Consider the following assertion : In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa. Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ? 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems Select the answer using the code given below :

Option D (3 only) is the correct answer. **Why Option D is correct:** The assertion refers to the geological theory that during the Pleistocene epoch, rivers such as the Yamuna and Sutlej shifted courses, altering the connections between the Indus and Ganges river systems. This is tied to the "Indo-Brahma" river theory proposed by geologists E.H. Pascoe and G.E. Pilgrim. A major biological basis for this assertion is the presence of freshwater river dolphins (*Platanista gangetica* and *Platanista minor*) in both the Ganga and Indus basins. Because these dolphins are strictly freshwater species unable to survive marine environments, their presence in two separate river systems indicates that the rivers must have shared a common drainage basin in the geological past before tectonic upheavals separated them. **Why the other statements are incorrect:** * **Statement 1 is incorrect:** The *Nadi-Sukta* (Hymn 10.75 of the Rigveda) is a historical text that catalogues rivers as known during the Vedic period (~1500 BCE, Holocene epoch). It is not a geological record of the Pleistocene epoch (which ended ~11,700 years ago) and provides no scientific evidence for prehistoric river shifts. * **Statement 2 is incorrect:** Robert Bruce Foote was a British geologist celebrated as the "Father of Indian Prehistory" for discovering the first Paleolithic handaxe at Pallavaram in 1863. The geological theories regarding the ancient shifting of the Sutlej and Yamuna were put forward by Pascoe and Pilgrim, not Foote. **Takeaway:** The geographic isolation of strictly freshwater species—like the blind river dolphins of the Indus and Ganges—serves as crucial biological evidence for mapping ancient, interconnected river systems separated by geological events.

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?

During the early aniconic phase of Buddhist art (approximately 2nd century BCE to 1st century CE), artists at prominent sites like Sanchi and Bharhut avoided depicting the Buddha in human (anthropomorphic) form. According to art historians and NCERT texts, sculptors conveyed his presence and life events through established hagiographical symbols. The **empty seat** (or vacant throne), frequently placed beneath a Bodhi tree or parasol, specifically represents the **meditation of the Buddha** and his subsequent attainment of enlightenment at Bodh Gaya. Here is why the other options are incorrect: * **Option B (The Buddha's First Sermon):** This monumental event at Sarnath, known as the *Dharmachakrapravartana* (turning the wheel of law), is iconographically represented by the **Dharmachakra (Wheel)**, not an empty seat. * **Option C (The Buddha's Mahaparinibbana):** The ultimate passing away of the Buddha is represented by the **Stupa**, which historically served as a reliquary mound containing his physical remains. * **Option D (The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana):** The "Great Departure" or renunciation, when Prince Siddhartha left his palace in search of ultimate truth, is represented by a **riderless horse** (his royal horse, Kanthaka), often shaded by a royal parasol. **Concluding Takeaway:** For UPSC Prelims, memorizing the symbols of the Buddha's life is crucial. Use this quick reference guide: * **Lotus and Bull:** Birth * **Riderless Horse:** Mahabhinishkramana (Great Departure) * **Empty Seat / Bodhi Tree:** Meditation and Enlightenment (Nirvana) * **Wheel (Dharmachakra):** First Sermon * **Stupa:** Mahaparinibbana (Death)

The Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Parushni : Ravi 4. Yavyavati : Beas Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option C (3 only)**, as only the third pair is correctly matched based on the geographical and historical records of Vedic texts, particularly the Rigveda. **Why the correct option is correct:** * **Pair 3 (Parushni : Ravi) is correct:** In ancient Vedic literature, the Ravi River was known as Parushni (and later as Iravati). It holds significant historical importance as the site of the legendary Battle of the Ten Kings (*Dasarajna*), documented in Mandala 7 of the Rigveda. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Pair 1 (Vitasta : Chenab) is incorrect:** Vitasta is the ancient Rigvedic name for the **Jhelum** River, not the Chenab. The Greeks later referred to the Jhelum as the Hydaspes, notably the site of Alexander the Great's battle against King Porus in 326 BCE. * **Pair 2 (Asikni : Jhelum) is incorrect:** Asikni, meaning "dark waters," is the ancient name for the **Chenab** River, not the Jhelum. It is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga streams in modern Himachal Pradesh. * **Pair 4 (Yavyavati : Beas) is incorrect:** The ancient name for the Beas River is **Vipasha** (or Vipas). Yavyavati is an entirely different ancient river mentioned in the Rigveda (RV 6.27.6), which modern scholars like Michael Witzel widely identify with the Zhob River in present-day Balochistan, Pakistan, or the Hariyupiya. **Takeaway / Mnemonic:** To remember the primary Sapta Sindhu river matches, use the mnemonic **V-J A-C P-R V-B S-S**: **V**itasta-**J**helum, **A**sikni-**C**henab, **P**arushni-**R**avi, **V**ipasha-**B**eas, and **S**hutudri-**S**utlej.

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley. 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size. 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B (1 and 3 only)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** The Amaravati Stupa, historically known as the *Mahachaitya*, is located in the lower Krishna valley in modern-day Andhra Pradesh (near Dharanikota). It served as a thriving Buddhist centre from the 3rd century BCE until the 14th century CE, reaching its architectural and artistic zenith under the patronage of the Satavahana and Ikshvaku dynasties. **Statement 3 is correct:** The Amaravati School of Art (also known as the Vengi school) had a profound and lasting impact on later South Indian art, laying the aesthetic foundations for later Pallava and Chola sculptures. Because of the region's active maritime trade networks across the Bay of Bengal, Amaravati's sculptural style—characterised by elegant, dynamic figures and intricate narrative reliefs carved in pale greenish-white limestone—spread widely. Its products and stylistic blueprints were carried to Sri Lanka (notably influencing the Anuradhapura sculptures) and various parts of Southeast Asia, where they served as regional prototypes for Buddha images. **Statement 2 is incorrect:** The Amaravati Stupa was not second in size to the Sanchi Stupa; it was actually larger. While the Great Stupa at Sanchi has a drum diameter of approximately 36.5 metres, the Amaravati Stupa was significantly more massive, boasting a base diameter of about 50 metres (approx. 162 feet) and a height of nearly 27 metres. It was the largest stupa in South India. **Takeaway:** When studying the Amaravati School, associate it with the lower Krishna valley, Satavahana/Ikshvaku patronage, its massive scale (surpassing Sanchi), distinctive white limestone, and its extensive overseas cultural footprint via ancient maritime routes.

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B** because only Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. During the Sangam Age (roughly 3rd century BCE to 3rd century CE), early historical Tamilakam was ruled by the *Muvendar*—the Chera, Chola, and Pandya dynasties. * **Pair 1 is correctly matched:** Senguttuvan (often called the "Red Chera") was the most prominent ruler of the **Chera** dynasty. Chronicled in the Tamil epic *Silappatikaram*, he is celebrated for his northern military expeditions and for establishing the *Pattini* cult (worship of the ideal wife, Kannagi). * **Pair 2 is NOT correctly matched:** Udiyanjeral (or Uthiyan Cheralathan) was a foundational king of the **Chera** dynasty, not the Chola dynasty. Ruling around the 2nd century CE, he is recognized as one of the earliest known Chera monarchs. Sangam literature famously credits him with the mythological feat of feeding the rival armies during the Kurukshetra war, earning him the title *Perunjoram Udiyan*. * **Pair 3 is correctly matched:** Nedunjeliyan was an illustrious king of the **Pandya** dynasty. Specifically, *Talaialanganathu Seruvenra Nedunjeliyan* (c. 3rd century CE) is historically celebrated for his decisive victory at the Battle of Talaiyalanganam, where he defeated a formidable confederacy of Cheras, Cholas, and several minor chieftains. **Takeaway:** A helpful way to study the Sangam trinity is by associating major kings with their dynastic emblems: the Cheras (Senguttuvan, Udiyanjeral) used the Bow and Arrow, the Cholas (e.g., Karikala) used the Tiger, and the Pandyas (e.g., Nedunjeliyan) used the Fish. Because Udiyanjeral belongs to the Chera lineage, Pair 2 is the only mismatch.

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ? 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose. 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours. 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B (1, 2 and 4)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** Subhas Chandra Bose ran for a second term as Congress President at the 1939 Tripuri session, defeating Pattabhi Sitaramayya. However, Mahatma Gandhi opposed this radical shift and famously declared Sitaramayya’s defeat as his own. Failing to win Gandhi's confidence, Bose was crippled by a deadlock, unable to form his Congress Working Committee. He resigned in April 1939 and subsequently founded the Forward Bloc. **Statement 2 is correct:** Bose intended to consolidate all anti-imperialist, radical, and left-wing factions. However, the Congress Left was severely disunited and failed to present a cohesive front to back him during his standoff with the moderate 'Old Guard'. **Statement 4 is correct:** The disunity peaked when Govind Ballabh Pant moved a resolution requiring Bose to nominate his Working Committee strictly according to Gandhi's wishes. Key left-wing entities, including Jayaprakash Narayan's Congress Socialist Party (CSP) and the followers of M.N. Roy, abstained from voting against this resolution. They prioritized the overarching unity of the Indian National Congress, fearing that supporting Bose would split the national movement. **Why Statement 3 is incorrect:** **Statement 3 is incorrect** because the Communists *did* support Bose in his initial endeavours. The Communist Party of India (CPI) actively voted for Bose during his 1939 presidential re-election. Furthermore, after Bose formed the Forward Bloc, the Communists collaborated with him by joining the Left Consolidation Committee (LCC) in June 1939 to unite left-wing elements, even though this alliance eventually fractured. **Takeaway:** During the 1939 Tripuri Crisis, Bose’s isolation was driven by Gandhi's opposition and the CSP/Royists prioritizing Congress unity. The Communists, conversely, were among the few factions that initially backed Bose’s radical block.

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 : 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts. 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders. 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

**Why Option A is correct:** Following the annexation of Awadh in 1856 by Lord Dalhousie, the British administration introduced the Summary Revenue Settlement of 1856. * **Statement 2 is correct:** The fundamental assumption of this British settlement was that the *taluqdars* (powerful landlords) were interlopers or outsiders who had seized control of the land through force and fraud, and therefore had no permanent stakes or rightful claims to the estates. * **Statement 3 is correct:** The British aimed to maximize state income by removing these intermediary *taluqdars* and taking land revenue directly from the actual cultivators or village communities. The administration believed that directly settling with the peasants would bypass oppressive middlemen and increase the East India Company's revenue. **Why Statement 1 is incorrect:** * **Statement 1 is incorrect:** The British were entirely unwilling to tolerate the dominance of the *taluqdars* or allow rival centers of power. Upon being dispossessed of their estates, the *taluqdars* were systematically stripped of their weapons, and their forts were completely razed or dismantled. They were absolutely not allowed to retain their arms or military strongholds. **Concluding Takeaway:** The aggressive dispossession of the *taluqdars* under the 1856 Summary Settlement destroyed Awadh's traditional social fabric. This socio-economic disruption alienated both the landed aristocracy and the peasantry, making Awadh one of the fiercest epicenters of the Revolt of 1857.

Consider the following assertion : The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ? 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates. 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger. 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option D (1, 2 and 3)**. The Government of India Act, 1919, based on the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, played a pivotal role in institutionalizing community-based political alliances in India. **Statement 1 is correct:** The Reforms not only retained the separate electorates initially introduced for Muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) but officially extended them to other minority communities, including Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This statutory backing fundamentally linked political representation to communal and religious identity. **Statement 2 is correct:** The British deployed the extension of separate electorates as a calculated "Divide and Rule" strategy. In the backdrop of the historic Hindu-Muslim unity achieved via the Lucknow Pact (1916) and the rising momentum of the Home Rule Movement, the colonial administration recognized the threat of a unified national front. By distributing political leverage along communal lines, they systematically sought to fracture Indian society and counter the growing strength of Indian nationalism. **Statement 3 is correct:** Observing that statutory favors and political power were now inextricably tied to communal identity, various deprived and marginalized classes began to organize politically to secure representation. For instance, the Justice Party actively mobilized non-Brahmins in the Madras Presidency to secure reserved seats under the new 1919 framework. Consequently, leaders of the Depressed Classes also recognized that rallying around community-based demands was the most viable mechanism to bargain for political rights and social upliftment. **Why other options are incorrect:** Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are incomplete. Each fails to acknowledge all three historically valid dimensions that fostered community-based political alliances under the 1919 legislative framework. **Key Takeaway:** The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919) deliberately deepened communal divides to protect British interests. You can remember the extension of separate electorates using the mnemonic **SAIE**: **S**ikhs, **A**nglo-Indians, **I**ndian Christians, and **E**uropeans.

