2): Although biomass typically has lower sulfur content compared to fossil fuels, some amount of SO2 is still released during its combustion, depending on the specific composition of the biomass residue. In addition to these, particulate matter (PM2.5, PM10), carbon dioxide (CO2), and other harmful compounds are also released during crop/biomass residue burning.

Consider the following pairs: Sea Bordering country 1. Adriatic Sea : Albania 2. Black Sea : Croatia 3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan 4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco 5. Red Sea : Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Let's examine each pair for correct matching: 1. Adriatic Sea : Albania: Correct. Albania is a country located on the Balkan Peninsula, with a coastline along the Adriatic Sea. 2. Black Sea : Croatia: Incorrect. Croatia is located on the Adriatic Sea, not the Black Sea. Countries bordering the Black Sea include Russia, Ukraine, Romania, Bulgaria, Turkey, and Georgia. 3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan: Correct. Kazakhstan is one of the five littoral states (bordering countries) of the Caspian Sea, along with Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran, and Turkmenistan. 4. Mediterranean Sea : Morocco: Correct. Morocco is a North African country with a long coastline along the Mediterranean Sea to its north and the Atlantic Ocean to its west. 5. Red Sea : Syria: Incorrect. Syria has a coastline along the Mediterranean Sea, but it does not border the Red Sea. Countries bordering the Red Sea include Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti, Somalia (partially), Yemen, and Saudi Arabia. Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4.

Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

In the last five years and even looking at trends from a slightly longer period (relevant for UPSC exams), India has consistently held the position of the world's largest exporter of rice. Factors contributing to this include its large agricultural production, significant buffer stocks, and competitive pricing, which enable it to meet global demand. Despite being a major producer, China is a net importer of rice, while Vietnam is a significant exporter but typically behind India in terms of volume. Myanmar's exports are much smaller in comparison.

Consider the following pairs: Glacier River 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna 2. Bara Shigri : Chenab 3. Milam : Mandakini 4. Siachen : Nubra 5. Zemu : Manas Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Let's evaluate each pair of Glacier and River: 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna: Correct. The Bandarpunch glacier system, including the Yamunotri glacier, is the source of the Yamuna River in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. 2. Bara Shigri : Chenab: Correct. The Bara Shigri Glacier, located in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh, is the source of the Chenab River, one of the major rivers of the Indus system. 3. Milam : Mandakini: Incorrect. The Milam Glacier is located in the Kumaon Himalayas of Uttarakhand and is the source of the Goriganga River, a tributary of the Kali River. The Mandakini River originates from the Chorabari Glacier near Kedarnath. 4. Siachen : Nubra: Correct. The Siachen Glacier, located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, is the source of the Nubra River, which is a tributary of the Shyok River. 5. Zemu : Manas: Incorrect. The Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim and is the source of the Teesta River. The Manas River originates in southern Bhutan and flows into India in Arunachal Pradesh. Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 4.

In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all well-known chemical compounds that belong to the class of organophosphate and carbamate insecticides. They are highly toxic neurotoxins and have been widely used as pesticides in agriculture to control a variety of insect pests. Due to their high toxicity to humans, animals, and the environment, and concerns regarding their persistence and impact, their use has been a subject of considerable debate and regulation in many countries, including India. Therefore, the apprehension surrounding their use stems from their application as potent pesticides in agriculture.

preservatives in processed foods

moisturising agents in cosmetics

Consider the following statements: 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding the Ramsar Convention and Wetlands Rules: 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. Incorrect. The Ramsar Convention (Convention on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat) encourages contracting parties to designate suitable wetlands for the List of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar Sites) and to promote their wise use. It does not mandate the protection and conservation of *all* wetlands across the entire territory of a country, though it does promote the wise use concept for all wetlands within the territory. 2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. Correct. India, being a signatory to the Ramsar Convention, framed these rules to provide a legal framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands in the country, aligning with the convention's principles and guidelines. 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Correct. The 2010 Rules (and subsequent 2017 Rules) recognized that the ecological health of a wetland is intrinsically linked to its surrounding drainage or catchment area. Therefore, they sought to regulate activities not just within the wetland boundary but also in its catchment, acknowledging the hydrological connectivity and potential impacts from upstream/surrounding activities. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding emissions from agricultural and related activities: 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. Correct. The application of nitrogen-based fertilizers in agriculture, as well as natural microbial processes (nitrification and denitrification) in soil, lead to the emission of various nitrogen oxides, including nitrous oxide (N2O), which is a powerful greenhouse gas, and nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2), which contribute to air pollution. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. Correct. Livestock, particularly cattle, excrete large amounts of nitrogen in their urine and feces. Ammonia (NH3) is released through the volatilization of nitrogen compounds from manure and grazing lands. Ammonia contributes to air pollution, particulate matter formation, and acidification. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Correct. The poultry industry, especially large-scale operations, is a significant source of ammonia and other reactive nitrogen compounds. These emissions primarily come from the decomposition of uric acid in poultry litter (manure mixed with bedding material). High concentrations of reactive nitrogen compounds can lead to air quality issues and eutrophication of water bodies. All three statements are correct, highlighting the various ways in which agricultural practices contribute to nitrogen compound emissions and environmental pollution.

What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

Let's identify the nature of each place: Aliyar: Refers to the Aliyar Dam and Reservoir located in Pollachi taluk, Coimbatore district, Tamil Nadu. It is a significant multi-purpose project primarily for irrigation and power generation. Isapur: Refers to the Isapur Dam, also known as Vishnupuri Prakalp, located on the Godavari River in Nanded district, Maharashtra. It's a large irrigation project serving agricultural needs in the region. Kangsabati: Refers to the Kangsabati Dam and Reservoir, located in Bankura district, West Bengal, on the Kangsabati River. It is a major irrigation project providing water to vast agricultural lands. The commonality among Aliyar, Isapur, and Kangsabati is that all three are locations of significant water reservoirs or dam projects, primarily constructed for irrigation and water supply purposes.

Recently discovered uranium deposits

In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements: 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze the statements regarding hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as a fuel: 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. Incorrect. While H-CNG significantly *reduces* carbon monoxide (CO) emissions compared to pure CNG due to improved combustion, it does not *eliminate* them entirely. The term 'elimination' is generally too strong for most combustion technologies. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. Correct. The addition of hydrogen to CNG leads to more complete combustion of the fuel. This results in a reduction of unburnt hydrocarbons (HC) and also lower carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions per unit of energy, as hydrogen combustion produces only water, making the overall combustion cleaner. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. Correct. Research and pilot projects (including those in India) have successfully demonstrated that blending hydrogen up to 20% by volume (one-fifth) with CNG is technically feasible and provides environmental benefits without requiring major modifications to existing CNG engines or infrastructure. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Incorrect. Currently, hydrogen production, storage, and distribution are generally more expensive than those for natural gas (CNG). Therefore, H-CNG fuel, despite its environmental advantages, is typically more expensive than pure CNG. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

Dewdrops are not formed on cloudy nights because clouds act as a blanket, reflecting back the Earth's longwave radiation (heat) towards the surface. This prevents the ground from cooling sufficiently to reach the dew point temperature. Without adequate cooling, water vapour in the air near the ground does not condense into dew. On clear nights, the Earth's surface radiates heat freely into space, cooling rapidly and allowing dew to form.

Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.

Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. Incorrect. This provision was actually introduced by the 39th Amendment Act of 1975 (during the Emergency period) through Article 329A. However, this Article was struck down by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975). The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, enacted after the Emergency, aimed to reverse many of the restrictive changes made by the 42nd Amendment and did not introduce such a provision regarding the Prime Minister's election beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Correct. The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014, established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) to replace the collegium system for appointing judges to the higher judiciary. In October 2015, the Supreme Court of India declared both the 99th Amendment and the NJAC Act unconstitutional, holding that they violated the basic structure of the Constitution, specifically undermining the independence of the judiciary. Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding the impeachment of a Supreme Court Judge: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Incorrect. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which governs the procedure for impeachment, explicitly grants discretion to the Speaker (or Chairman of Rajya Sabha) to either admit or refuse to admit a motion for removal of a Judge. This power has been exercised in the past. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. Incorrect. Article 124(4) of the Constitution states that a Judge can be removed only on grounds of 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity'. However, the Constitution does not define these terms or provide their specific details. Their interpretation is generally left to parliamentary practice and judicial pronouncements. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. Correct. While Article 124(4) and (5) of the Constitution lay down the broad framework for removal, the detailed procedure, including the formation of an inquiry committee, investigation, and reporting, is elaborated in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, enacted by Parliament. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Correct. This describes the special majority required for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge, as stipulated by Article 124(4) of the Constitution. The motion must be passed by both Houses of Parliament with this specific majority. Therefore, statements 3 and 4 are correct.