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992), an eminent Hindustani classical vocalist from Dharwad, Karnataka, is most famously associated with the **Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana**. Therefore, **Option D is correct**. While Mansur received his initial training in Carnatic music and later learned the Gwalior style from Pandit Neelkanth Bua Alurmath, his musical identity was cemented when he became a disciple of Ustad Manji Khan and later Ustad Bhurji Khan. Both were sons of Ustad Alladiya Khan, the illustrious founder of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana. Pandit Mansur became a rare and distinguished male exponent of this gharana, mastering its complex, Dhrupad-based *Khayal* style and its repertoire of rare *ragas* (such as *Shuddh Nat* and *Hem Nat*). He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 1992 for his legendary contributions to Hindustani classical music. **Why the other options are incorrect:** - **Option A (Agra Gharana):** This gharana traces its roots back to Nayak Gopal and Haji Sujan Khan, and is characterized by its powerful, robust voice production and rhythmic play. Its most famous exponent was Ustad Faiyaz Khan, not Mansur. - **Option B (Gwalior Gharana):** Often considered the oldest *Khayal* gharana, founded by Natthan Peer Bakhsh and his grandsons. Although Mansur had early training in this style during his youth, he famously migrated to the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana, which he officially represented in his mature, celebrated career. - **Option C (Patiala Gharana):** Founded by Ali Baksh Khan and Fateh Ali Khan, this gharana is renowned for its emotional depth and intricate *taans*. It was most famously popularized by Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan. **Concluding Takeaway:** To remember his lineage, recall that Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was the definitive 'Jewel of Jaipur-Atrauli' from Karnataka, uniquely bringing the Alladiya Khan legacy to global prominence.

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate ?

The correct answer is **B) Atharvaveda**. **Why the correct option is correct:** The term *kshetra-patni* (translated as 'mistress of the field') originates in the **Atharvaveda** (e.g., AV 2.12.1). As the early Vedic people transitioned from a primarily pastoral, semi-nomadic lifestyle to settled agriculture during the Later Vedic period, the vocabulary surrounding land and its veneration expanded. The Atharvaveda, which heavily documents the folk-religious practices and daily life of the masses, introduces *Kshetra-patni* to denote the female guardian spirit or 'mistress' of agricultural land. This term reflects the period's growing emphasis on family possession of agrarian tracts and the evolution of localized feminine earth deities. **Why the incorrect options are incorrect:** * **A) Rigveda:** Incorrect. Although the Rigveda is the oldest Vedic text and explicitly venerates *Kshetrapati* (the masculine 'Lord of the Field') as a tutelary agricultural deity in hymns like RV 4.57, it does not contain the feminine counterpart *kshetra-patni*. * **C) Ashtadhyayi:** Incorrect. Authored by the scholar Panini (circa 500 BCE), the *Ashtadhyayi* is a foundational treatise on Sanskrit grammar and linguistics, not the chronological origin of this ancient Vedic agrarian term. * **D) Arthashastra:** Incorrect. Compiled by Kautilya (Chanakya) during the Mauryan era, this treatise on statecraft deals extensively with agriculture and crown lands (using terms like *Sitadhyaksha* for the Superintendent of Agriculture), but it was written many centuries after the compilation of the Atharvaveda. **Concluding Takeaway:** To track the evolution of Vedic agriculture, remember this distinction: the masculine deity *Kshetrapati* ("Lord of the Field") belongs to the older **Rigveda**, while the feminine *Kshetra-patni* ("Mistress of the Field") emerges in the later, more settled agrarian society of the **Atharvaveda**.

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

Raga **Dheera Shankarabharanam** (Option D) is the correct answer. In the 72 *Melakarta* (parent raga) system of Carnatic music, Dheera Shankarabharanam is the 29th raga. It is structurally equivalent to the **Bilawal Thaat** (and Raga Bilawal) in the Hindustani classical tradition. Both scales are heptatonic (*sampoorna*) and utilize all natural or pure notes (*Shuddha Svaras*) in their ascent and descent. The notes in Hindustani music are Shuddha Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, and Ni, which correspond in Carnatic nomenclature to Shadjam, Chatusruti Rishabham, Antara Gandharam, Shuddha Madhyamam, Panchamam, Chatusruti Dhaivatam, and Kakali Nishadam. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Nat Bhairavi:** This is the 20th Melakarta raga in the Carnatic system. Its Hindustani equivalent is the **Asavari Thaat**, not Bilawal, as it uses flat (*komal*) intervals for Ga, Dha, and Ni. * **Kamavardhini:** Also widely known as Pantuvarali, this is the 51st Melakarta raga. In Hindustani music, its scale structurally corresponds to the **Poorvi Thaat** and Raga Puriya Dhanashree. * **Hanumatodi:** Commonly referred to as Todi in Carnatic music, it is the 8th Melakarta raga. Despite its name, its Hindustani equivalent is the **Bhairavi Thaat**, whereas the Hindustani Todi actually equates to the Carnatic Shubhapantuvarali. **Takeaway:** For UPSC Art & Culture questions on classical music, memorize the foundational cross-tradition scales. A helpful mnemonic for the all-natural note scale is "BS": **B**ilawal (Hindustani) = **S**hankarabharanam (Carnatic). Other vital equivalents include Kalyan = Kalyani, Bhairav = Mayamalavagowla, and Kafi = Kharaharapriya.

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

The correct answer is **A**. **Why the correct option is correct:** The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, 1926) recommended an artificially high rupee-sterling exchange rate of 1s. 6d. (one shilling and sixpence) instead of the widely demanded 1s. 4d. The British Government adopted this overvalued peg primarily to ease the burden of the "Home Charges"—massive sterling obligations remitted to Britain that included interest on public debt, military expenses, and British officials' pensions. By artificially maintaining a stronger Rupee, the colonial government required fewer rupees to buy the sterling needed for these remittances. This prevented massive deficits in the colonial budget and guaranteed that the British Indian government could comfortably service its foreign debt, thereby maintaining its international creditworthiness. **Why the other options are wrong:** * **Option B is incorrect:** While an overvalued currency naturally cheapens imports, the British Government's primary macroeconomic motive for the peg was to secure its own fiscal budget and facilitate Home Charges, rather than to specifically support Indian importers. * **Option C is incorrect:** An artificially strong Rupee made Indian goods more expensive abroad, severely *discouraging* and hurting Indian exports like cotton. This provoked immense backlash from Indian nationalist leaders and industrialists, who argued it harmed domestic agriculture and industry. * **Option D is incorrect:** Although the Commission recommended a Gold Bullion Standard to provide general currency stability, the specific choice of the *artificially high fixed rate* (1s. 6d.) was intentionally selected to aid sterling remittances. **Concluding takeaway:** Remember the "Ratio Controversy" of the 1920s: The British enforced a high exchange rate (1s. 6d.) to easily extract Home Charges, while Indian nationalists fiercely demanded a lower rate (1s. 4d.) to protect Indian agricultural exports and domestic industries.

Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

Providing support to Indian importers

Encouraging export of cotton produce from India

Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Consider the following statements : I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika. II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver. The above statements have been associated with which of the following ? 1. Emergence of urban life 2. Transition to money economy Select the answer using the code given below :

Option C is the correct answer. The introduction of coinage during the 6th century BCE was a watershed moment in ancient Indian history, directly driving both the 'Second Urbanization' and the transition to a monetized economy. **Why Option C is correct:** During the era of the Mahajanapadas (c. 600–300 BCE), the Indian subcontinent saw a massive shift in its socio-economic fabric. 1. **Transition to a money economy:** Early Buddhist Pali texts provide the first definite literary references to metallic coins, using terms like *kahapana*, *nikkha*, *kamsa*, *masaka*, and *kakanika*. This shift from a pure barter system to a monetary economy facilitated long-distance trade, regularized taxation, and birthed new professions like usury (money-lending). 2. **Emergence of urban life:** This literary evidence is strongly corroborated by the archaeological discovery of punch-marked coins (mostly made of silver, occasionally copper) in regions like Magadha and eastern Uttar Pradesh. The widespread use of these metallic coins supported the growth of commercial market towns (*nigamas*) and massive fortified cities (*mahanagaras* like Rajagriha, Sravasti, and Kausambi), marking the Second Urbanization. Because the advent of punch-marked coins was fundamental to both urban expansion and monetary trade, both points 1 and 2 are correct associations. **Why the other options are wrong:** * **Option A (1 only) & Option B (2 only):** Both are incomplete. The advent of coins cannot be isolated to just urban life or just a money economy. The wealth generated by monetary trade is exactly what sustained the new urban centers, making both phenomena inseparable. * **Option D (Neither 1 nor 2):** Incorrect, as both are historically verified consequences of the introduction of coinage. **Takeaway:** Remember the 'Second Urbanization' (600 BCE) by associating early Buddhist Pali texts and silver Punch-marked coins with the rise of Prosperous cities and a monetized economy.

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B (2 and 3)**. **Why the correct options are correct:** * **Statement 2 is correct:** The Huchimalligudi Temple in Aihole, built during the Early Chalukya period (around the 7th–8th century CE), showcases vital early evolution in Hindu temple design. It features a fully developed curvilinear *Rekhanagara* (Nagara-style) shikhara over its main sanctum. * **Statement 3 is correct:** The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Uttar Pradesh) is an early 6th-century Gupta-era monument. Widely considered a precursor to the classic North Indian style, it is one of the earliest structural temples in northern India to possess a Nagara-style pyramidal shikhara (tower) atop its *panchayatana* layout. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Statement 1 is incorrect:** The Malegitti Shivalaya in Badami (built in the late 7th century CE) is a well-preserved example of early **Dravida** architecture. Instead of a curvilinear Nagara shikhara, it features a tiered *vimana* with an octagonal crowning roof structure typical of the southern style. * **Statement 4 is incorrect:** The Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal, commissioned in the 8th century CE by Queen Lokamahadevi, represents the zenith of the Chalukyan **Dravida** style. Heavily influenced by the Pallava Kailasanatha Temple at Kanchipuram, it possesses a multi-storeyed, stepped *vimana* rather than a Nagara shikhara. **Concluding Takeaway:** The Chalukyan heritage sites of Aihole and Pattadakal are famously known as "laboratories of temple architecture" because artisans simultaneously experimented with both the North Indian Nagara style (e.g., Huchimalligudi, Galaganatha) and the South Indian Dravida style (e.g., Virupaksha, Sangameshwara).

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

The correct answer is **B) Yaksha (demi-gods)**. In Jain philosophy and cosmology, the cycle of birth and death (samsara) is governed by a soul's karma, which dictates its rebirth into one of four distinct destinies or realms, known as **Gatis**. The four foundational forms of existence recognized in Jainism are: 1. **Deva Gati** (Heavenly or celestial beings) 2. **Manushya Gati** (Human beings) 3. **Tiryancha Gati** (Sub-human beings like animals, plants, and microorganisms) 4. **Nāraki Gati** (Infernal or hellish beings) **Option B is correct** because **Yaksha** is not one of the four main *Gatis*. While Yakshas and Yakshinis are highly venerated in Jainism as guardian deities (*Shasana Devatas*) who attend to the Tirthankaras, they are not an independent realm of existence. Instead, Jain texts classify them as a subset of celestial beings (*Vyantara Devas*) within the overarching *Deva Gati*. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A) Deva (gods):** This is explicitly one of the four *Gatis*, representing beings who reside in the upper celestial tiers due to past meritorious karma. * **C) Manushya (humans):** This is one of the four *Gatis*. It holds supreme importance in Jainism because it is the only state of existence from which a soul can practice asceticism and attain ultimate liberation (*Moksha*). * **D) Tiryancha (animals and plants):** This is one of the four *Gatis*, encompassing all flora and fauna, classified further by their number of senses (from single-sensed *ekendriyas* to five-sensed beings). **Takeaway:** A helpful way to remember the four forms of existence is through the **Jain Swastika**. Its four arms explicitly symbolize the four *Gatis* (Deva, Manushya, Nāraki, and Tiryancha), serving as a reminder of the endless cycle of rebirth that a soul must escape.