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the First Amendment Act of 1951. This significant amendment was enacted during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. Its primary purpose was to protect laws, especially those related to land reforms and the abolition of the Zamindari system, from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. The Schedule initially contained 13 laws and aimed to facilitate socio-economic reforms without judicial obstruction.

Consider the following statements: 1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. 3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding the coal sector in India: 1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. Correct. The nationalization of coal mines in India occurred in two phases during Indira Gandhi's tenure as Prime Minister: the coking coal mines were nationalized in 1971-72, and the non-coking coal mines in 1973. This move aimed to ensure systematic development of coal resources and improve working conditions for miners. 2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. Incorrect. Following the Supreme Court's cancellation of coal block allocations in 2014 due to irregularities, the government reformed the allocation process. Coal blocks are now primarily allocated through a transparent auction process for commercial mining and specific end-uses, not on a lottery basis. 3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. Incorrect. While India is the world's second-largest producer of coal, it continues to import a significant amount of coal. This includes coking coal (essential for the steel industry, where domestic supply is limited in quality) and some thermal coal to bridge demand-supply gaps. Despite efforts to boost domestic production, India is not yet self-sufficient in coal and remains a net importer. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Let's analyze each statement regarding the 'Office of Profit': 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. Correct. This Act, passed by Parliament, specifies a list of offices that are explicitly exempted from being considered 'offices of profit' for the purpose of disqualification from holding membership in Parliament or state legislatures. This allows certain officials to hold specific positions without being disqualified. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. Correct. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 has been amended multiple times since its enactment to add or remove various offices from the exempted list, reflecting changing administrative needs and political considerations. While the exact count of 'five times' might be a simplification, the essence that it has been amended on several occasions is correct within the context of UPSC questions which often test the general trend or fact rather than precise counts. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Incorrect. The Constitution of India (Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a)) mentions that a person holding an 'office of profit' under the government is disqualified from being a Member of Parliament or State Legislature, respectively. However, the Constitution itself does not provide a precise definition of what constitutes an 'office of profit'. This term has largely been interpreted by the courts based on various factors, and Parliament has the power to declare by law which offices do not disqualify their holders. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are covered by the Sixth Schedule). A key provision under the Fifth Schedule is the power of the Governor to make regulations for the peace and good government of Scheduled Areas. These regulations can, among other things, prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes, or regulate the allotment of land to members of the Scheduled Tribes. This provision is crucial for protecting the land rights of tribal communities and preventing their exploitation. Therefore, any transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining in Scheduled Areas that violates these regulations can be declared null and void under the provisions enabled by the Fifth Schedule.

Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India : 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGS officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory: Correct. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are spread across 18 States and the UT of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 2. A separate ministry handles PVTG affairs: Correct. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs handles matters related to PVTGs. 3. There are 95 PVTGs: Incorrect. There are 75 PVTGs (as recognized by the Government of India), not 95. Also, Bhil is not classified as a PVTG — it is one of the largest tribal groups in India. 4. Irular tribe is found in Tamil Nadu: Correct. The Irular tribe is a PVTG found in Tamil Nadu. Therefore, statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper & Solutions

Q: Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2019 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2019 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

Q: What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2019?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2019 was 98.00 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

Q: How is the UPSC Prelims 2019 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Q: Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Q: Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2019 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2019 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Q: Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Q: Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the merit cutoff is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

Q: How do I practice UPSC Prelims 2019 questions in test mode?

Click any row in the answer key to open the full-solution page. Each question carries subject and topic tags so you can build subject-wise revision sets, and the test generator (linked from the header) can compose a timed mock from any year or subject.

UPSC Prelims 2019 solved question paper — GS Paper 1 and CSAT with full explanations, subject-wise breakdown, and the official cutoff.

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UPSC Civil Services preparation

Last updated 23 May 2026, 3:31 pm IST

UPSC Prelims 2019 solved paper

Every question from the official paper with the correct answer and a full explanation. Click any row to open the detailed solution.

General Studies — Paper 1

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar? 1. Jagirdars were holders of land assi…	history	D	View
2	With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?	economy	B	View
3	The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the	economy	C	View
4	Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813': 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except …	history	A	View
5	With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements: 1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts an…	history	C	View
6	Consider the following pairs: Movement/Organization Leader 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi 2. All India Kisan Sabha…	history	D	View
7	Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?	history	C	View
8	In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?	history	A	View
9	Consider the following: 1. Deification of the Buddha 2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas 3. Image worship and rituals Which of the above is…	art-and-culture	D	View
10	With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?	history	A	View
11	Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of	art-and-culture	D	View
12	Consider the following statements: 1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Am…	history	A	View
13	Consider the following statements: 1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar. 2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirh…	history	D	View
14	With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition…	history	B	View
15	With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs: Person Position held 1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All Ind…	history	D	View
16	With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?	art-and-culture	A	View
17	Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?	art-and-culture	C	View
18	Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?	geography	D	View
19	Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the	polity-and-governance	C	View
20	On 21st June, the Sun	geography	A	View
21	Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'?	geography	A	View
22	Consider the following statements: 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only…	geography	A	View
23	Consider the following pairs: Famous place River 1. Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga 2. Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery 3. Hampi : Malaprabha Which of th…	geography	A	View
24	In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because	economy	B	View
25	In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate…	geography	D	View
26	In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?	science-and-technology	D	View
27	Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?	geography	A	View
28	Consider the following statements: 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of mar…	geography	D	View
29	Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Naturally found in 1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River 2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River 3. Rus…	geography	C	View
30	Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment?	geography	A	View
31	Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is foun…	geography	D	View
32	For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegeta…	geography	D	View
33	Consider the following States: 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in t…	geography	C	View
34	Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methan…	geography	D	View
35	Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the…	geography	D	View
36	Consider the following pairs: Sea Bordering country 1. Adriatic Sea : Albania 2. Black Sea : Croatia 3. Caspian Sea : Kazakhstan 4. Mediterr…	geography	B	View
37	Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?	economy	B	View
38	Consider the following pairs: Glacier River 1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna 2. Bara Shigri : Chenab 3. Milam : Mandakini 4. Siachen : Nubra 5. Zemu …	geography	A	View
39	In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as	science-and-technology	A	View
40	Consider the following statements: 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserv…	geography	B	View
41	Consider the following statements: 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environmen…	geography	D	View
42	What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?	geography	D	View
43	In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statem…	science-and-technology	B	View
44	Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?	geography	B	View
45	Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prim…	polity-and-governance	B	View
46	Consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the L…	polity-and-governance	C	View
47	The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of	polity-and-governance	A	View
48	Consider the following statements: 1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 2. Now, coal blocks are a…	economy	A	View
49	Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification …	polity-and-governance	A	View
50	Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?	polity-and-governance	B	View
51	Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India : 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union …	polity-and-governance	C	View
52	With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions…	polity-and-governance	B	View
53	With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements : 1. The Governor makes a customary addres…	polity-and-governance	C	View
54	Consider the following statements: 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migr…	polity-and-governance	B	View
55	Consider the following statements: 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bam…	polity-and-governance	B	View
56	Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?	polity-and-governance	B	View
57	Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. …	science-and-technology	C	View
58	Consider the following statements : The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to 1. state the requirement of pub…	polity-and-governance	B	View
59	As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?	polity-and-governance	C	View
60	Consider the following statements : As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 1. if rules for fixed…	polity-and-governance	A	View
61	The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of	economy	B	View
62	With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: 1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to th…	polity-and-governance	A	View
63	Consider the following statements: 1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India's external debt is den…	economy	D	View
64	Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?	economy	B	View
65	In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The fo…	economy	B	View
66	Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure wi…	polity-and-governance	C	View
67	Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock mar…	economy	D	View
68	Consider the following statements : 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both Nati…	polity-and-governance	A	View
69	In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad H…	polity-and-governance	A	View
70	With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a …	economy	A	View
71	With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements: 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2…	polity-and-governance	A	View
72	What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?	economy	D	View
73	The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the	polity-and-governance	A	View
74	Consider the following statements : 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Governm…	polity-and-governance	B	View
75	With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over…	science-and-technology	D	View
76	Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? 1. Pregnant women are entitled for t…	polity-and-governance	C	View
77	Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'?	economy	A	View
78	In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?	economy	C	View
79	The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus	economy	C	View
80	In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?	economy	D	View
81	With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any …	polity-and-governance	D	View
82	Consider the following statements: 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket…	economy	A	View
83	With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements: 1. Area under rice cul…	geography	A	View
84	Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the l…	economy	D	View
85	In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?	polity-and-governance	D	View
86	Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?	economy	D	View
87	Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly kno…	economy	A	View
88	Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April …	polity-and-governance	C	View
89	Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with wh…	science-and-technology	B	View
90	The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?	economy	B	View
91	In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements: 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated envir…	science-and-technology	B	View
92	The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to	history	B	View
93	With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?	science-and-technology	A	View
94	Consider the following statements: A digital signature is 1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it 2. use…	science-and-technology	C	View
95	In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? 1. Location identification of a…	science-and-technology	D	View
96	'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.…	science-and-technology	A	View
97	Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this…	science-and-technology	B	View
98	Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 1. Genetic predispositio…	science-and-technology	B	View
99	What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?	science-and-technology	A	View
100	Which one of the following statements is not correct?	science-and-technology	B	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