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

**Correct Answer: A** **Why Option A is correct:** The *Hallisalasya* painting is a renowned mural located in Cave No. 4 (commonly known as the *Rang Mahal* or Palace of Colours) of the Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh. Dating back to the 5th–6th century CE during the Gupta period, this mural masterfully depicts a joyous, rhythmic folk dance. It illustrates a group of women dancing in a ring and striking small wooden sticks together, closely resembling the modern-day *Dandiya* or *Garba*. The dynamic scene is accompanied by female musicians playing traditional instruments such as the *hudukka* (hand-drum) and *kamsyatalas* (cymbals). This artwork is celebrated for showcasing the vibrant, secular cultural life of ancient India alongside the spiritual ambiance of the Buddhist caves. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option B is incorrect:** Although the Bagh Caves are structurally Buddhist rock-cut *viharas* (monasteries), the *Hallisalasya* mural specifically represents a secular celebration, not the Buddha in meditation. Sculptures and depictions of the Buddha are found elsewhere in the cave complex (such as Cave 2). * **Option C is incorrect:** The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Mount Kailasha is a classic theme of Hindu rock-cut architecture. It is prominently found in the Rashtrakuta-era Ellora Caves (e.g., the Kailashanath Temple) and the Elephanta Caves, not the Bagh Caves. * **Option D is incorrect:** *Samudramanthan* (Churning of the Ocean) is a major episode from Hindu mythology. It is not the subject of *Hallisalasya*, a term that specifically denotes a group folk dance. **Concluding Takeaway:** To remember this, associate the **Bagh Caves' Cave 4 (*Rang Mahal*)** with colorful, secular themes. You can link the word "Hallisalasya" to "Ullas" (Sanskrit for joy or celebration), helping you easily recall it as a joyous folk dance akin to ancient Dandiya.

The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha

Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India : 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 - 596). 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India. 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

The correct answer is **Option D (1, 2, and 3)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** The Mankani plates (Sankheda-Mankani plates of Taralasvamin) from Gujarat, dating to the Kalachuri year 346 (594–596 CE), provide the earliest known epigraphic evidence for the use of the decimal place-value system in India. Standard historical consensus, supported by texts like A.L. Basham's *The Wonder That Was India*, cites this as a foundational milestone for Indian numerals. **Statement 2 is correct:** Although the place-value system and zero were conceptualized centuries earlier in literary and mathematical texts, their usage in stone epigraphs and copper-plate grants was initially sporadic. It was not until the 9th century CE that decimal place-value notation became a general, widespread feature in inscriptions across all of India (a famous example being the Gwalior inscription of 876 CE, which explicitly notes a symbol for zero). **Statement 3 is correct:** The Indian decimal place-value system spread rapidly through maritime and cultural exchanges. Sanskrit inscriptions found in Southeast Asia, notably the Sambor inscription (Cambodia) and Srivijaya records (Indonesia), demonstrate the use of this numerical system as early as the 7th century (specifically Saka year 605, or 683 CE). **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A** is incorrect because it misses Statement 3, ignoring the well-documented 7th-century Southeast Asian epigraphic evidence. * **Option B** is incorrect because it omits Statement 2, failing to recognize the 9th-century widespread domestic adoption. * **Option C** is incorrect because it excludes Statement 1, disregarding the foundational Mankani plates. **Concluding Takeaway:** Remember the timeline of the Indian decimal system in epigraphy: **6th Century** (Earliest domestic evidence, Mankani) → **7th Century** (Spread to Southeast Asia, Sambor) → **9th Century** (Universal standard across India).

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels. II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered. III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ? 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home. 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed. 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option A (1 and 2 only)**. **Why Option A is correct:** **Inference 1** logically follows Statement I. In Harappan towns, terracotta and faience spindle-whorls were ubiquitous household items used for textile production. Because the mechanical spinning wheel was invented centuries later, textiles were created using hand-held drop spindles. This confirms that spinning was a widespread, manual, and laborious domestic task. **Inference 2** correctly interprets Statement II. The Harappans developed a highly standardized metrology system, including chert cubical weights based on binary and decimal proportions. Furthermore, graduated linear scales—such as the ivory scale at Lothal and the shell scale at Mohenjo-Daro—demonstrate a sophisticated grasp of mathematics, trade standardization, and scientific knowledge. **Why Options B, C, and D are incorrect:** These options are incorrect because they either include Inference 3 or omit the correct inferences. **Inference 3** is fundamentally flawed. Statement III describes houses featuring *their own* private wells, individual bathing platforms, and spacious courtyards. These architectural markers strongly indicate a **private property system** accompanied by social stratification. A common property system relies on shared, communal resources, whereas these Harappan houses were designed for exclusivity, individual wealth, and privacy. **Concluding Takeaway:** Harappan artifacts reveal a society with advanced scientific standardization (weights and scales) and manual domestic industries (spindle-whorls), while their residential architecture highlights a distinct framework of private property rather than communal ownership.

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

**Correct Answer: C** **Why Option C is correct:** Option C accurately differentiates the core grievances of both agrarian movements. * **Bardoli Satyagraha (1928):** Led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat, this was a no-tax movement directly protesting the Bombay Presidency's unjust 22% **enhancement of land revenue**. The movement successfully pressured the government into launching the Maxwell-Broomfield Commission, which ultimately reduced the tax hike to 6.03%. * **Eka Movement (1921–1922):** Also known as the Unity Movement, this agrarian revolt erupted in the Awadh region of the United Provinces. Its primary grievance was the **excessive extraction of rents** by *taluqdars* (landlords) and *thekedars* (contractors). Rents were often exacted at 50% above the recorded rates, alongside the oppressive practice of *begar* (forced labour). **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A is incorrect:** While the Eka Movement was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders, it soon drifted out of their control when leadership passed to Madari Pasi, who did not strictly adhere to Gandhian non-violence. Conversely, the Bardoli Satyagraha was meticulously organized under Congress leadership from the start. * **Option B is incorrect:** The Eka Movement was a grassroots uprising *against* the exploitative *taluqdars* and zamindars, not led by them. The Bardoli Satyagraha was primarily a movement of land-owning peasant castes (such as Patidars) resisting government taxation, rather than an exclusive uprising of landless labourers. * **Option D is incorrect:** The Eka Movement was heavily concentrated in the Awadh districts of Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur, not Varanasi and Mirzapur. The Bardoli Satyagraha occurred in the Surat district of South Gujarat, not the Saurashtra region. **Concluding Takeaway:** To remember the core distinction, use the mnemonic **"BR-ER"**: **B**ardoli was a protest against **R**evenue (tax owed to the colonial state), while **E**ka was a protest against **R**ent (dues owed to local landlords).

The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface. II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ? 1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water. 2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle). 3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **C (1 and 3 only)**. **Why the correct option is correct:** The question requires identifying the information that provides evidence for well-irrigation (Statement I) and the use of draught animals to draw water (Statement II) during the Rigvedic period. * **Point 1 supports the claims:** The Rigveda explicitly mentions artificial well-irrigation. The texts refer to the *ashma-chakra* (a stone pulley wheel) and *ahava* (wooden pails or buckets) used to lift water from deep wells (*kupa*). This mechanical evidence directly substantiates Statement I, showing how early Vedic people accessed groundwater to expand agriculture across the Punjab and Haryana plains, away from river margins. * **Point 3 supports the claims:** The domestication and use of oxen as draught animals for ploughing fields and pulling carts predate the Rigveda (tracing back to the Indus Valley Civilization). This historical precedent strongly supports Statement II, confirming that draught-animal power was already harnessed by early societies and was logically applied to operate heavy stone pulleys (*ashma-chakra*) to draw well water. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Point 2 does not support the statements:** While it is factually correct that the Rigveda mentions implements like the *parashu* / *kulisha* (axe) and *datra* / *sreni* (sickle), these tools were utilized for clearing forests and harvesting crops, respectively. They offer no evidence regarding well-irrigation mechanisms or the lifting of water. * Because Point 2 is irrelevant to the specific statements provided, Options A and B are incorrect. Option D is incorrect because it excludes the vital mechanical evidence of the *ashma-chakra* mentioned in Point 1. **Concluding Takeaway:** For Vedic agriculture, memorize the specific functions of terminology: *ashma-chakra* (pulley) and *ahava* (pail) denote irrigation mechanisms, while *parashu* (axe) and *datra* (sickle) denote land clearance and crop harvesting.

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?

**Correct Answer: A** **Why Option A is correct:** Option A is correct because the Tungurahua Volcano is situated in the central Andean region of **Ecuador**. Known as the "Throat of Fire" in the local Quichua language, Tungurahua is a highly active stratovolcano. On April 10, 2025, the UNESCO Executive Council officially designated the Tungurahua Volcano as a Global Geopark. This prestigious status was awarded to recognize the area's extraordinary geological history—spanning over 417 million years—along with its dynamic glacial and volcanic activity, deep canyons, and robust sustainable eco-tourism efforts managed by local indigenous and rural communities. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option B (Peru) is incorrect:** Although Peru shares the Andes mountain range and the Pacific Ring of Fire (hosting renowned volcanoes like El Misti), Tungurahua is strictly located to its north, in Ecuador. * **Option C (Bolivia) is incorrect:** Bolivia is an Andean nation known for remarkable high-altitude geological formations such as the Salar de Uyuni, but it does not contain the Tungurahua Volcano. * **Option D (Colombia) is incorrect:** Colombia borders Ecuador to the north and features its own famous stratovolcanoes (such as Nevado del Ruiz and Galeras), but Tungurahua falls entirely within Ecuadorian provincial borders. **Concluding Takeaway:** To remember its location, you can associate the **"T"** in Tungurahua with the **"E"** in Ecuador, or simply remember that this specific "Throat of Fire" burns near the *Equator* (Ecuador). Tungurahua's 2025 UNESCO designation further solidifies Ecuador's reputation as a hotspot for global geological conservation.

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B (1 and 2)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** Madhav National Park, situated in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, was officially designated as India's 58th Tiger Reserve by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) on March 9, 2025. This declaration elevated it to the state's ninth tiger reserve. Although resident tigers had disappeared from the region by the late 1970s, successful reintroduction efforts that began in 2023 established a breeding population and facilitated its renewed status as a protected tiger landscape. **Statement 2 is correct:** Sakhya Sagar is an artificial lake created in 1918 on the Manier River, located entirely within the southern section of Madhav National Park. It acts as a critical wetland habitat supporting a large population of marsh crocodiles (muggers) and over 70 species of migratory waterbirds. Recognizing its ecological significance, Sakhya Sagar was officially designated as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention in July 2022. **Statement 3 is incorrect:** The park's area is not shared with Rajasthan. It is geographically located exclusively within the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, lying on the northern fringe of the Central Highlands. However, from a landscape perspective, it serves as a vital ecological corridor facilitating the movement of big cats between Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan and Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh. *Takeaway/Mnemonic:* To recall the prominent lakes inside Madhav National Park, remember the acronym **M-S**: **M**adhav Sagar and **S**akhya Sagar. Both are integral to the park's ecology, but only Sakhya Sagar holds the Ramsar tag.

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate. 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon. 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is Option B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect. **Statement 1 is correct:** Situated in the Bay of Bengal near the equator, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience a classic humid, tropical coastal (maritime) climate. The surrounding ocean moderates extreme temperature shifts, maintaining a consistently warm profile (ranging between 23°C and 32°C year-round) coupled with high mean relative humidity (typically hovering around 80%). **Statement 2 is correct:** Due to their strategic geographical location, the islands intercept both major monsoon systems of the Indian subcontinent. They receive robust rainfall from the South-West monsoon, which typically arrives in May and lasts until September. Subsequently, they also receive significant rainfall from the moisture-laden North-East monsoon winds between October and December. This dual-monsoon influence results in a high annual rainfall average of roughly 3,000 mm. **Statement 3 is incorrect:** The period between December and May does not record the maximum precipitation. In fact, the bulk of the islands' rainfall occurs from May to November. The window from late December through April constitutes the relatively dry season (serving as the peak tourist season) which receives minimal rainfall, with February traditionally being the driest month. **Takeaway:** A helpful way to remember the climate of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is to link its dual-monsoon exposure (South-West and North-East) to its heavy rainfall from May to November, leaving the December to May window as the dry, sunny season.

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ? 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B (1 and 2)**. Here is a detailed breakdown of the statements: **Statement 1 is correct:** The Peninsular Block is an ancient, rigid, and stable landmass, but it has experienced specific tectonic disruptions over its geological history. One major event was the subsidence and submergence of its western flank beneath the sea during the early Tertiary period. This tectonic activity led to the submergence of parts of the western coast (for example, the ancient city of Dwarka is believed to be part of this submerged coastline). This is also why the Western Coastal Plain is a submerged coastal plain, providing natural conditions for deep-water ports. **Statement 2 is correct:** The Peninsular Plateau is one of the oldest landmasses on Earth. Over millions of years of denudation and weathering, its once-lofty ranges have been worn down. Today, the block features highly eroded **relict or residual mountains**. Prominent examples cited in standard geographic literature (like the NCERTs) include the Aravali range, Nallamala hills, Javadi hills, **Veliconda hills**, Palkonda range, and the **Mahendragiri hills**. **Statement 3 is incorrect:** Deep, V-shaped valleys, rapids, and gorges carved by fast-flowing rivers are characteristic of **youthful rivers**, such as those in the active Himalayan drainage system. In contrast, the Peninsular Block features an older, mature drainage system. Because Peninsular rivers (like the Godavari, Krishna, and Mahanadi) have mostly reached their base level of erosion, they flow slowly through **broad, shallow, and largely graded valleys** with low gradients. **Key Takeaway:** For UPSC geography, easily differentiate the river systems by their age: Himalayan rivers are "youthful" (forming steep, fast, V-shaped valleys and gorges), whereas Peninsular rivers are "mature" (forming shallow, broad, U-shaped valleys with gentle gradients).

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India : I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I. 2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework. 3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation. Select the answer using the code given below :

**Correct Option: B (1 and 2)** **Why Option B is correct:** The Sagarmala Programme, approved in March 2015 by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways, is India's flagship initiative for port-led development. Statement I accurately outlines its foundational objective: minimizing logistics costs and fostering economic growth through modern coastal infrastructure. **Statement 1 is correct** because Statement II directly validates the strategy described in Statement I. The push for coastal infrastructure has yielded quantifiable results. For instance, according to the World Bank's Container Port Performance Index (CPPI) 2023, nine Indian ports (including Visakhapatnam) ranked in the Global Top 100. Additionally, inland waterway cargo movement surged by nearly 700% (from 18.1 MTPA in 2013-14 to over 145 MTPA by FY 2024-25), proving that the initial infrastructure strategies effectively boosted maritime trade. **Statement 2 is correct** because Sagarmala 2.0 explicitly extends these foundational goals. While the first phase focused on physical capacity building, Sagarmala 2.0 embeds these goals into a future-oriented framework aligned with the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. It focuses on green ports, advanced shipbuilding, and maritime startups, aligning with the national visions of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 to make India a global maritime innovation hub. **Why the other statements are incorrect:** **Statement 3 is incorrect** because Statement I and Statement III are complementary, not contradictory. The traditional infrastructure developed under the original programme serves as the necessary physical foundation for the technological innovations introduced in Sagarmala 2.0. **Takeaway:** Think of the programme's evolution as building a house: **Sagarmala 1.0** built the physical foundation (Ports & Connectivity), while **Sagarmala 2.0** upgrades it with smart technology (Innovation & Global Integration for Viksit Bharat 2047).

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) : 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

The correct answer is **Option B (1 and 3)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** *Rhynchostylis retusa*, commonly known as the Foxtail Orchid, is an epiphytic orchid belonging to the Vanda alliance. Epiphytic plants grow on the surface of other plants (such as tree trunks) for physical support. They do not grow in soil, but instead derive moisture and nutrients from the air, rain, and accumulated organic debris. **Statement 2 is incorrect:** A species is "endemic" when it is native and exclusively restricted to a single geographical location. The Foxtail Orchid is not endemic to North-east India. It boasts a wide geographical distribution across tropical Asia and is naturally found in countries like Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, China, Myanmar, Malaysia, Thailand, and the Philippines. Within India, it is found not only in the Northeast but also in states like Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. **Statement 3 is correct:** *Rhynchostylis retusa* is officially recognised as the State flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Locally known as *Kopou Phool* in Assam, it holds immense cultural significance and forms an integral part of a female dancer's hair attire during the traditional Bohag Bihu festival. It is widely regarded as a symbol of love, joy, and fertility. **Takeaway:** Remember the "Two A's" for the Foxtail Orchid—it is the state flower of **A**ssam and **A**runachal Pradesh. While it is culturally vital to North-east India, its widespread presence across tropical Asia means it is not endemic to the region.

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ? 1. They acted as army fortresses. 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles. 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles. Select the answer using the code given below :

**Correct Answer: C** **Why the correct option is correct:** The **Moidams** (or Maidams) are the traditional mound-burial systems of the Tai-Ahom dynasty, primarily located at Charaideo, Assam. Often compared to the pyramids of ancient Egypt, these architectural monuments served as the **burial grounds of the Ahom Royals and Nobles** between the 13th and 19th centuries CE. A typical Moidam consists of an underground vaulted chamber where deceased royals were laid to rest with their belongings, topped by a hemispherical earthen mound and a pavilion. On July 26, 2024, during the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee in New Delhi, the "Moidams – the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty" was inscribed as a **UNESCO World Heritage Site**. It is India's 43rd UNESCO site and the very first cultural site from the Northeast. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Statement 1 (Army fortresses):** Incorrect. Moidams were strictly sacred funerary monuments. They were never used as military defenses or army fortresses. * **Statement 2 (Recreation centres):** Incorrect. They were solemn necropolises integral to the Ahom tradition of ancestor worship (*Me-Dam-Me-Phi*), not sites of royal leisure or recreation. * **Statement 4 (Battle drill centres):** Incorrect. They were created to house the remains of kings and afterlife provisions, rather than functioning as battle drill centres for military training. **Concluding Takeaway:** The term *Moidam* is derived from the Tai-Ahom word *Phrang-Mai-Dam*, where *Phrang-Mai* means "to bury" and *Dam* translates to "ancestral spirit". For the exam, remember Moidams simply as the **"Homes for the Spirit"** of the Ahom dynasty.

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation". Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?

**Why Option B is correct:** The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) adopted its Strategic Framework 2022–2031 (endorsed in June 2021) to support the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The core organizing principle of this global framework is the **"Four Betters"**: **Better Production, Better Nutrition, a Better Environment, and a Better Life**, leaving no one behind. "Blue Transformation" is a targeted FAO vision mapped under this framework. It aims to maximize the contribution of aquatic food systems to food security by expanding sustainable aquaculture, improving fisheries management, and upgrading value chains. At forums like the 2025 UN Ocean Conference (UNOC) in Nice, France, FAO prominently highlighted how Blue Transformation acts as a catalyst for achieving these four universal pillars. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A is incorrect** because it replaces "better life" with "better ocean." Although marine health is central to the Blue Transformation strategy, the official FAO framework uses "Better Life" to emphasize inclusive economic growth, reducing inequalities, and improving human well-being. * **Option C is incorrect** as it replaces "better production" with "better coral reefs." The framework applies to broad global agrifood systems, focusing on "Better Production" to ensure efficient supply chains rather than ecosystem-specific metrics. * **Option D is incorrect** because it lists "better estuaries" and "better mangrove vegetation" instead of the official developmental pillars of "Better Production" and "Better Life." **Concluding Takeaway:** To easily recall the FAO's strategic priorities, remember the mnemonic **PNEL**: **P**roduction, **N**utrition, **E**nvironment, and **L**ife. These four interconnected goals guide all FAO interventions, ensuring that sustainable ecological practices translate directly into improved human livelihoods.

Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert. 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B (1 and 3 only)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake. Situated in an arid, hot environment receiving less than 250 mm of annual rainfall, it is also the world's largest alkaline lake and the fourth-largest salt lake globally by volume. **Statement 2 is incorrect:** Lake Turkana is not situated in South Sudan or along the Sahara desert. It is located in the East African Great Rift Valley. The lake lies predominantly in northern Kenya, with its far northern tip crossing into southwestern Ethiopia. Its primary tributary is the Omo River, which originates in the Ethiopian Highlands and provides more than 90% of the lake's water influx. **Statement 3 is correct:** The lake and its surrounding protected areas, comprising Sibiloi, Central Island, and South Island National Parks, were collectively inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1997. Furthermore, Lake Turkana is famously referred to as the 'Jade Sea' due to the striking, iridescent blue-green colour of its waters, which is caused by the presence of blue-green algae or cyanobacteria. **Takeaway:** Remember Lake Turkana as the 'Jade Giant of the Rift Valley'. It is a vital Kenyan-Ethiopian geographical landmark, globally recognised for its record-breaking desert-lake scale, unique alkaline ecosystem, and profound paleoanthropological significance.

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

The correct answer is **Option C**. **Why it is correct:** The **Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project**, located in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, is India’s first community-based REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) project. It holds the distinction of being the **first project in India to be certified under the international Plan Vivo standard** (certified in 2013). The initiative is implemented by a federation of 10 indigenous Khasi tribal kingdoms. It focuses on the conservation of ancient sacred groves and the restoration of degraded watersheds, allowing local communities to earn carbon certificates (and sustainable income) for avoided deforestation and assisted natural regeneration. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A (Uttarakhand REDD+ project):** This is a pilot project initiated by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) focusing on carbon inventory and capacity building within local *Van Panchayats* (village forests). It is not the first Plan Vivo certified project in India. * **Option B (ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project):** Launched in 2016, this is a joint multi-country capacity-building programme covering Himalayan regions across India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Myanmar to address drivers of deforestation, not a specific, first-certified carbon market project. * **Option D (Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project):** This is a much newer community-led REDD+ initiative developed in the Mamley watershed of South Sikkim to build ecosystem resilience, but it does not hold the title of the first Plan Vivo certified project in India. **Concluding Takeaway:** *Plan Vivo* is a voluntary carbon market standard designed specifically for community-led land use projects. The Khasi Hills project is a vital case study for UPSC aspirants, demonstrating how indigenous governance and traditional conservation can successfully integrate with global climate mitigation.

ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change : I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I. 3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **B (1 and 2)**. **Why Option B is correct:** **Statement I** is factually accurate. India submitted its Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) at the UNFCCC COP27 in November 2022, outlining a phased, developmental framework to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070. **Statement II** is also factually accurate. On December 30, 2024, India submitted its 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) to the UNFCCC. The report officially documented a 7.93% (approximately 8%) decrease in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 relative to 2019—largely reflecting the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic—alongside a 36% reduction in GDP emission intensity from 2005 to 2020. **Relationship 1** is correct: The measured reduction in emissions and emission intensity documented in BUR-4 (Statement II) provides concrete empirical evidence that supports the trajectory and viability of the decarbonization goals outlined in the LT-LEDS (Statement I). **Relationship 2** is correct: **Statement III** asserts that climate-resilient development necessitates "quick and short-term" emission reductions. This fundamentally contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I. India's LT-LEDS relies on the principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR), intentionally avoiding abrupt, short-term absolute emission caps to protect socio-economic growth, aiming instead for a gradual transition to net-zero by 2070. **Why the other options are wrong:** - **Option A (1 only)** is incomplete because Relationship 2 is also valid. - **Options C and D** are incorrect because Relationship 3 is logically invalid. Statement I (gradual long-term transition) and Statement III (immediate short-term targets) are conceptually opposed; therefore, they cannot "together" establish a coherent premise for long-term sustainability. **Takeaway:** India's climate policy deliberately balances ecological commitments with economic growth, prioritizing phased, long-term strategies (LT-LEDS) over binding short-term absolute reduction targets.