80 / 80

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
2	A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two differ…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
3	A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
4	Mr 'X' has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursda…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
5	Consider the following Statements and Conclusions: Statements: 1. Some rats are cats. 2. Some cats are dogs. 3. No dog is a cow. Conclusions…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
6	The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
7	In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification numbe…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
8	When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometres was the runner …	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
9	Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset; but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
10	In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu's age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu's year of birt…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
11	Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three times a ball …	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
12	In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the followin…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
13	What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of 'Genetic Modification (GM)' technology is an 'Intellectual Property Rights'…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
14	Passage-1 What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of 'Genetic Modification (GM)' technology is an 'Intellectual Proper…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
15	Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor very harmful. Britain's invasive plants are not widespread, not spreading especial…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
16	Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe chemicals…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
17	The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are increasingly intoler…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
18	A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
19	India has banking correspondents, who help bring people in the hinterland into the banking fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot crimp on …	Reading Comprehension	B	View
20	A five-storeyed building with floors from I to V is painted using four different colours and only one colour is used to paint a floor. Consi…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
21	P, Q and R are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and …	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
22	All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first day, 80% went for shopping and 50% went for sightseeing, whereas 10…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
23	In a school, 60% students play cricket. A student who does not play cricket, plays football. Every football player has got a two-wheeler. Wh…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
24	The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs is	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
25	In an examination, A has scored 20 marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less marks than A, how much has B scored?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
26	Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3 days respectively. If on 1st January both of them went for a swim toge…	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
27	X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m and X giv…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
28	If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40, then which one of the following is always correct?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
29	Ena was born 4 years after her parents' marriage. Her mother is three years younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, who is 13 y…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
30	Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the retailer offered very good discount on that particular handset. Rak…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
31	The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40. It was found later that marks of one student were 53 which were misread as 83. The cor…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
32	Low- end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are cheap commodity items: addressing security would add to the cost. This class of items is proli…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
33	With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digit…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
34	With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digit…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
35	The rural poor across the world, including India, have contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
36	The rural poor across the world, including India, have contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
37	A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of governments (however reluctant) to deal with it, could have a big impact on investors' retur…	Reading Comprehension	C	View
38	Access to schooling for those coming of school age is close to universal, but access to quality exhibits a sharp gradient with socioeconomic…	Reading Comprehension	A	View
39	A majority of the TB infected in India are poor and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing and have little understanding of prevention.…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
40	If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
41	Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. L…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
42	In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many such 5s are there which are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followe…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
43	A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of D's father F. B and D …	Logical Reasoning	D	View
44	Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted?	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
45	How many triplets (x,y,z) satisfy the equation x + y + z = 6 , where x, y and z are natural numbers?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
46	If $ means 'divided by'; @ means 'multiplied by'; # means 'minus', then the value of 10#5@1$5 is	Logical Reasoning	D	View
47	An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided by 3. How many values of B are possible?	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
48	Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores t…	Logical Reasoning	C	View
49	Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores t…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
50	Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores t…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
51	Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following statements SI and S2 and answer the two items that follow: S1: Twice the weig…	Logical Reasoning	D	View
52	Read the following statements SI and S2 and answer the two items that follow: SI: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
53	India's economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
54	India's economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn …	Reading Comprehension	C	View
55	In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolate…	Reading Comprehension	D	View
56	In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolate…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
57	Temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five decades. …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
58	A research team examined a long-term owl roost. Owls prey on small mammals and the excreted remains of those meals that accumulated over the…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
59	Food varieties extinction is happening all over the world --- and it is happening fast. For example, of the 7,000 apple varieties that were …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
60	What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X ?	Logical Reasoning	C	View
61	A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours. The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on Monday. When the cloc…	Logical Reasoning	A	View
62	If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the resulting …	Quantitative Aptitude	A	View
63	What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X?	Logical Reasoning	B	View
64	In a group of 15 people; 7 can read French, 8 can read English while 3 of them can read neither of these two languages. The number of people…	Quantitative Aptitude	B	View
65	A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
66	Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement: c_accaa_aa_bc_b The letters that appear in the gaps are	Logical Reasoning	B	View
67	A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
68	Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations: Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many different ways can you pa…	Quantitative Aptitude	C	View
69	A' started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend 13' joined him. They together walked 10 m in the same direction. Th…	Logical Reasoning	B	View
70	Consider two statements S1 and S2 followed by a question: S1: p and q both are prime numbers. S2: p + q is an odd integer. Question: Is pq a…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
71	Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009 ?	Logical Reasoning	D	View
72	Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only…	Quantitative Aptitude	D	View
73	Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
74	Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
75	Education plays a great transformative role in life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities are the cu…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
76	Soil, in which nearly all our food grows, is a living resource that takes years to form. Yet it can vanish in minutes. Each year 75 billion …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
77	Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurabl…	Reading Comprehension	B	View
78	Climate change may actually benefit some plants by lengthening growing seasons and increasing carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of a warmer …	Reading Comprehension	A	View
79	A bat's .wings may look like sheets of skin. But underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as an orangutan or a human, as well as a wrist …	Reading Comprehension	D	View
80	Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had not fully opened and animals, perhaps including our primate ancestors, could walk from A…	Reading Comprehension	C	View