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. Select the answer using the code given below :

**Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)** **Statement 1 is correct:** The Western Hoolock Gibbon (*Hoolock hoolock*) is India's only ape species, naturally distributed across the tropical and subtropical forests of North-east India. The **Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary** in Assam is a renowned protected area dedicated specifically to their conservation. Furthermore, due to severe habitat fragmentation, poaching, and canopy loss, the species is officially classified as **Endangered** on the IUCN Red List. **Statement 2 is correct:** Gibbons are uniquely adapted for a highly arboreal (tree-dwelling) lifestyle. Their primary mode of locomotion is **brachiation**—a specialized form of movement that involves swinging fluidly from branch to branch using their exceptionally long arms, ball-and-socket wrist joints, and hook-like hands. This adaptation makes them among the fastest and most agile non-flying mammals in the canopy. **Statement 3 is incorrect:** Gibbons belong to the family of "lesser apes," meaning they are naturally small, slender, and lightweight (typically weighing only 6 to 9 kg, or 13 to 20 lbs). Their petite and lightweight frame is precisely what allows them to suspend and swing so nimbly through the trees. They do not possess a strong, heavy, or massive build like gorillas, which are "great apes" (weighing up to 150-200 kg) and are largely adapted for terrestrial knuckle-walking rather than rapid canopy brachiation. **Takeaway:** Remember that the Western Hoolock Gibbon is India's *only* ape, native to the Northeast. They are slender, lightweight brachiators (swingers), which sharply distinguishes them from heavy-set great apes like gorillas.

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities. Select the answer using the code given below :

**Correct Option: D (3 only)** **Why Option D is correct:** Statement 3 accurately identifies the dual role of mangroves in climate resilience and socio-economic sustenance. Mangroves function as natural **bio-shields** by dissipating the energy of storm surges, cyclones, and tsunamis. For instance, following the devastating 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami, reports by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the IUCN highlighted that coastlines with intact mangrove forests experienced significantly less structural damage and loss of life. Their dense, interwoven aerial root systems trap sediments and can reduce wave velocity by up to 90%. Furthermore, they provide a vital livelihood base for rural coastal communities by offering biomass resources like timber, fuelwood, tannins, and honey, while serving as breeding grounds for commercial fisheries. **Why the other statements are incorrect:** * **Statement 1 is incorrect:** Converting mangroves into paddy fields is a leading driver of global mangrove deforestation, not a rationale for their protection. Mangroves are uniquely adapted to highly saline, brackish estuarine environments, whereas traditional paddy cultivation requires freshwater; clearing them for agriculture destroys the ecosystem and increases coastal vulnerability to climate change. * **Statement 2 is incorrect:** Mangrove roots are **salt-tolerant** (halophytic), not salt-sensitive, utilizing advanced ultrafiltration mechanisms to exclude 90-97% of seawater salts at the root level. Additionally, converting coastal mangrove lands into aquaculture zones (such as commercial shrimp farming) is globally recognized by the FAO as the primary anthropogenic threat to mangrove survival, not a conservation strategy. **Takeaway / Mnemonic:** Remember **S-H-I-E-L-D** for Mangroves: **S**alt-tolerant (halophytes), **H**abitat for marine life, **I**ntertidal stabilizers, **E**rosion control, **L**ivelihood generation, and **D**isaster mitigation (bio-shields). Their ecological value lies in remaining intact, never in being converted for agriculture or aquaculture.

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations. 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination. 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **D) 3 only**. **Statement 3 is correct:** The Vizhinjam International Seaport, located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, represents a structural shift in India's maritime policy by serving as the country's first deep-water mega container trans-shipment hub. It leverages a natural draft of around 18–20 meters and is strategically located just 10 nautical miles from the busy international East-West shipping channel. This depth enables it to berth Ultra Large Container Ships (ULCS) without the need for extensive capital dredging. Currently, nearly 75% of India's trans-shipped cargo is routed through foreign ports like Colombo, Singapore, and Jebel Ali. Vizhinjam aims to capture this traffic, thereby reducing reliance on foreign hubs, cutting global logistics costs, and retaining revenue and foreign exchange within India. **Statement 1 is incorrect:** Vizhinjam is not exclusively a domestic cargo hub. Its primary identity is an international trans-shipment terminal designed to integrate India directly into global supply chains. Furthermore, it does not eliminate collaborations; the port was developed under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model with Adani Ports. **Statement 2 is incorrect:** While the port's master plan includes provisions for a cruise terminal, its *primary* and defining focus is on gateway and trans-shipment container cargo, not passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping. **Takeaway:** Remember Vizhinjam as India's "Gateway to Global Maritime Trade." It transitions India from relying heavily on foreign feeder ports (like Colombo) to becoming a direct, deep-water player in global maritime logistics.

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information : 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It flows through three countries. 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries. Select the answer from the following :

The correct answer is **(C) Sutlej**. The Sutlej River perfectly satisfies all four characteristics provided in the question: 1. **Antecedent Drainage:** The Sutlej is an antecedent river, meaning its course was established before the tectonic uplift of the Himalayas. As the mountains rose, it maintained its path by carving deep gorges, such as the one at Shipki La. 2. **Three Countries:** It is a transboundary river flowing through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan. 3. **Origin and Irrigation:** It originates from Lake Rakshastal near Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Plateau. It is highly critical for agricultural irrigation, feeding major infrastructure like the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and the Indira Gandhi Canal, which sustain farming in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan. 4. **No Distributaries:** A distributary is a stream that branches off and flows away from a main river channel, typically in a delta. Because the Sutlej acts solely as a tributary—merging with the Chenab River in Pakistan to form the Panjnad before joining the Indus—it never reaches the sea independently and forms no distributaries. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **(A) Brahmaputra:** While antecedent and flowing through three countries (China, India, Bangladesh), it splits into massive distributaries (like the Jamuna) to form the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta. * **(B) Indus:** It flows through three countries and is antecedent, but it forms an extensive delta in Pakistan's Sindh province, branching into multiple distributaries before draining into the Arabian Sea. * **(D) Teesta:** The Teesta originates in Sikkim, India (not the Tibetan Plateau) and flows through only two countries (India and Bangladesh). *Takeaway:* Remember that a river terminating by joining another river (as a tributary) generally lacks the capacity to form distributary networks, a geomorphological feature usually reserved for rivers creating deltas at a sea or ocean.

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct ? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States. 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States. 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option C (2 and 3)** because Statements 2 and 3 are geographically incorrect, whereas Statement 1 is factually true. * **Statement 1 is correct:** Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of administrative units in India. It borders eight states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar) and one Union Territory (Delhi). * **Statement 2 is incorrect:** West Bengal, not Rajasthan, shares the longest international border among all Indian states. West Bengal's total international boundary is approximately 2,509 km long. The vast majority of this (about 2,217 km) is shared with Bangladesh, alongside shorter borders with Bhutan and Nepal. In contrast, Rajasthan shares an international border of approximately 1,070 km with Pakistan, which is significantly shorter. * **Statement 3 is incorrect:** Sikkim is not the *only* Indian state that shares its domestic boundary with just one other state. There are exactly two such states in India: Sikkim (which borders exclusively with West Bengal) and Meghalaya (which borders exclusively with Assam). **Key Takeaway:** When studying Indian political geography, watch out for absolute words like "only" in UPSC statements. Remember India's two "single-neighbor" states (Sikkim and Meghalaya) and note that West Bengal holds the longest international boundary primarily due to its highly irregular, meandering border with Bangladesh.

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct ? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **A (1 only)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** The arrival and safe roosting of millions of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland is a globally recognized community conservation success story. Until 2012, thousands of these falcons were hunted for meat during their stopover. However, sustained local conservation efforts—driven by local Naga tribes (particularly in Pangti village), the state government, and wildlife NGOs—transformed the region. Today, mass hunting has ceased, and the region is celebrated as the "Amur Falcon Capital of the World". **Statement 2 is incorrect:** Advanced tracking technologies, such as lightweight satellite Platform Transmitter Terminals (PTTs), have been successfully used by scientists to *monitor and study* the falcons' arduous 22,000 km migration routes. However, these devices only track movement; they do not *guide* the birds back to their stopovers. Migratory birds navigate using innate biological mechanisms, such as earth's magnetic fields and celestial cues. **Statement 3 is incorrect:** Amur Falcons have not adapted to permanent residency in India. They are transcontinental, long-distance migrants. They breed in Eastern Asia (Mongolia, Siberia, Northern China) and winter in Southern Africa. Their presence in northeastern India during October and November is strictly a temporary stopover. They pause to rest and gorge on seasonal insects (like swarming termites) to build fat reserves before their massive non-stop flight across the Indian Ocean. **Takeaway:** The Amur Falcon (*Falco amurensis*) undertakes one of the longest over-water migrations of any raptor. Nagaland's Doyang Lake exemplifies how shifting local communities from hunting to ecotourism can create safe havens for international migratory species.

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) ? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct option is **D (3 only)**. The **Rainfed Area Development (RAD)** scheme was launched in 2014-15 as a core component of the **National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)**, which operates under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Its primary goal is to make rainfed agriculture more sustainable, productive, and resilient to climate variations. * **Statement 1 is incorrect:** RAD actively discourages monoculture. Instead, it promotes crop diversification (such as multi-cropping, rotational, inter-cropping, and mixed-cropping) because relying on a single crop in unpredictable rainfed conditions heavily increases the risk of total crop failure. * **Statement 2 is incorrect:** As the name implies, RAD is exclusively designed for **rainfed areas** (regions dependent on monsoons lacking assured irrigation facilities) to improve their agricultural footprint. It does not target irrigated regions or specifically aim to increase water-intensive crop cultivation like rice in those areas. * **Statement 3 is correct:** The hallmark of RAD is its area-based approach focusing on the **Integrated Farming System (IFS)**. IFS integrates traditional crop cultivation with allied activities like horticulture, livestock rearing, fisheries, agro-forestry, and apiculture. This holistic integration maximizes farm returns and minimizes climatic risks (like droughts or extreme weather events) by providing farmers with alternative income opportunities if their primary crops fail. **Takeaway:** Remember the core formula for RAD: **Rainfed Areas + Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) = Climate Resilience**. It shields farmers from the unpredictability of rain-dependent farming by diversifying their income sources.

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry ? 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products. 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets. Select the answer using the code given below :

**Correct Answer: C** **Why Option C is correct:** Eri Silk, primarily produced in Assam and other Northeastern Indian states, is famously known as "Ahimsa" or vegan silk because its production allows moths to naturally emerge from their cocoons unharmed. In August 2024, the North Eastern Handicrafts and Handlooms Development Corporation (NEHHDC) successfully obtained the prestigious **Oeko-Tex certification** from Germany for its Eri Silk. **Statement 1 is correct**: The Oeko-Tex certification is an internationally recognized standard that verifies textiles are rigorously tested and found free from harmful substances (such as heavy metals, formaldehyde, and azo dyes). This guarantees chemical-free safety, providing Indian exporters with a verifiable credential to successfully compete in high-end, sustainability-focused global markets. **Statement 2 is correct**: Obtaining this standard definitively validates that the silk meets stringent international safety, environmental, and ethical quality parameters. Because global consumers are increasingly pivoting towards ethical fashion, this certification enables Eri Silk—already a Geographical Indication (GI) tagged product—to seamlessly enter premium, eco-conscious export markets worldwide. **Why the other options are wrong:** * **Option A is incorrect** because it ignores Statement 2; confirming international safety and environmental compliance is a primary function of the Oeko-Tex framework. * **Option B is incorrect** because it ignores Statement 1; the certification directly verifies that the textiles are chemical-free, which explicitly boosts exporters' competitive edge. * **Option D is incorrect** because both statements accurately describe the profound economic and market implications of achieving Oeko-Tex status. **Concluding Takeaway:** Oeko-Tex certification transforms traditional Eri Silk from a regional specialty into a globally authenticated, eco-friendly luxury export. Remember: **Oeko-Tex = Eco-friendly + Toxic-free textiles.**

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean ? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qatar 4. Egypt Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **B (1 and 3)**. **Why the correct option is correct:** The Strait of Hormuz is a highly strategic maritime chokepoint (approximately 21 to 29 miles wide) that separates Iran to the north from the Musandam Peninsula (Oman and UAE) to the south. According to authorities like the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA), it is the world's most critical oil transit chokepoint. Crucially, it serves as the exclusive sea passage connecting the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, which subsequently leads into the Arabian Sea and the broader Indian Ocean. * **1. Bahrain:** This island nation is located entirely within the Persian Gulf. To reach the open Indian Ocean, its ships must exit the Gulf by crossing the Strait of Hormuz. * **3. Qatar:** Situated on a peninsula extending into the Persian Gulf, Qatar also relies exclusively on the Strait of Hormuz for its maritime access to the Indian Ocean. **Why the wrong options are incorrect:** * **2. Syria:** Syria is located in the Levant region and its only coastline lies on the eastern Mediterranean Sea. To reach the Indian Ocean, Syrian ships traverse the Suez Canal, the Red Sea, and exit via the Bab el-Mandeb strait, bypassing the Strait of Hormuz entirely. * **4. Egypt:** Egypt borders both the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. Its maritime traffic bound for the Indian Ocean travels south through the Red Sea and crosses the Bab el-Mandeb strait into the Gulf of Aden, never entering the Persian Gulf or the Strait of Hormuz. **Concluding Takeaway:** When studying world geography for the UPSC examination, always associate specific maritime chokepoints with their respective inward water bodies. Remember: **Hormuz** is the exclusive gateway for the **Persian Gulf**, while **Bab el-Mandeb** is the gateway for the **Red Sea**.