Official cutoff — 2019

The cutoff UPSC announced for that year.

Official UPSC Prelims 2019 GS Paper 1 cutoff (out of 200). CSAT qualifying threshold remained 66/200.

General: 98.00
EWS: 90.00
OBC: 95.34
SC: 82.00
ST: 77.34

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

polity-and-governance26 (26%)
geography22 (22%)
economy21 (21%)
science-and-technology15 (15%)
history12 (12%)
art-and-culture4 (4%)

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UPSC Prelims 2019 question paper?

Every question from the official UPSC Prelims 2019 GS Paper 1 and CSAT paper is reproduced above with the correct answer and a detailed explanation. UPSC also hosts scanned PDFs of all four sets on upsc.gov.in under the "Examinations" section.

What was the official cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2019?

The General category cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2019 was 98.00 marks out of 200 (GS Paper 1 only). The official cutoff strip above lists every category — EWS, OBC, SC, ST and PwBD subcategories.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2019 paper scored?

GS Paper 1 had 100 questions worth 2 marks each (200 total) with 0.66 negative marking. CSAT had 80 questions worth 2.5 marks each (200 total) with 0.83 negative marking. Only GS Paper 1 marks count towards the cutoff; CSAT had to be cleared at 33%.

Are Set A, B, C and D papers different?

No. UPSC distributes four shuffled versions with identical content but different question orders. Our archive shows the canonical order — the questions are the same regardless of which set you wrote.

Can I use the UPSC Prelims 2019 paper for current practice?

Yes. PYQ revision is one of the highest-yield activities for current aspirants. UPSC reuses themes and concepts every few years, so working through 2019 questions sharpens both content recall and the elimination strategy that UPSC's MCQ format rewards.

Were any answers in the UPSC official key for that year challenged?

UPSC accepts written objections to its provisional answer key during a fixed window each year. A small number of questions across most years are dropped or have answers changed in the final key — the version shown above reflects UPSC's final accepted answers.

Is CSAT counted in the Prelims cutoff?