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (INTERPOL Notice) A. Silver Notice B. Blue Notice C. Black Notice D. Green Notice List II (Description) 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety 4. To identify and trace criminal assets Code :

The correct answer is **Option C (A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3)**. INTERPOL issues colour-coded notices to enable member countries to share critical criminal intelligence and requests for cooperation globally. * **Silver Notice (A-4):** Introduced in January 2025 as a pilot initiative, this notice is specifically designed to help identify, locate, and trace criminal assets internationally, shifting law enforcement focus from chasing fugitives to tracking illicit financial flows. * **Blue Notice (B-2):** This notice is used by law enforcement to collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to an ongoing criminal investigation. * **Black Notice (C-1):** This notice is strictly used to seek information and intelligence on unidentified bodies. * **Green Notice (D-3):** This notice serves as an alert to provide warnings about a person's criminal activities, especially when the individual has a criminal record and is considered a potential threat to public safety in other countries. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A** is incorrect because it falsely associates the Silver Notice with public safety warnings (which is Green) and the Black Notice with criminal investigations (which is Blue). * **Option B** is incorrect as it assigns the Silver Notice to warnings (instead of assets) and the Green Notice to tracking assets (instead of warnings). * **Option D** is incorrect because it mismatches the Blue Notice with unidentified bodies (which is Black) and the Black Notice with gathering information for investigations (which is Blue). **Takeaway Mnemonic:** Remember the colors intuitively: **Silver** for money/financial assets, **Black** for death/unidentified bodies, **Blue** for police investigations (like a uniform), and **Green** for active public safety warnings.

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option B (1 and 3 only)**. **NIRANTAR** (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience) is a collaborative platform established by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It was designed to enhance institutional synergies, avoid duplication of research, and align scientific outcomes with national policy needs. * **Statement 1 is correct:** **Ecosystem Survey and Analysis** is a key vertical under NIRANTAR. The lead institute for this vertical is the **Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata**. Its mandate includes conducting surveys, assessments, and analytics on flora, fauna, and forests, coordinating with other bodies like the Forest Survey of India (FSI) and Zoological Survey of India (ZSI). * **Statement 2 is incorrect:** The **Research and Management of Ecosystem Service** vertical is led by the **Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun**, not the Central Zoo Authority (CZA). Although the CZA, Wildlife Institute of India (WII), and National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) are constituent members of this vertical, ICFRE holds the leadership role to direct long-term ecological stability and sustainable development research. * **Statement 3 is correct:** The **Capacity Development Support** vertical is led by the **Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal**. This vertical focuses on creating a pool of trained professionals in sustainable resource management, ecosystem services, and climate change mitigation. (A fourth vertical, *Climate Change Support*, is led by the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management). **Takeaway/Mnemonic:** To recall the vertical leads, associate the function with the institute's core strength: **Surveying** starts at the fundamental flora level (Botanical Survey of India), **Ecosystem Management** demands comprehensive forestry research (ICFRE), and **Capacity Building** naturally requires a management institution (IIFM).

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit? 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg 2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow Select the answer using the code given below :

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany, Friedrich Merz, made an official visit to India in January 2026. The visit yielded several strategic, economic, and cultural agreements to commemorate 25 years of the India–Germany Strategic Partnership. **Why the correct option is B (1 and 4 are not correct):** * **Statement 1 is not correct:** An agreement promoting scientific cooperation in traditional medicine was indeed signed, but it was a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) and **Charité – Universitätsmedizin Berlin** (Charité University Medical Centre), not the University of Hamburg [8, 15, 22]. * **Statement 4 is not correct:** During the context of this bilateral engagement, an Honorary Consul of Germany was established in **Ahmedabad**, Gujarat (with local industrialist Abhay Mangaldas appointed to the role), rather than in Lucknow [27, 28, 30]. **Why the other statements are correct:** * **Statement 2 is correct:** To strengthen cultural and athletic ties, a formal MoU on Youth Hockey Development was successfully signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation (*Deutscher Hockey-Bund e.V.*) [8, 15]. * **Statement 3 is correct:** Recognizing shared strategic and maritime interests, the two nations announced the establishment of a new bilateral consultation and dialogue mechanism specifically focused on the Indo-Pacific region [8, 11, 15]. **Concluding Takeaway:** When studying high-level bilateral summits, pay close attention to specific institutions and regional locations. A quick mnemonic for the January 2026 German Chancellor visit outcomes is **CHIP**: **C**harité University (Ayurveda), **H**ockey MoU, **I**ndo-Pacific dialogue, and **P**lacement of a new consulate in Ahmedabad.

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option C (Both 1 and 2)**. According to official releases from the Press Information Bureau (PIB) in December 2025, India achieved a significant milestone in semiconductor technology with the successful development of the **DHRUV64** microprocessor. **Statement 1 is correct:** DHRUV64 is indeed the third microprocessor fabricated under the Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) Programme. The overarching goal of the DIR-V initiative, launched in April 2022 by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), is to build a robust ecosystem for indigenous microprocessors to realize the vision of an Aatmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) in semiconductor design. The first chip realized under this programme was THEJAS32, followed by the second chip, THEJAS64. **Statement 2 is correct:** DHRUV64 holds the distinction of being India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor. It was indigenously developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) under the Microprocessor Development Programme (MDP). By utilizing an open-source RISC-V instruction set architecture, the chip eliminates costly proprietary licensing fees. It is designed for compute-intensive embedded systems, 5G infrastructure, industrial automation, and the Internet of Things (IoT). Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they fail to acknowledge the factual accuracy of both statements regarding India's semiconductor advancements. **Takeaway:** You can remember the progression of DIR-V microprocessors with the sequence **T-T-D**: **T**HEJAS32 (1st), **T**HEJAS64 (2nd), and **D**HRUV64 (3rd). By bypassing proprietary licenses, the RISC-V architecture guarantees India long-term technological sovereignty.

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option C (1 and 2 only)**. **Statement 1 is correct.** The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently introduced a new national standard, **IS 19445:2025** (Bomb Disposal Systems — Performance Evaluation and Requirements), on National Consumer Day, December 24, 2025. This is India’s first dedicated standard for evaluating explosive threat mitigation equipment, addressing the gap left by international standards that do not fully align with Indian threat profiles and operational conditions. **Statement 2 is correct.** The introduction of a unified national standard provides a comprehensive technical framework and performance benchmark for test sponsors, manufacturers, and accredited testing agencies. By establishing standardized qualitative requirements and test methodologies, it brings uniformity in evaluation practices, promotes quality-driven manufacturing, and ensures equipment reliability and interoperability across various security organizations. **Statement 3 is incorrect.** The standard was **not** developed in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia, or any foreign institute. It was formulated domestically by the BIS at the request of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Terminal Ballistic Research Laboratory (TBRL), a premier DRDO lab. The dedicated technical panel responsible for drafting this standard was constituted under the chairmanship of TBRL, relying on extensive consultations with Indian defence agencies, Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), and the National Security Guard (NSG). **Takeaway:** Remember the standard **IS 19445:2025** for bomb disposal equipment. A quick mnemonic for the standard's origin is **B-M-T**: Developed by **B**IS, requested by **M**HA and **T**BRL (DRDO), focusing entirely on India's indigenous security needs.

'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':

**Correct Option: C (John Clarke)** John Clarke was born in Cambridge, United Kingdom, in 1942,. In October 2025, the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences jointly awarded him the Nobel Prize in Physics for his foundational role in discovering macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in electrical circuits,. At the time of the announcement, Clarke was an emeritus professor of physics at the University of California, Berkeley, an American university,. His pioneering work in the 1980s, alongside his co-laureates, demonstrated quantum phenomena on a macroscopic scale, laying the groundwork for modern superconducting quantum computers,. **Incorrect Options:** **A) Michel H. Devoret:** While Devoret was a co-recipient of the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics alongside John Clarke and was affiliated with American universities (Yale and UC Santa Barbara),, he was born in Paris, France, not the UK,. **B) Richard Robson:** Robson was born in the UK (Yorkshire) and was a co-recipient of the 2025 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his pioneering development of metal-organic frameworks (MOFs),. However, he spent his career at the University of Melbourne, an Australian institution, not an American one,. **D) Joel Mokyr:** Mokyr was a co-recipient of the 2025 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences and is a professor at Northwestern University in the United States,. However, he was born in Leiden, the Netherlands, not the UK,. **Concluding Takeaway:** To remember the 2025 Physics Nobel laureates and their domain, use the mnemonic **MAC**: **M**artinis, **A**nd Devoret, **C**larke, who proved quantum mechanics on a **MAC**roscopic scale.

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct ? 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments. 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14. 3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament. Select the answer using the code given below :

The correct answer is **Option C (1 only)**. **Statement 1 is correct:** The four major tennis tournaments (Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon, and the US Open) operate under a shared governance structure. They collaborate through the Grand Slam Board (GSB), managed under the umbrella of Grand Slam Tennis (GST). This board comprises the chairs and CEOs of the four tournaments and is responsible for unified administration, including the Grand Slam Rulebook, officiating, and maintaining contractual relationships. **Statement 2 is incorrect:** While it is true that there is an age restriction—minors under the age of 14 are completely ineligible—the tournaments are not open to *all* internationally ranked players. According to the official Grand Slam Tournament Regulations, entry is strictly limited to players holding an international ranking of 500 or better based on merit. **Statement 3 is incorrect:** The official Grand Slam Rulebook explicitly states that there is "no limitation as to the number of Wild Cards a player may receive to compete in the Grand Slam Tournaments." While other tennis governing bodies (like the ATP or WTA) may have wild card limits for their standard tour events, the Grand Slams place no such career cap on individual players. **Takeaway:** The Grand Slam Board establishes unified baseline rules for the four majors, setting a minimum age of 14 and a top-500 ranking threshold for entry, while consciously avoiding any cap on the number of wild cards a player can accept.

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?

The correct answer is **C** because the semiconductor plant set up by the HCL-Foxconn joint venture (India Chip Pvt. Ltd.) is located in **Uttar Pradesh**, not Madhya Pradesh,. Here is a detailed breakdown of the options: * **Option C (Incorrect Match):** The HCL Group and Hon Hai Technology Group (Foxconn) secured Union Cabinet approval to establish an Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility in the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority (YEIDA) region near Jewar, **Uttar Pradesh** (Greater Noida),. This ₹3,700 crore joint venture operates as India Chip Pvt. Ltd. and will manufacture display driver integrated circuits (ICs) for consumer electronics,. It is the state's first unit under the India Semiconductor Mission and has no operations in Madhya Pradesh. * **Option A (Correct Match):** CG Power and Industrial Solutions Ltd., in partnership with Japan's Renesas Electronics and Thailand's Stars Microelectronics, is establishing a ₹7,600 crore OSAT facility in Sanand, **Gujarat**,. * **Option B (Correct Match):** Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. (TSAT) is building India's first indigenous greenfield semiconductor assembly and test facility in Jagiroad, Morigaon district, **Assam**,. This is a landmark ₹27,000 crore investment supported by the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM),. * **Option D (Correct Match):** SicSem Pvt. Ltd., a subsidiary of Archean Chemical Industries, is setting up an advanced compound semiconductor (Silicon Carbide) Integrated Device Manufacturing (IDM) facility at Info Valley in Bhubaneswar, **Odisha**,. **Takeaway:** To remember the key state destinations developing under the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM), you can use the acronym **GAOU**: **G**ujarat (CG Power, Micron), **A**ssam (Tata TSAT), **O**disha (SicSem, RIR Power), and **U**ttar Pradesh (HCL-Foxconn).

CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat

Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi. Select the answer using the code given below :

The **Bharat Forecast System (BFS)** is India's advanced, indigenous numerical weather prediction model, officially adopted by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) in May 2025 to provide hyper-local climate insights. * **Statement 1 is correct:** The primary objective of the BFS is to generate highly accurate weather forecasts down to the **panchayat cluster or village level**. It achieves this by using a 6 km x 6 km spatial resolution grid, a significant upgrade from the previous 12 km resolution. This ultra-fine Triangular Cubic Octahedral (TCO) grid makes India the first country to operationalize a 6-km resolution global weather model, vastly improving disaster preparedness and agricultural planning. * **Statement 2 is incorrect:** The Bharat Forecast System was **not developed by IIT Delhi**. It was indigenously developed by the **Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune**, an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The model utilizes the immense processing power of advanced supercomputers like 'Arka' (located at IITM Pune) and 'Arunika' (at NCMRWF, Noida) to drastically reduce forecast generation time. **Takeaway Mnemonic:** Remember **BFS** as **B**etter **F**orecasts for **S**arpanchs—delivering accurate weather data to the **Panchayat** level, developed by IIT**M** (Meteorology, Pune), not IIT Delhi.

Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' : 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category. 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi. 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

The correct answer is Option A, as all the given statements are correct. Therefore, Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they omit one or more of the factually valid statements. **Statement 1 is correct:** The Manipuri-language coming-of-age film 'Boong' won the Best Children's and Family Film award at the 79th British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Film Awards in February 2026. It achieved this feat by competing against major international studio productions like *Zootopia 2* and *Lilo & Stitch*. **Statement 2 is correct:** 'Boong' was written and directed by debutant Manipuri filmmaker Lakshmipriya Devi. The film centres on a young schoolboy in Manipur who embarks on a journey to find his missing father near the India-Myanmar border to reunite his family, capturing childhood innocence amidst regional complexities. **Statement 3 is correct:** 'Boong' made history by becoming the first-ever Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category. Co-produced by Excel Entertainment, the feature represents a rare and monumental global achievement for an entirely home-grown, regional Indian-language film. **Takeaway:** The victory of 'Boong' at the 2026 BAFTAs is a watershed moment for Northeast Indian cinema. It demonstrates how culturally rooted, deeply personal regional stories—supported by domestic initiatives like the NFDC Film Bazaar—can achieve universal resonance and prestigious global recognition.

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. Select the answer using the code given below :

**Correct Answer: Option C** Blockchain technology is a distributed ledger system characterized by decentralization, immutability, and transparency. These core features are widely recognized in standard government frameworks, such as NITI Aayog's 2020 discussion paper, *'Blockchain: The India Strategy.'* * **Statement 1 is correct:** Blockchain provides "adjustable transparency." Through cryptography and smart contracts, records stored in the database can be made visible to relevant stakeholders without any risk of unauthorized alteration. * **Statement 2 is correct:** Blockchain operates as a distributed ledger. Copies of the entire database are stored across multiple autonomous computers (nodes) on a peer-to-peer network. These nodes communicate and sync new data blocks within seconds, ensuring no single point of failure. * **Statement 4 is correct:** Immutability is a foundational feature. Mathematical algorithms (such as cryptographic hash functions) link each block to the previous one. Once data is recorded and accepted by the network's consensus, it is impossible to change or delete it without altering all subsequent blocks. * **Statement 3 is incorrect:** The statement actually defines a **hybrid blockchain**, which blends the architectural features of both public and private blockchains to allow selective data access. In contrast, a **consortium blockchain** (or federated blockchain) is a semi-decentralized network governed collectively by a predefined group of multiple organizations (e.g., a consortium of banks), rather than being a structural blend of public and private networks. **Takeaway:** To distinguish blockchain architectures, remember: *Public* = Anyone can join; *Private* = Governed by one entity; *Consortium* = Governed by a group of entities; *Hybrid* = A structural mix of public and private features.

English Hindi

UPSC Prelims 2026 Answer Key (24 May 2026) — Set A, B, C, D Solutions

Complete UPSC Prelims 2026 answer key with question-by-question solutions, expected cutoff, subject-wise analysis and score calculator. Updated live on exam day.

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Exam Date: 24 May 2026 (Sunday)
Conducted by: UPSC
GS Paper 1: 100 Qs · 200 marks
CSAT Paper 2: 80 Qs · 200 marks

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Last updated 25 May 2026, 8:23 pm IST

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Answer key & question-by-question solutions

Verified answer for every question with subject and topic tags. Click any row for the full explanation, marking history, and related practice.

General Studies — Paper 1

Your set

100 / 100

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
11	Consider the following assertion : In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yam…	geography	D	View
12	What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?	art-culture	A	View
13	Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vitasta : Chenab 2. Asikni : Jhelum 3. Paru…	history	C	View
14	Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ? 1. It was located in the lower Krishna va…	art-culture	B	View
15	Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ? 1. Senguttuvan : Chera…	history	B	View
16	Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ? 1. Bose failed to win the c…	history	B	View
17	Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 : 1. The taluqdars were dis…	history	A	View
18	Consider the following assertion : The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford R…	history	D	View
19	Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :	art-culture	D	View
20	In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate ?	history	B	View
1	Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?	art-culture	D	View
2	The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government f…	history	A	View
3	Consider the following statements : I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanik…	history	C	View
4	Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ? 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole 3. Dashava…	art-culture	B	View
5	Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?	history	B	View
6	The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :	art-culture	A	View
7	Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India : 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value…	history	D	View
8	Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns : I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the…	history	A	View
9	Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?	history	C	View
10	Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period : I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains …	history	C	View
31	Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?	geography	A	View
32	With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 20…	environment	B	View
33	With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The climate can be defin…	geography	B	View
34	Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ? 1. Submergence of parts of …	geography	B	View
35	Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India : I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to…	economy	B	View
36	Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) : 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to N…	environment	B	View
37	Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UN…	art-culture	C	View
38	At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Natio…	environment	B	View
39	Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ? 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world. 2. The lake…	geography	B	View
40	Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in …	environment	C	View
21	Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change : I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strat…	environment	B	View
22	With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to…	environment	B	View
23	Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves r…	environment	D	View
24	In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy? 1. By f…	economy	D	View
25	Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information : 1. It has an antecedent drainage system. 2. It fl…	geography	C	View
26	Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct ? 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of …	geography	C	View
27	Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are corre…	environment	A	View
28	Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainabl…	environment	D	View
29	Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile ind…	current-affairs	C	View
30	Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean ? 1. Bahrain 2. Syria 3. Qat…	geography	B	View
76	Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (INTERPOL Notice) A. Silver Notice B. Blue Not…	current-affairs	C	View
77	Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform…	environment	B	View
78	The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outc…	current-affairs	B	View
79	Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall…	science-technology	C	View
80	The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following …	current-affairs	C	View
81	'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Iden…	science-technology	C	View
82	Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct ? 1. The tournaments have a shared governa…	other	C	View
83	Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?	science-technology	C	View
84	Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are …	science-technology	A	View
85	Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' : 1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television …	current-affairs	A	View
86	Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made…	science-technology	C	View
87	An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orde…	economy	A	View
88	Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of…	economy	C	View
89	Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative ?	economy	C	View
90	Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correc…	economy	D	View
91	Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct? 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real wor…	economy	A	View
92	A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :	economy	C	View
93	Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct ? 1. M1xchang…	economy	B	View
94	Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy ?	economy	B	View
95	Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ? 1. Modern technological innovation…	geography	A	View
96	Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct ? 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircr…	economy	C	View
97	Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct? 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple i…	economy	C	View
98	With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details : \| Sl. No. \| Committee \| Objective \| Organization under whi…	economy	D	View
99	Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India : 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. 2. Al…	economy	A	View
100	Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) : 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology. 2. MPI …	economy	A	View
41	Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty ge…	science-technology	C	View
42	Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ? 1. LLMs assign proba…	science-technology	B	View
43	Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-sectio…	science-technology	C	View
44	Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct ? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red l…	science-technology	B	View
45	Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas re…	environment	B	View
46	Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme : 1. The Indian National Space P…	science-technology	A	View
47	Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with t…	science-technology	B	View
48	Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The pr…	science-technology	B	View
49	Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-sc…	science-technology	C	View
50	Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shi…	science-technology	B	View
51	Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider respons…	polity	C	View
52	In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has …	polity	A	View
53	Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in appro…	other	B	View
54	'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' expla…	polity	D	View
55	Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India : 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that spe…	polity	B	View
56	Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disab…	polity	B	View
57	Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India : 1. Provisions …	polity	A	View
58	Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India : 1. Unstarred questions are those…	polity	C	View
59	Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India : 1…	polity	D	View
60	Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India : 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile def…	current-affairs	A	View
61	Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries : 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river…	geography	D	View
62	Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023…	polity	D	View
63	With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details : \| Sl. No. \| Organisation \| Function \| Co…	polity	A	View
64	Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India ? 1. Employment Policy Convention 2. Abolition of Forced La…	polity	D	View
65	Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi : 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was …	current-affairs	D	View
66	Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ? 1. Kaladan Multi-Mo…	current-affairs	A	View
67	Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Project Supported by India) A. Mangdechhu Hyd…	current-affairs	B	View
68	Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Clas…	science-technology	A	View
69	Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation : 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative proces…	current-affairs	C	View
70	Consider the following UN organisations/agencies : 1. World Food Programme 2. United Nations Children's Fund 3. United Nations High Commissi…	polity	A	View
71	Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) A. UNMIL B. MINURC…	polity	B	View
72	Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) A. BIMSTEC Cultu…	current-affairs	C	View
73	Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)	other	D	View
74	Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. The period of its imp…	polity	B	View
75	Which of the following countries are members of the European Union? 1. Belarus 2. Poland 3. Germany 4. Switzerland Select the answer using t…	polity	C	View

CSAT — Paper 2 (qualifying)

Your set

Set A, B, C unlock as their shuffle maps publish.

80 / 80

Q	Question	Subject	Answer	Solution
1	For ⅓ < x < y < 2, which of the following statements is/are always correct? I. x + 1/x < y + 1/y II. √(1 + y²)/y < √(1 + x²)/x Select the an…	other	B	View
2	What is the minimum number of times one needs to measure to get 298 litres of water from a tank, if the measuring cylinders have capacities …	other	B	View
3	There are four types of weights, namely 1 kg, 2 kg, 5 kg and 10 kg. What is the maximum number of different ways one can measure 20 kg, if a…	other	B	View
4	A cut on a solid object divides the object into two parts where the new surfaces thus produced are plane. On the other hand, one single cut …	other	A	View
5	The class average x in a test increases by 4 when the score of a student is rectified, whose corrected score is 100 instead of 0. Later, the…	other	B	View
6	Passage: HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms. Question: Which of the following …	science-technology	B	View
7	Passage: HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms. Question: Which of the following …	other	D	View
8	Passage: HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms. Question: Which of the following …	science-technology	B	View
9	Three variables x, y and z take values 2, 3, 4 or 5 such that their values are always distinct. If M and N denote the largest possible value…	other	C	View
10	Suppose x, y and z are variables taking positive real numbers as their possible values. It is given that y is directly proportional to x² an…	other	B	View
11	Passage: India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases such as weather forecasting, pest detection and control, and crop yield optim…	other	D	View
12	Passage: India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases such as weather forecasting, pest detection and control, and crop yield optim…	other	A	View
13	P, Q, R, S and T are ranked 1 to 5 (not necessarily in that order). The rank of P is 4, the rank of Q is not 5, the rank of R is 1, the rank…	other	D	View
14	Two identical straight rods are painted in five distinct colours so that each of them gets divided into five equal parts along the length. I…	other	C	View
15	Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G travel by three cars X, Y, Z. A and another two of them travel by X. Only E travels with G. C travels b…	other	B	View
16	There are four statements X, Y, Z and W. Their relations are as follows : If X is incorrect, then so is Z; if Y is incorrect, then W is corr…	other	A	View
17	X and Y are two runners who run for the same duration of time on the same circular track. They started running at the same time in the same …	other	A	View
18	In an objective type question paper, 5 marks are awarded for a correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for a wrong answer. A student attempt…	other	B	View
19	Passage: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents a…	polity	B	View
20	Passage: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents a…	polity	C	View
21	An explosion takes place at a certain distance from an army camp. As soon as the sensor in the camp receives the sound of the explosion, a d…	other	C	View
22	The digit in the unit place of the number 6¹²⁹ × 7³⁰⁷ is	other	C	View
23	A person saves 10% of his salary every month. If his salary increases by 12% and the expenditure increases by 10%, then what will be the cha…	other	B	View
24	P has a son and a daughter. S is the mother of T. S is R's spouse. Q and R are children of P. Then how is Q related to S?	other	D	View
25	How many three-digit numbers can be expressed as an integral power of 2?	other	C	View
26	Passage: ...keep clean fuel cheaper than dirty fuel. Now even as coal is banned, the price of natural gas makes industry uncompetitive. Ques…	environment	C	View
27	Passage: ...keep clean fuel cheaper than dirty fuel. Now even as coal is banned, the price of natural gas makes industry uncompetitive. Ques…	environment	C	View
28	Consider the following statements : Every red is blue. Every blue is green. Every green is yellow. Which of the following statements denoted…	other	D	View
29	How many times does 5 appear in all two-digit positive integers?	other	B	View
30	X travels 6 km on a bicycle with average speeds of 5 km per hour, 10 km per hour and 4 km per hour during the first 1 km, the next 2 km and …	other	D	View
31	Seven cubes are identical in shape. Out of these, the weight of each of the six cubes is equal and the weight of the remaining cube is less …	other	A	View
32	Passage: Previous waves of customer-service technology, including email and those pesky voice menus, stoked concerns of job losses, only for…	other	C	View
33	Passage: Previous waves of customer-service technology, including email and those pesky voice menus, stoked concerns of job losses, only for…	other	B	View
34	Passage: Cattle from the nearby villages came to the common ground to graze, and there was still a cool freshness in the air. Hori took seve…	other	C	View
35	Passage: Cattle from the nearby villages came to the common ground to graze, and there was still a cool freshness in the air. Hori took seve…	other	D	View
36	A person facing the East travels 4 km straight and then turns right and travels 3 km, then further turns left and travels 2 km and finally t…	other	D	View
37	In a sequence of numbers, each number other than the first two is the sum of the two immediately preceding numbers from it. If the first two…	other	D	View
38	The ratio of male to female workers in two companies A and B is 13 : 10 and 7 : 5, respectively. If both the companies have the same number …	other	B	View
39	If the product of the HCF and LCM of two distinct numbers is the cube of one of the numbers, then which of the following statements is/are c…	other	C	View
40	If x and y are two digits and the number 4x5y790 is divisible by 11, then what is the remainder, if x + y is divided by 11?	other	D	View
41	Passage: Was it the sun-dappled ambience, the strawberries and cream, the frustration of Flavio Cobolli's unforced errors against Serbian No…	other	A	View
42	Passage: Was it the sun-dappled ambience, the strawberries and cream, the frustration of Flavio Cobolli's unforced errors against Serbian No…	other	B	View
43	Passage: The process by which countries close their labour-productivity gap with the technology leader is based on convergence theory. The c…	economy	A	View
44	Passage: The process by which countries close their labour-productivity gap with the technology leader is based on convergence theory. The c…	other	C	View
45	An alloy P contains 20% copper and 80% zinc by weight. Another alloy Q contains 60% copper and 40% zinc by weight. A third alloy R is to be …	other	A	View
46	A is a 2-digit number with different digits. B is also a 2-digit number and is obtained by reversing the digits of A. If A - B is a multiple…	other	B	View
47	If ZERO is encoded as ADSN, then how do you encode STOP?	other	B	View
48	There are three types of rectangular tiles : 3' × 3', 3' × 7' and 3' × 11'. An area of rectangular shape of dimensions 3' × 100' is to be co…	other	A	View
49	A train has to complete a journey of 800 km. If it meets a minor accident, its speed becomes half of the existing speed. If there is a mecha…	other	A	View
50	In a recruitment process, the selection of candidates is based on their performance in three components. The weightages of the components 1,…	other	A	View
51	Consider the following three statements, namely S1, S2 and S3 : S1. Protecting the environment is an existential exigency for humans, given …	environment	D	View
52	Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Relationship category) A. Between cricket cap…	other	B	View
53	Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Tool of communication) A. Memorandum B. Flyer…	other	C	View
54	Which among the following actions would constitute the most appropriate directive(s) in resolving interpersonal conflict in an office with c…	other	C	View
55	Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Barrier to communication) A. Semantic B. Cogn…	other	D	View
56	You are required to design a 'questionnaire' to be filled on-location by visitors, based on the following objective while writing a report :…	other	C	View
57	With reference to 'circular letters', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Circular letters are usually addressed to a group…	other	D	View
58	Three partners A, B and C entered into a business. A invested one-third of the capital for one-third duration. B invested one-fourth of the …	other	A	View
59	There are two chemicals which do not react with each other. A container contains 10 litres of the chemical A. One litre of this chemical is …	other	B	View
60	A shopkeeper employs a delivery boy and gives him a motorcycle for home delivery. For every delivery, the boy is given ₹ 5. At the end of th…	other	D	View
61	Directions for the next 5 (five) items : Each item in this section contains a question followed by two statements. Answer each item using th…	other	A	View
62	Directions for the next 5 (five) items : Each item in this section contains a question followed by two statements. Answer each item using th…	other	D	View
63	Directions for the next 5 (five) items : Each item in this section contains a question followed by two statements. Answer each item using th…	other	C	View
64	Directions for the next 5 (five) items : Each item in this section contains a question followed by two statements. Answer each item using th…	other	D	View
65	Directions for the next 5 (five) items : Each item in this section contains a question followed by two statements. Answer each item using th…	other	A	View
66	Passage: ... inspired by iconic temples like the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir, were treasure troves of regional artistry.…	art-culture	D	View
67	Passage: ... inspired by iconic temples like the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir, were treasure troves of regional artistry.…	art-culture	A	View
68	The weight of X, in kg, is denoted by X. The weights of A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are measured. Given : A + B + C + D = 17 A + C = 6 P + Q +…	other	B	View
69	How many words can one form by shuffling the letters of the word QUEUE, if Q is always followed by U? The words thus formed need not necessa…	other	D	View
70	X, Y and Z jump forward 4', 6' and 5', respectively. At 8 AM, they all land on mark 199'. How many times will they all land on the same mark…	other	D	View
71	Passage: Sport is not just about winning medals or getting jobs through a sports quota. Today's generation is struggling with issues like de…	other	D	View
72	Passage: Sport is not just about winning medals or getting jobs through a sports quota. Today's generation is struggling with issues like de…	other	C	View
73	A toy T jumps forward or backward. In each forward jump, it moves 5' forward whereas in each backward jump, it moves 2' backward. If in 31 j…	other	D	View
74	Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sit around a round table in eight different seats placed with equal distance between any two consecu…	other	A	View
75	The top of a table is rectangular and its dimensions are 6′ × 10′. Two rectangular portions of the table top are painted in blue colour; bot…	other	B	View
76	Passage: How is deflation done? Most countries use a method called 'double deflation', where input and output prices are deflated separately…	economy	A	View
77	Which of the following assumptions is/are valid? 1. Deflation strategies can be used to make manufacturers appear to be doing better than th…	economy	A	View
78	A pattern formed by two characters a and b is repeated more than once in the following string : x b x a x a x x a x a x b a b What is x x in…	other	D	View
79	If 10ᵐ × 1000 × n = 75²⁵ × 25³² × 32⁷⁵, where n is not divisible by 10, then the value of m is	other	B	View
80	The speed of a train T is 100 km per hour and the speed of a person P is 4 km per hour. T crosses P in 15 seconds, if P travels along the di…	other	C	View

Score calculator

Estimate your GS Paper 1 marks under UPSC's negative marking and see whether you clear the predicted cutoff for your category.

Correct answers/ 100

Wrong answers/ 100

Attempted

Skipped

100

Penalty

Expected cutoff & history

Predicted cutoff band for 2026 alongside the official cutoffs of the past ten years.

Year	General	EWS	OBC	SC	ST
2026 predicted	80–90	75–85	80–88	65–75	58–68
2025	92.66	89.34	92.00	84.00	82.66
2024	87.98	85.92	87.28	79.03	74.23
2023	75.41	68.02	74.75	59.25	47.82
2022	88.22	82.83	87.54	74.08	69.35
2021	87.54	80.14	84.85	75.41	70.71
2020	92.51	77.55	89.12	74.84	68.71
2019	98.00	90.00	95.34	82.00	77.34
2018	98.00	—	96.66	84.00	83.34
2017	105.34	—	—	—	—
2016	116.00	—	—	—	—
2015	107.34	—	—	—	—

GS Paper 1 cutoff out of 200. CSAT (Paper 2) qualifying threshold is 66 / 200.

Subject-wise weightage

How GS Paper 1 distributed marks across History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Science & Tech, Environment and Current Affairs.

100

Questions

economy15 (15%)
science-technology15 (15%)
polity15 (15%)
history13 (13%)
environment11 (11%)
current-affairs11 (11%)
geography10 (10%)
art-culture7 (7%)
other3 (3%)

Release timeline

Every milestone for the answer key release — published as it happens.

GS Paper 1 — exam endsLive
Released 24 May 2026, 11:30 am IST
GS Paper 1 answer key publishedLive
Released 24 May 2026, 11:53 am IST
Set D processed first as the canonical paper. Set A/B/C shuffle maps publish as those papers are mapped.
GS Paper 1 — detailed explanationsLive
Released 24 May 2026, 11:53 am IST
CSAT — exam endsLive
Released 24 May 2026, 4:30 pm IST
CSAT answer key publishedLive
Released 24 May 2026, 4:53 pm IST
Set D processed first as the canonical paper. Set A/B/C shuffle maps publish as those papers are mapped.
CSAT — detailed explanationsLive
Released 24 May 2026, 4:53 pm IST
UPSC official provisional answer keyScheduled
Expected 14 Jun 2026, 6:00 pm IST
UPSC typically releases the provisional key 2-3 weeks after the exam.
UPSC Prelims 2026 resultScheduled
Expected 5 Jul 2026, 6:00 pm IST
UPSC announces Prelims results 4-6 weeks after the exam.

How to check your UPSC Prelims 2026 score

1
Pick your set
Note whether you wrote Set A, B, C or D from the front page of your question paper, then select the matching set in the answer key controls.
2
Mark correct, wrong, skipped
Tally your answers against the reordered answer key. Each correct answer is +2; each wrong answer is -0.66; skipped questions carry no penalty.
3
Calculate your score
Plug your tallies into the score calculator to get your estimated GS Paper 1 total.
4
Check the cutoff
Compare your total against the predicted and historical cutoff for your category.

Frequently asked questions

When is the UPSC Prelims 2026 exam being held?

The UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 is scheduled for 24 May 2026. Paper 1 (General Studies) runs 09:30 to 11:30 IST and Paper 2 (CSAT) runs 14:30 to 16:30 IST.

When will the UPSC Prelims 2026 answer key be released?

Dalvoy publishes the answer key for both papers within an hour of each paper ending — GS Paper 1 by 12:30 IST, CSAT by 17:30 IST. UPSC itself releases the official provisional answer key two to three weeks later, and the final key only after the results.

Are Set A, B, C and D answer keys different?

No. The question paper content is identical across the four sets — UPSC only shuffles the order of questions. Pick your set in the answer-key controls above and the table reorders to match the paper you wrote.

How is the UPSC Prelims 2026 score calculated?

Each correct GS Paper 1 answer is worth 2 marks. Each wrong answer deducts 0.66 marks (one-third). Unattempted questions carry no penalty. Use the score calculator above to estimate your total.

What is the expected cutoff for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Based on the trailing 5-year average and current difficulty signals, the General category cutoff for 2026 is expected to land in the 80–90 band. The expected-cutoff table above breaks this down by category and will be refined once the paper has been fully analysed.

How can I challenge an answer in the official UPSC answer key?

After the official provisional key drops on the UPSC website, you can submit objections through their grievance portal within the stipulated window — typically 7 days. Include the question paper set, question number and supporting references.

Is CSAT counted towards the Prelims cutoff?

No. CSAT (Paper 2) is qualifying only — you must score 33% (66 of 200 marks) to qualify, but the cutoff for moving to Mains is decided entirely by GS Paper 1 marks.

Where can I practice UPSC PYQs after the exam?

Use our Previous Years archive (linked below) for question-wise practice with detailed solutions, subject tagging, and topic-wise analytics across every year since 1995.

Prelims 2025 All years